Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

X100 > X100.7 > Flashcards

X100.7 Flashcards

1
Q

___ ___ ___ ___ are the centerpiece of the planning construct and operationalize CCMD strategies. These plans should focus on the command’s steady-state activities, which include ongoing operations, military engagement, security cooperation, deterrence, and other shaping or preventive activities.

A

Combatant Command Campaign Plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Within the definition of strategy as the integration of ends, ways, and means while accounting for risk to meet a desired end state, the term “risk” means:

A

The chance of failure or unacceptable consequences in performing that sequence of actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following guidance documents is produced by the Chairman, of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?

A

National Military Strategy (NMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which instrument of national power is the principal instrument for engaging with other states and foreign groups in order to advance U.S. values, interests, or to solicit foreign support for U.S. military operations?

A

Diplomatic Instrument of Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The President approves the ___ ___ ___, which defines the responsibilities and areas of responsibility for combatant commanders.`

A

UCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is one analytical framework using a systems approach that JP 3-0 describes to help commanders and staffs develop an understanding of the operational environment?

A

Political, Military, Economic, Social, Information, and Infrastructure System Analysis (PMESII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Staffs must keep abreast of the international security environment and develop an understanding of the operational environment in order to plan effectively. Some social and cultural factors a staff would consider are:

A

Social structure, power and authority, and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The U.S. Constitution empowers _______ to declare war.

A

Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three key national security policy advisory councils to the President of the United States?

A

The National Security Council (NSC), the Homeland Security Council (HSC), and the National Economic Council (NEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Commanders link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this construct the term “ways” is defined as:

A

A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the context of strategy formulation, the questions of feasibility, acceptability, and suitability are really questions about the validity of a given strategy. Which of the following questions best defines the concept of acceptability?

A

Acceptability: Do the expected benefits of attaining the objectives outweigh the potential consequences or costs?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which document produced by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff translates strategic policy end states from the CPG into military campaign and contingency plan guidance?

A

Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Commanders link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this construct the term “ends” is defined as:

A

The objectives that must be achieved to enable a strategic or national objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the context of strategy formulation, the questions of feasibility, acceptability, and suitability are really questions about the validity of a given strategy. Which of the following questions best defines the concept of suitability?

A

Suitability: will the strategy protect/advance the natoinal interest, attain the desired ends, and not work against other national-level goals?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Commanders link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this construct the term “means” is defined as:

A

Resources that are required to accomplish a sequence of actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

________ is the principal military adviser to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense as designated by the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986.

A

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following guidance documents is signed by the Secretary of Defense?

A

National Defense Strategy (NDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When using a Political, Military, Economic, Social, Information, and Infrastructure (PMESII) system analysis the most important aspect of this analysis is:

A

Describing the relevant relationships within and between the various systems that directly or indirectly affect the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which best describes jus ad bellum (justice of going to war)?

A

Going to war for the right reasons, as a last resort, with a reasonable hope for success and with legitimate authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ways nations use power available to exercise control over people, places, things, and events to achieve objectives while accounting for risk is:

A

A strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What instrument of national power uses action that is planned or executed, word that is written or spoken, and images that are displayed or relayed in focused efforts to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of the national interest, policies, and objectives by understanding and engaging key audiences?

A

Informational Instrument of Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the context of strategy formulation, the questions of feasibility, acceptability, and suitability are really questions about the validity of a given strategy. Which of the following questions best defines the concept of feasibility?

A

Feasibility: Can the strategic end be achieved with the resources available, or attainable?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is how the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff carries out statutory responsibilities to assess the environment, advise senior leaders, provide direction to the armed forces, and execute directions from the President and the SECDEF. Which of the following is a JSPS product?

A

The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In order to visualize an approach to solving a problem, a commander must:

A

Describe the operational environment in both its current state and in its desired endstate at the conclusion of operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The joint doctrine instruments of national power are:

A

Diplomatic, Informational, Military, Economic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

__________ includes the authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities to forces.

A

OPCON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which joint function uses available weapons and other systems to create a specific effect on a target?

A

Fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

_________ are conducted by the Department of Defense, at the direction of the Department of State, to assist US citizens to leave a foreign nation when the security situation becomes dangerous.

A

NEO (Noncombatant Evac Operation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time.

A

Mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which military service is considered expeditionary across all domains?

