wrong questions

Question 1

Which amendment did Hadacheck v Sebastian test?

Answer 1

Hadacheck v Sebastian was a zoning case testing whether a Los Angeles zoning ordinance violated the 14th Amendment Due Process and Equal Protection Clauses. The Supreme Court found that the ordinance prohibiting the location of a brick manufacturing plant in a specific location in the city did not violate the 14th Amendment.

Question 2

What is a “capitalization rate” and how would you calculated it?

Answer 2

A capitalization rate is the rate of return on a real estate investment based on the expected income that the property is expected to generate. This represents the potential return on investment. The capitalization rate is calculated by dividing the income the property will generate, subtracting known costs, by the total value of the property.

Question 3

What is the smallest Census geographic unit for which the Census Bureau collects 100-percent data?

Answer 3

Census block

Question 4

what is the difference between CIP, PPBS, ZBB, and Performance budgeting?

Answer 4

CIP (Capital improvement program) since it can include operating costs and long-term maintenance costs.

PPBS (Planning-Programming-Budgeting System) is about linking planning and budgeting and making the budget reflect objectives, strategies, and plans.

Performance budgeting ties budgets to performance objectives.

Zero-based budgeting starts from a “zero base,” and every function within an organization is analyzed for its needs and costs.

Question 5

Planning-Programming-Budgeting System (PPBS)

Answer 5

Is a management tool to provide a better analytical basis for decision making and for putting such decisions into operation. A PPBS is constituted, basically, of five elements: (1) a program structure — a classification of the courses of action open to an organization for attaining its objectives; (2) an approved program document that includes precise, quantitative data on needs, resource inputs, and program outputs extending a number of years into the future; (3) a decision making process that establishes the functions, rules, and timetables for the actions required by the PPBS; (4) an analysis process for measuring effectiveness and for weighing alternatives; and (5) an information system that supplies the data required to implement the system.

Answer 6

A capital improvements program (CIP) is typically a five to seven year plan for planning and funding public facilities and infrastructure. It includes both the construction of new facilities and the rehabilitation or replacement of existing capital facilities. A key element is the link between growth in a community and timing of capital investments – also known as concurrency.

Question 7

What is the function of a Council of Government (CoG) or regional council?

Answer 7

A COG or regional council is a multi-service entity with state- and locally-defined boundaries that delivers a variety of federal, state, and local programs while carrying out its function as a planning organization, technical assistance provider, and “visionary” to its member local governments.

Question 8

You have just been hired as the first city planner for a small but growing city. Your first duty is to develop a comprehensive plan. What is the first thing you should do to get started?

Answer 8

The first step is to get authorization to start the planning process from the elected body and to ensure that adequate resources are available to support the planning process.
The correct answer is: Prepare a report to the City Council outlining the planning process and the resources that will be needed to complete the plan.

Question 9

Which of the following is the best way to resolve a conflict in the community?
Select one:

a.
Delphi method

b.
Consensus building

c.
Mediation

d.
A referendum

Answer 9

While on an individual basis mediation can be most effective when you are working with a large group such as a community consensus building is more effective. Consensus building (also called collaborative problem solving or collaboration) is essentially mediation of a conflict which involves many parties. Usually, the conflict also involves multiple, complex issues. While consensus building is probably most often used in environmental disputes, it is applicable to many other kinds of public policy disputes as well as the community, state, and international levels.
The correct answer is: Consensus building

Question 10

Coupon rate

Answer 10

The coupon rate is the rate of interest for bonds, notes, and other securities.

Question 11

what was a key finding of the Dolan v. City of Tigard case?

Answer 11

In the Dolan v. City of Tigard case, the court found that the exaction on a property must be roughly proportional in nature and extent to the impact of the proposed land development.

Off-site improvements are ones for which only a portion of the impact would be created by individual development, while on-site improvements can typically be fully attributed to the development.

Question 12

What is an an “easement by necessity” used for?

Answer 12

According to the common law doctrine, an easement by necessity is used to allow a landlocked landowner to access a public roadway over another’s private land when no other relief is feasible.

Question 13

Which of the following would be the least effective methodology for conducting an environmental impact statement?
Select one:

a.
Networks

b.
Scoping

c.
Rational Planning

d.
Checklists

Answer 13

Rational planning would not be the best approach for conducting an EIS. An EIS is conducted using a mix of scoping, analysis, and assessment.

Rational planning stands out as being unlike the others (even where “networks” could be different things), so that is a clue that it is the best answer. Also, rational planning is about defining goals, generating alternatives, and then applying “objective” criteria to choose the “best” alternative. An EIS does generate alternatives, but it focuses on assessing the impacts of alternatives.

Question 14

You are a planner in a mid-sized city and you have an opportunity to invest in a development, but the proposal will come before your agency for approval. What should you do?
Select one:

a.
Place the investment in a family member’s name.

b.
Remove yourself from the case when it comes before the planning commission.

c.
Decline the investment opportunity.

d.
Make the investment, but let you boss know about the transaction.

Answer 14

You do not want to create an appearance of a conflict of interest. Even if you are not responsible for the case, it can appear that there is a conflict of interest. The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers.”

The correct answer is: Decline the investment opportunity.

Question 15

what happens when an AICP Planner is convicted of a serious crime?

Answer 15

Section E of the AICP Code of Ethics calls for automatic suspension of AICP designation upon conviction for a serious crime. The AICP Code states “For purposes of this Policy, the term “serious crime” shall mean any crime that, in the judgment of the Ethics Committee or the Ethics Officer, involves false swearing, misrepresentation, fraud, failure to file income tax returns or to pay tax, deceit, bribery, extortion, misappropriation, theft, or physical harm to another.”

Question 16

Which of the following does NOT constitute a conflict of interest according to the AICP Code of Ethics?
Select one:

a.
Accepting a bribe from a homebuilder.

b.
Working for a developer who has a case before your employer.

c.
Reviewing a rezoning case for a property your brother owns.

d.
Providing private information about a case to an environmental group.

Answer 16

While all of these answers are unethical, providing private information about a case to an environmental group does NOT constitute a conflict of interest according to the AICP Code of Ethics.

Question 17

Three planners work together for a developer for several years before both joining the planning department in a mid-sized city. The planners are close and play on the same community softball league and go out for happy hour every month. After two years at the department, one of the planners returns to the development firm. How does this change the personal and professional relationship of the planners?

Answer 17

The AICP Code states “We shall avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers.”. If the planner at the development firm were to submit cases to the city Director will need to take responsibility for assignment of cases from the planner with the developer to ensure that the friends do not review the case. Because it is a mid-sized city it is likely that the Director will have to do the reviews themselves.

The correct answer is: It will change because the director will need to make sure that permitting cases from the developer are assigned to him rather than the staff planners who are friends.

Question 18

Which of the following would best protect and preserve agricultural land?
Select one:

a.
Pass a state Right to Farm law

b.
Adoption of an agricultural zoning district

c.
Development of a transfer of development rights program

d.
Development of a purchase of development rights program

Answer 18

Development of a purchase of development rights program would best protect and preserve agricultural land. While the other answers would protect agricultural land, a purchase program guarantees that land will be preserved in perpetuity.

The correct answer is: Development of a purchase of development rights program

Question 19

Purchase of Development Rights Program

Answer 19

A public program to pay
landowners the fair market value of their
development rights in exchange for a permanent
conservation easement that restricts
development of the property. PDR
programs are strictly voluntary and are
usually funded by the sale of bonds or
property tax revenues. (Washtenaw
County, Mich.)

Question 20

right-to-farm law

Answer 20

[A law] intended to protect farmers and

ranchers from nuisance lawsuits. Every
state in the nation has at least one right-to-
farm law. Some statutes protect farms
and ranches from lawsuits filed by neighbors
who moved in after the agricultural
operation was established. Others protect
farmers who use generally accepted agricultural
and management practices and comply with federal and state laws.

Twenty-three right-to-farm laws also prohibit
local governments from enacting
ordinances that would impose unreasonable
restrictions on agriculture. (American
Farmland Trust)

Question 21

In which situation would fiscal impact analysis be the most appropriate method to use?
Select one:

a.
The city wants to determine the benefit of public infrastructure development.

b.
The city wants to determine the cost of providing service to all residential development.

c.
The city wants to determine the cost of providing service to a new development.

d.
The city wants to determine the benefit of employment generation.

Answer 21

Fiscal impact analysis calculates the total cost to the city of new development, as well as the tax revenue that is generated from the development.

The correct answer is: The city wants to determine the cost of providing service to a new development.

Question 22

What is the primary purpose of a fiscal impact analysis?

Answer 22

If a particular development or plan will bring more in revenues than it will cost in services, it might help ease local financial burdens and allow the locality to improve services or cut taxes. Conversely, if it will require service costs that exceed revenues, it could increase pressure to raise taxes, find additional sources of funds, or curtail community services. It is important to understand the fiscal impact of a proposed development on public services.

The correct answer is: To assist city or county officials determine if a project will generate sufficient revenue to defray necessary public service costs

Question 23

What is Miami 21?

Answer 23

A form based code, guided by the tenants of Smart Growth and New Urbanism.

Question 24

Harland Bartholomew

Answer 24

Harland Bartholomew had a long career and was responsible for preparing the comprehensive plans for communities across the country.

The correct answer is: Wrote a comprehensive plan for St. Louis

Question 25

HOPE VI

Answer 25

provided funds for physical improvements, management improvements, and social and community services to address public housing resident needs.

HOPE VI provided Public Housing Authorities (PHA) with grants for planning and implementation aimed at the comprehensive revitalization of severely distressed public housing developments. Permitted activities under HOPE VI included the funding of major reconstruction, rehabilitation and other physical improvements, provision of new housing, planning and technical assistance, implementation of community service programs and supportive activities, and planning for any of the previous activities. Housing Authorities that received grants were required to provide supportive services for both original and new residents to obtain self-sufficiency. HOPE VI funds were last awarded in 2010; however, HOPE VI projects are still in the process of completion. Public Housing Agencies that received HOPE VI funding typically selected for-profit and non-profit organizations to develop and own the new projects through a competitive process.

Question 26

Home Investment Partnership Program

Answer 26

Created under the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, the HOME Investment Partnership Program provides funds to finance activities that build, buy, and rehabilitate affordable housing for rental or homeownership, or to provide direct rental assistance to low-income people. U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) allocates funds to New York State Homes and Community Renewal (HCR) and New York City Department of Housing Preservation and Development (HPD) for eligible development projects that include: rental projects, homeownership assistance projects, and tenant-based rental assistance projects. Rental projects assisted by the HOME Program are required to remain affordable to low-income households for an applicable regulatory period, the term of which is based on several factors, including the amount of the HOME subsidy and the type of activity funded.

Question 27

Jane Addams

Answer 27

A housing reformer active in the 19th century. In 1899 Jane Addams founded the Hull House in Chicago to provide housing to low-income families.

Question 28

Matrix management structure

Answer 28

Matrix management is an organizational structure in which some individuals report to more than one supervisor or leader–relationships described as solid line or dotted line reporting.

Question 29

What Is a Management Audit?

Answer 29

• A management audit is an assessment of how well an organization’s management team is applying its strategies and resources.
• it evaluates whether the management team is working in the interests of shareholders, employees, and the company’s reputation.
• it does not evaluate individual managers but rather the overall management of the company in its ability to achieve its goals.
• The board of directors will hire independent consultants to conduct the management audit rather than use the company’s internal audit team.
• Once a management audit is complete, the external audit company will provide an entire plan for the board of directors to implement to effect change.

A management audit might address such questions as the following:

• What organizational structure has been set up by management?
• Are there clear lines of reporting or is there confusion?
• What are the policies and procedures and are they always in compliance?
• What is the state of relations among the employees of the organization?
• How does management put together its annual budget?
• Are the IT systems kept up-to-date?
• How effective is workforce recruitment and retention? - Are there training programs to keep skills current among employees?

Question 30

when would a management audit be used in a planning agency?

Answer 30

A management audit is used to examine the efficiency and effectiveness of management in carrying out its activities. Areas of auditor interest include the nature and quality of management decisions and operating results. A management audit focuses on results, evaluating the effectiveness and suitability of how an organization conducts business.

• Undertake an assessment of capacity that will allow you as the manager to adjust performance expectations.
• Current employers have complained that they have a hard time attracting quality employees because they cannot afford to purchase houses.

Question 31

Management by Objectives (MBO)

Answer 31

Management by Objectives (MBO) is a process of agreeing upon objectives within an organization so that management and employees agree to the objectives and understand what they are. Management By Objectives term was first popularized by Peter Drucker in 1954 in his book ‘The Practice of Management’.

Question 32

zero based budget

Answer 32

Zero based budgeting assumes that every unit has $0 and then the governing body decides on a series of decision packages that will advance key goals and objectives of the organization.

Question 33

Which of the following divisions would characterize a planning agency that is vertically integrated by subject area?
Select one:

a.
Transportation, land use, housing

b.
Current planning, long range planning, sustainability

c.
Current planning, regulations, information systems

d.
Comprehensive planning, site plan review, zoning

Answer 33

Planning agencies might be vertically integrated by subject area (e.g., transportation, land use, housing), which is different from organizing by functional approach (e.g., planning, regulations, information systems, investment, policy). Organization by an agency’s legal status would separate legislative functions (e.g., planning, code writing), from quasi-judicial (e.g., regulatory), and enforcement (e.g., permit administration).

Question 34

You are trying to reach out to senior citizens in your community to understand whether the existing senior center is meeting the community’s needs. Which of the following would be the most effective way to reach this group?
Select one:

a.
Social Media link to a Survey

b.
Mail Survey

c.
Phone Survey

d.
Email Survey

Answer 34

Those over 65 use the Internet and e-mail in the smallest portions. A phone or mail survey are more likely to reach seniors, but a mail survey is the most likely to reach the resident and to receive a response.
The correct answer is: Mail Survey

Question 35

What does MAP-21 stand for?

Answer 35

Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century

Question 36

Your organization has been contracted to help determine community preferences regarding a new zoning reform effort. You have already conducted a mail survey, and the survey response rate was sufficient. However, while the survey provided generalized information, you need to gain more comprehensive understanding. Which of the following would be the most effective approach?

Answer 36

Surveys are good for gaining a generalized understanding of community preferences. For a more comprehensive, in-depth understanding, interviewing neighborhood organizations would be a good approach. Public hearings are unlikely to provide more depth of understanding. Charrettes are aimed at intensive planning and design outcomes.

The correct answer is: Interview neighborhood organizations

Question 37

PERT Network chart

Answer 37

The Program Evaluation and Review technique is a decision-making tool designed to achieve objectives in which time is a critical factor. This technique is most helpful when time expectations are significant.

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) – is a scheduling method that graphically illustrate the interrelationships of project tasks.
- PERT is a good choice when precise time estimates are not available for project tasks.
- The US Navy developed this technique in the 1950s
- PERT Involves the following steps:
o Identify specific activities and milestones
o Determine the proper sequence of activities
o Construct a network diagram
o Determine the critical path
o Update the chart as the project progresses

Question 38

Critical Path Method

Answer 38

Critical Path Method (CPM) – is a project analysis tool that generates a “critical path” through the project tasks. Each project task has a known amount of time to complete and cannot be completed before the previous one is completed. The longest pathway is the critical pathway.

PERT and CPM work when the project is of large-scale. Typically, project management software is used to perform this kind of analysis. Over time, these two methods evolved to be considered one method, PERT/CPM.

Question 39

Linear Programming

Answer 39

is a project management method that attempts to find the optimum design solution for a project. The system takes a set of decision variables, within constraints, and generates an optimum design solution

Question 40

Gantt Chart

Answer 40

Gantt Chart – chart that focuses on the sequence of tasks necessary for project completion. Each task is represented by a horizontal bar. The x-axis is time. The length of the task bar corresponds to the time it will take. Usually, one task depends on the completion of another.
- Developed in 1917 by Charles Gantt

Question 41

Goals Achievement Matrix (GAM)

Answer 41

Goals Achievement Matrix (GAM) – is a comprehensive way to evaluate a project. It consists of a project evaluation matrix that includes competeing projects in rows and evaluation criteria in columns. The evaluation criteria are based on various stakeholder groups that may be impacted by the costs or be recipients of the benefits. The matrix shows the anticipated attainment of a project’s goals and the assignment of accomplishing the goal to a group.

Question 42

You are organizing a public participatory event that disseminates information to local residents about the Department of Planning’s newest venture— a revitalization of a historic downtown commercial district. Your meeting is composed of a technical presentation by members of the Department and a group Q and A. A transcript of the meeting is recorded and saved in an official record. This meeting is an example of a …

a.
open house

b.
educational event

c.
public meeting

d.
public hearing

Answer 42

A public hearing includes a technical presentation, group Q&A, and a formal transcript.

A public meeting is less formal and delineated from other meetings than a public hearing and can take many forms.

An open house is looser in structure and does not involve a formal presentation but a series of loose presentations or information displays with one-on-one Q&As between members of the planning department and interested residents.

An educational event also includes an informational display and a presentation by the Planning Department to educate the public about a specific topic, but because the goal is education rather than gauging public opinion, there is less dialogue between planners and residents.

Question 43

When preparing for a contentious public meeting, planners should…

a. cede the floor to community members whenever possible to ensure residents feel heard.

b. accept questions via verbal communication only to avoid distraction during the meeting.

c. allow community members to speak for as long as they see fit to build trust.

d. personally invite advocates and vocal residents to the meeting to build goodwill.

Answer 43

Planners have a responsibility to build and maintain trust and goodwill in the communities they serve, but it is also important to keep public meetings controlled. The other choices risk derailing planning meetings, but the correct choice emphasizes the importance of community members without allowing them complete control of the meeting.

The correct answer is:
personally invite advocates and vocal residents to the meeting to build goodwill.

Question 44

What are similarities and differences between facilitation and mediation?

Answer 44

• A third party with no direct stake in the outcome facilitates the discussion

Mediation involves a third party, but it is not binding. Mediation can compliment public engagement methods like design charettes. It is a pre-step, before a project reaches the public hearing stage. The idea is to involve a neutral, trained third party to find a solution to a contentious issue. Mediators are trained to make sure people feel heard, discover the parties’ true interests (not just their stated positions), and manage emotions. Mediation starts with everyone agreeing to a set of ground rules. The Mediator guides the conversation.

Mediation is most appropriate when maintaining ongoing relationships is important, emotions are high, issues are complex and often not stated explicitly, and novel solutions 9as permitted by law) are useful. It works well in cases involving nonconforming uses, small infill, or business applications that require a conditional use permit. It works well in cases of Nimby opposition. The zoning or planning board needs to have some leeway in decision-making

Mediation complements the traditional zoning process. The zoning or planning board maintains full control of the process, but receives proposals that a less combative. Research has shown that mediation can be a significant savings in time and cost. Lawsuits and appeals are minimized. Even if no agreement is reached, mediation can reduce the contentiousness of a debate.

Question 45

The city has been struggling since the economic downturn to fully fund public services. The city has created a task force to look at opportunities to reduce costs. Of particular interest are opportunities to partner on shared services. Which of the following should you recommend as part of the task force report?
Select one:

a. Street lighting

b. School recreational areas

c. School busing

d. Storm water management

Answer 45

Communities and schools have partnered to share school recreational facilities when school is not operating. This maximizing facility utilization and shares the cost.
The correct answer is: School recreational areas

Question 46

four common groups which administer zoning regulations

Answer 46

1. The governing body, called variously the city council, board of county commissioners,
   board of supervisors, town board, or board of freeholders, is the local legislative
   branch which has most of the power and responsibility for zoning decisions
2. The
   appointed planning commission is typically advisory to the governing body on
   zoning matters, although it often has direct or even final authority in the adoption of
   master plans and the review of subdivisions.
3. board of adjustment or
   appeals. This board, also appointed by elected officials, commonly considers requests
   for variances or exceptions to zoning standards. In some states the board of
   adjustment also interprets unclear provisions of the zoning ordinance and considers
   appeals from administrative actions, such as denial of a building permit for a zoning
   related reason. Variances involve minor deviations from specific requirements, most
   commonly bulk. They typically refer to hardship inherent in the physical
   characteristics of the land, although they often are misconstrued as alleviation of
   financial hardship
4. planning staff supports the governing body, planning commission, and
   zoning board in their zoning functions. Staff manages all aspects of zoning
   administration, including Revision, implementation, and enforcement. It performs
   project reviews and provides information to the other three groups as well as to the
   public. Before a building permit can be issued, staff reviews the proposed structure to ensure that it complies with all zoning requirements. Noncompliance may result in
   a request for an appeal, a variance, or a rezoning, rezonings or map amendments
   allow changes to zoning district boundaries or classifications. They occur when a
   property owner or local government initiates a change. Rezonings are a common
   occurrence in many communities.

Question 47

zoning board of adjustment

Answer 47

An officially constituted body whose principal duties are to grant variances from the strict application of the zoning code and to grant special exceptions and conditional uses as provided by law.

A quasi-judicial body which hears and decides matters relating to the application of the zoning ordinance and considers appeals from the decisions of the zoning administrator and building official and considers variance and special exception applications.

Question 48

The APA recognizes 3 C’s of public engagement

Answer 48

Coalition building, Consensus building, and Conflict resolution.

Question 49

Following the U.S. Census Bureau’s delineation of urban area boundaries, you are directed by your supervisory to challenge the delineation because of how it affects program eligibility and funding formulas. You respond to your supervisor that:

I. Urban area boundaries do not impact funding formulas.

II. The Census Bureau does not have an appeal process.

III. The Census Bureau publishes criteria for delineating urban areas prior to each decennial census, and that is when comments are received.

IV. You will draft the appeal which will then need to be approved by the County Board.

a. I only

b. II only

c. II and III only

d. IV only

Answer 49

Program eligibility and funding formulas can be impacted by urban and rural boundaries. However, the Census Bureau does not have an appeal process. Prior to each decennial census, the Census Bureau publishes in the Federal Register proposed criteria for delineating urban areas for public review and comment. The final criteria adopted for application with decennial census and other data to delineate urban areas reflects the comments received through the Federal Register comment process.

Question 50

Urban cluster

Answer 50

The Census Bureau uses the following definition for an urban cluster - Urban Clusters (UCs) of at least 2,500 and less than 50,000 people.

Question 51

Urban growth boundary (UGB)

Answer 51

A perimeter drawn around an urban growth area.

The boundary or line marking the limit between the urban growth areas and other areas such as rural and resource areas where urban growth is not encouraged, as designated by the county in consultation with cities, under the requirements of [state law].

Urban growth boundaries provide for an orderly and efficient transition from rural to urban land use. Urban growth boundaries shall be established to identify
and separate urbanizable land from rural land. Establishment and change of the boundaries shall be based upon considerations of the following factors: (1) demonstrated need to accommodate long-range urban population growth requirements
consistent with LCDC (Land
Conservation and Development Commission) goals; (2) need for housing, employment opportunities, and livability; (3) orderly and economic provision for public facilities and services; (4) maximum efficiency of land uses within and on the fringe of the existing urban area; (5) environmental, energy, economic, and social consequences; (6) retention of agricultural
land with four levels of priority; (7) compatibility of the proposed urban uses with nearby agricultural activities.

A boundary, sometimes parcel-specific, located to mark the outer limit beyond which urban development will not be allowed.
It has the aim of discouraging urban sprawl by containing urban development during a specified period, and its location may be modified over time.

Question 52

Lawrence Veiller

Answer 52

is the father of the modern housing code. He was concerned with housing conditions for those who are low income. He produced a Tenement Exhibition with proposals for New York City. He went on to become secretary of the New York State Tenement House Commission and drafted the New York State Tenement House Act of 1901 that established basic housing laws - including fire exits and running water for bathrooms in every tenement.

Question 53

Waht are the top 5 household surveys by the Census Bureau?

Answer 53

• Household Pulse Survey (COVID-19)
• American Community Survey (ACS)
• Current Population Survey (CPS)
• National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)
• National Health Interview Survey (NHIS)

Question 54

What is the design speed on local roads?

Answer 54

25-35 mph

Question 55

Which of the following tools was used to gain public feedback about the World Trade Center proposals developed by the Lower Manhattan Development Corporation?

Answer 55

The Lower Manhattan Development Corporation and the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey held an online discussion via an electronic town hall meeting to gain feedback on proposals for the world trade center site redevelopment.
The correct answer is: Electronic town hall meeting

Question 56

enterprise fund

Answer 56

An enterprise fund is an account established to manage the revenues and expenditures of a self-sufficient activity such as a golf course, zoo, parking garage, minor league baseball park etc.

“Enterprise Funds account for any activity for which a fee is charged to external users for goods or services.” – so that would describe a golf course.

Question 57

You are a planner in California working on an integrated regional water management plan. Which of the following outreach strategies would be best for communities possibly affected by environmental justice issues?

Select one:

a.
Place information, documents and other materials in local libraries

b.
Work with public agencies and non-profit staff to facilitate outreach efforts

c.
Identify water agencies and irrigation districts in all areas

d.
All of these choices are correct.

Answer 57

All of these items should be a component of a public outreach strategy intended to reach into communities that could be affected by environmental justice issues.

The correct answer is: All of these choices are correct.

Question 58

ethical firewall

Answer 58

An ethical firewall creates a wall between elected officials and the line staff who are charged with administering the regulations of the organization.

Question 59

Golden v. Ramapo (1972)

Answer 59

In Golden v. Ramapo (1972) the Court of Appeals of New York (the highest court in the state) marked the first time in the U.S. that a town was legally approved to control its own growth. At issue was a planned development system the town adopted in 1969 as a way to effectuate its 1966 master plan. This case was not heard by the supreme court.

Question 60

What is the federal definition of homelessness and why is it problematic?

Answer 60

Federal law defines a homeless person as one who, “lacks a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence … and has a primary night residency that is: a shelter or a public or private place not designed for, or ordinarily used as, a regular sleeping accommodation for human beings.” This definition works well in large urban communities, but is problematic in assessing the status of homeless persons in rural areas where there are few shelters.

Question 61

What were the main provisions of the 1949 Housing Act?

Answer 61

The main components of the National Housing Act of 1949 included federal financing for slum clearance programs associated with urban restoration projects in American cities (Title I), increased authorization for the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) mortgage insurance (Title II), and money to build more than 800,000 public houses.

Question 62

Sierra Club v. Morton

Answer 62

The Mineral King Valley was an undeveloped part of the Sequoia National Forest. Disney won a bid to develop a ski resort. The size the proposed resort would require the construction of a new highway and massive high voltage power lines that would run through the Sequoia National Forest. The Sierra Club filed preliminary and permanent injunctions against federal officials to prevent them from granting permits for the development

The district court granted these injunctions. The U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit overturned the injunctions on the grounds that the Sierra Club did not show that it would be directly affected by the actions of the defendants and therefore did not have standing to sue under the Administrative Procedure Act. Alternatively, the appellate court also held that the Sierra Club had not made an adequate showing of irreparable injury or likelihood of their success on the merits of the case.

Did the Sierra Club adequately establish that it had a sufficient stake in the development of the Mineral King Valley to establish standing for a suit under the Administrative Procedure Act?

The Sierra Club did not have standing to sue under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) because it failed to show that any of its members had suffered or would suffer injury as a result of the defendants’ actions.

the Court held that, in order to have standing to sue under the APA, the plaintiffs must demonstrate they had directly suffered an injury as a result of the actions that led to the suit.

a dissenting opinion in which he argued that the standing doctrine should allow environmental organizations such as the Sierra Club to sue on behalf of inanimate objects such as land.

Question 63

APA filed an amicus curiae brief in support of an eminent domain action taken by a U.S. city. The brief argued that one way to reduce the advantage developers experience in greenfield development is to use eminent domain to assemble tracts of land in high-density urban areas. This brief was filed in support of which case?

Answer 63

Kelo v. City of New London

Question 64

A 360-degree evaluation

Answer 64

allows employees to receive feedback from people they report to, peers, and people that work for employees.

Question 65

Peter Drucker is associated with what technique?

Answer 65

Peter Drucker is associated with MBO. Management by Objectives (MBO) is a process of agreeing upon objectives within an organization so that management and employees buy into the objectives and understand what they are.

Question 66

Zero-Base Budgeting

Answer 66

A method of budgeting in which all expenses must be justified for each budget period. Zero-based budgeting starts from a “zero base” and every function within an organization is analyzed for its needs and costs. Budgets are then built around what is needed for the upcoming budget year, regardless of whether the budget is higher or lower than the previous one. This method allows for strategic goal implementation and integration into the budgeting process by tying goals to expenditures.

Starts the budget each year from scratch

Breaks the budget into decision packages

Ties decision packages to long range goals

Question 67

What agency manages the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit program, and what mechanism is used to award credits?

Answer 67

States manage the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC) program through a state housing finance agency. The state housing agency has wide discretion in determining which projects to award credits, and applications are considered under the state’s “Qualified Allocation Plan” (QAP).

Question 68

Multi-attribute Utility Analysis

Answer 68

Multi-attribute Utility Analysis allows for weighting of a series of values dimensions. For example, participants are given a number of points that can be allocated between the value dimensions or participants can be asked which of two values is more important.

Question 69

What is the benefit of a facilitator in a planning meeting?

Answer 69

They do not have a direct stake in the outcome of a meeting to help groups that disagree work together to solve complex problems and come to a consensus.

Question 70

metropolitan statistical area

Answer 70

A Metropolitan statistical area is a census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically.

Question 71

Over 82% of Americans now live in urban areas. What are some facts about the urbanization of the US?

Answer 71

Young professionals and Baby Boomers are the key populations moving into cities

The Western U.S. is the most urbanized part of the country today

Net migration, rather than higher birth rates, is driving the growth of urban areas

Only 4 states have a majority rural population: Maine, Vermont, West Virginia and Mississippi

Question 72

incrementalist planning theory

Answer 72

Lindblom’s incrementalism was a critique of rational planning. Lindblom described planning as “muddling through” and thought that practical planning required decisions to be made incrementally. It rests on the idea that practical planning requires decisions to be made in a step-by-step fashion. It was still scientific, although its focus was not efficiency.

Question 73

Which Planning theory is Harvey Perloff associated with?

Answer 73

rational planning

Harvey S. Perloff (1915–1983) was dean of the School of Architecture and Urban Planning at the University of California at Los Angeles from 1968 until his death. In 1982, he received the first distinguished planning educator award of the Association of Collegiate Schools of Planning. In the 1950s, Perloff headed the planning school at the University of Chicago. He is known for a series of books, including Planning the Post Industrial City, published by the American Planning Association in 1980. Designated a National Planning Pioneer in 1992.

Question 74

non-sampling error

Answer 74

A non-sampling error relates to happenings during data collection that create unreliable data.

Question 75

Norman Krumholz

Answer 75

Krumholz is a professor at Cleveland State University, and prior to that
time he practiced planning in Ithaca, Pittsburgh and Cleveland. He also served as President of the
American Planning Association. Krumholz is known for his work and publications around equity
planning.

The City of Cleveland, under Director Krumholz, utilized advocacy planning.

Question 76

What is the difference between outcome evaluation, process evaluation, and Ripple Effect Mapping?

Answer 76

Outcome evaluation might involve collecting individual or community level changes in how people engage with each other. Process evaluation involves collecting data in the planning and implementation phases and are done at the beginning and throughout the engagement process. Ripple Effect Mapping is a method used in evaluation to engage key stakeholders in assessing the impact of community engagement.

Question 77

A program monitoring system

Answer 77

documents progress, collects feedback and allows for plan revisions as needed.

Question 78

Proportional Valuation Method

Answer 78

A fiscal analysis that estimates the average costs of the proposed office development is known as the Proportional Valuation Method. The proportional valuation method examines increases in community revenues and expenditures related to development. Specific expenditures and revenues are allocated to land uses. Costs and revenues are allocated to residential, commercial and industrial land uses in proportion to the share each represents of the total property base as reflected in property value. After costs and revenues are allocated, a current cost per acre by land use type is estimated and this is then applied to the development.

Question 79

Radburn, New Jersey

Answer 79

Radburn had a mix of uses and was designed by Clarence Stein and Henry Wright based on the concept of the garden city. Construction began in 1929.
It was originally designed for 30,000 people and it called for a mix of uses

Question 80

Under the Environmental Protection Agency guidelines that the Army Corps administers when considering whether to issue a section 404 permit