A

US Marine Corps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This is particularly important in the fires function when selecting targets. This principle is known as:

A

Discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which organization within the United Nations is responsible for maintaining international peace and security?

A

The security council

33
Q

Respect, Rapport, Knowledge of Partners, Patience, Mission Focus, Trust and Confidence are tenets of:

A

Multinational operations.

34
Q

According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to direct every military operation toward a clearly defined, decisive, and achievable goal.

A

Objective

35
Q

Joint functions are related capabilities and activities grouped together to help Joint Force Commander to:
(ISD)

A

Integrate, synchronize, direct joint operations

36
Q

Which joint function prioritizes and allocates resources, coordinates and controls the employment of joint lethal and nonlethal capabilities, and prepares plans and orders that include establishing appropriate command authorities among subordinate commands and the assigning of tasks and operational areas?

A

C2

37
Q

Which military operation or activity contains conflict, and shapes the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance.

A

Peace Operations

38
Q

_____________ is a menu of tasks in a common language, which serves as the foundation for joint operations planning across the range of military and interagency operations.

A

UJTL (Universal Joint Task List)

39
Q

Which Command Relationship provides local direction and control of movements or maneuvers to accomplish the mission?

A

TACON

40
Q

A multinational partnership based upon a formal agreement and broad, long term objectives and common interests is ___________.

A

Alliance

41
Q

A multinational operation made up of a group of nations that have agreed to work together on an ad hoc basis for a narrow set of common interests is a/an ____ ___.

A

Coalition operation.

42
Q

Achieving shared understanding, informed decision making and unity of effort among various agencies of the US Government at the combatant command level is done through a:

A

Joint Integration Coordination Group (JIACG)

43
Q

Core logistic functions provide a framework to facilitate integrated decision making, enable effective synchronization and allocation of resources, and optimize joint logistic processes. Each function includes people, processes, and resources. The core logistics functions are: (DSMLOEH)

A 
Deployment and distribution
supply
maintenance
logistic services
operational contract support (OCS)
engineering
Health Services (HS).
44
Q

______ includes the authority for planning, programming, budgeting, and execution process input, and directive authority for logistics

A

COCOM

45
Q

When making decisions on how to achieve an effect on a target, planners consider such factors as lethal versus non-lethal, or the amount of force to use against the perceived military value of the target. Within just conduct in war (jus in bello) this principle is known as:

A

Proportionality

46
Q

Which military operation or activity employs coercive measures to interdict movement of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area?

A

Enforcement of sanctions or sanctions enforcement

47
Q

The principle US Government organization that works with countries on democratic reforms, economic development and disaster assistance and recovery is?

A

United States Agency for International Development (USAID)

48
Q

___________ is a range of DOD activities conducted outside the US and its territories to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation.

A

FHA (foreign humanitarian assistance)

49
Q

_____ _____ attempts to synchronize, coordinate and integrate military operations with the activities of other governmental and nongovernmental entities to achieve unity of effort

A

Unified Actions

50
Q

According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to prevent the unnecessary or unlawful use of force.

A

Restraint

51
Q

What is the integrated structure in a foreign country comprising all US agencies, not under the command of a US combatant commander?

A

US mission / embassy

52
Q

Which joint function encompasses tasks including providing air, space, and missile defense; providing emergency management and response capabilities; and conducting OPSEC, cyberspace defense, and cybersecurity?

A

Protection

53
Q

The ________ should be established In a parallel command structure where coordination, deconfliction, etc. occurs between coalition partners.

A

CCC (Coalition Coordination Center)

54
Q

National interests, the manner and extent of participation, limitations and constraints on the employment of forces are diplomatic and military considerations for the planning and execution of:

A

Multinational operations

55
Q

Defeat Mechanisms (D3I)

A

Destroy, dislocate, disintegrate, isolate

56
Q

Decisive Action (ODSC)

A

Offense

Defense

Stability

Civil support

57
Q

Operational Framework (ADccsDssMs)

A

Area of Operations
Deep, close, consolidation and support areas
Decisive, shaping, and sustaining operations
Main and supporting efforts

58
Q

According to ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense (Aug 18), which offensive task may follow a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?

A

Exploitation

59
Q

According to ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense (Aug 18), what are the four tasks of security operations?

A

Screen, guard, cover, area

60
Q

According to ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense (Aug 18), an attack launched when the situation calls for immediate execution with available forces and minimal preparation time before the enemy can concentrate or establish a defense is called:

A

Hasty attack.

61
Q

According to ADP 3-0, Operations (Oct 17), what is the central idea of unified land operations?

A

As part of a joint force, Army units seize, retain, and exploit the initiative to gain a position of relative advantage in order to shape the operational environment, prevent conflict, consolidate gains, and win our Nation’s wars.

62
Q

According to ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense (Aug 18), what are the five forms of reconnaissance operations?

A

Route, zone, area, reconnaissance in force, and special reconnaissance.

63
Q

According to ADRP 3-0, Operations (Oct 17), what is the area called that is that area of concern to the commander, including the area of influence, areas adjacent thereto, and extending into enemy territory?

A

Area of interest.

64
Q

According to ADP 3-0, Operations (Oct 17), Army leaders plan, prepare, execute, and assess operations by analyzing the operational environment in terms of the operational variables and mission variables. What answer best describes the operational variables?

A

Political, military, economic, social, information, infrastructure, physical environment, and time.

65
Q

According to ADRP 3-0, Operations (Oct 17), operational art is the cognitive approach by commanders and staffs - supported by their skill, knowledge, experience, creativity, and judgment - to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations to organize and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means. T or F

A

True

66
Q

According to ADRP 3-07, Stability (Aug 12), what agency is designed to coordinate the United States Government efforts across five broad technical areas?

A

DOS

67
Q

According to ADRP 3-0, Operations (Oct 17), as one of the elements of operational art, the definition of operational reach is the point at which a force no longer has the capability to continue its form of operations, offense or defense. T or F

A

False

68
Q

According to ADP 3-0, Operations (Oct 17), the deep-close-support-consolidation areas component of the Army’s Operational Framework allows commanders to describe the physical arrangement of forces in time and space. Which of the three areas within this component facilitate the positioning, employment, and protection of base sustainment assets required to sustain, enable, and control operations?

A

Support area.

69
Q

According to ADRP 3-07, Stability (Aug 12), what Army Stability Task is most closely associated with the Department of State’s Stability Sector of Humanitarian Assistance and Social Well-Being?

A

Restore Essential Services.

70
Q

According to ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense (Aug 18), offensive operations have four characteristics. These characteristics are audacity, concentration, surprise, and tempo. T or F

A

True

71
Q

According to ATP 3-91, Division Operations (Oct 14) or FM 3-96, Brigade Combat Team (Oct 15), which brigade combat team is best suited for operations in complex (restrictive and severely restrictive) terrain, and is easier to sustain than the other BCTs?

A

IBCT

72
Q

According to ADRP 5-0, The Operations Process (May 12), which support relationship applies to only like units (for example artillery to artillery)?

A

Reinforcing

73
Q

According to ATP 3-91, Division Operations (Oct 14) what type of brigade is organized and trained to conduct maneuver support (mobility) operations, support area operations, consequence management operations, and stability operations for the supported force?

A

MEB

74
Q

According to ATP 3-91, Division Operations (Oct 14), what is the process of determining the right mix of forces and sequence of their deployment in support of a joint force commander?

A

Force tailoring

75
Q

According to FM 3-94, Theater Army, Corps, and Division Operations (Apr 14), the division-controlled airspace typically extends from the rear boundary to the fire support coordination line (FSCL) and between the lateral boundaries, up to the coordinating altitude. T or F

A

True

76
Q

According to FM 3-94, Theater Army, Corps, and Division Operations (Apr 14), which corps command post is more easily deployed or displaced since most of its transportation is organic, can control corps operations for a limited time, and is sometimes designated as an assault command post?

A

TAC

77
Q

According to FM 3-94, Theater Army, Corps, and Division Operations (Apr 14), which corps command post can control corps operations for a limited time and form the nucleus of a forward-deployed early-entry command post (sometimes designated as an assault command post)?

A

Tactical Command Post

78
Q

According to FM 3-94, Theater Army, Corps, and Division Operations (Apr 14), the corps can control a maximum of how many Army divisions in large-scale combat operations?

A

Only five (5) divisions

79
Q

According to ATP 3-91, Division Operations (Oct 14) or FM 3-96, Brigade Combat Team (Oct 15), which brigade combat team (BCT) is more deployable than the armored BCT and has greater tactical mobility, protection, and firepower than the infantry BCT?

A

Stryker BCT

X100 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions