Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

C12U CAE Fixed Wing Course > Written Test III > Flashcards

Written Test III Flashcards

1
Q

The TWR-850 WXR can detect and display weather out to the _________ NM range.

A. 50

B. 100

C. 300

D. 600

A

C. 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The TWR-850 in the C-12U consists of a _________inch antenna that transmits a _________ degree beam.

A. 8, 12

B. 10, 12

C. 12, 8

D. 14, 10

A

C. 12, 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Test pattern consists of _________ colored arcs sweeping across the display. Fifth arc changes between magenta and red on alternate antenna scans.

A. five

B. six

C. seven

D. eight

A

B. six

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Turbulence detection and display is available at what display ranges?

A. 2.5

B. 10

C. 40

D. 80

A

C. 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pressing the _________ button on the center DCP allows for quicker refresh rate of the WXR display.

A. SEC

B. STAB

C. PLT/CPLT

D. CURSOR RST

A

A. SEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Turbulence is displayed as _________ dots or speckles.

A. red

B. green

C. yellow

D. magenta

A

D. Magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The WX-1000 Stormscope is a _________ system, capable of detecting and displaying lightning strike data.

A. active

B. radar

C. passive

D. powerful

A

C. Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Discharge points can be cleared with the _________ button, allowing for better analyzing of displayed lightning data.

A. RUN

B. CLEAR

C. RANGE

D. START

A

B. Clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the Honeywell Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System physically located?

A. Aft compartment

B. Under pilot’s side shelf

C. Compartment in right wing

D. Avionics bay in the nose of the aircraft

A

D. Avionics bay in the nose of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the EGPWS Circuit Breaker located?

A. Copilot side shelf

B. Pilot left subpanel

C. Compartment in right wing

D. Overhead circuit breaker panel

A

B. Pilot left subpanel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bank angle advisories are inhibited below _________ ft?

A. 5

B. 25

C. 50

D. 100

A

A. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is it permissible to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A. Anytime

B. Only in Class A airspace

C. To comply with a EGPWS warning

D. When below 10,000 feet and descending

A

C. To comply with a EGPWS warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the color magenta indicate on the MFD terrain display?

A. No terrain exists in that area

B. The lowest terrain exists in that area

C. The highest terrain exists in that area

D. Terrain data in unavailable for that particular area

A

D. Terrain data in unavailable for that particular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The _________ is an airborne system that interrogates Mode A, C, and S transponders in nearby aircraft and uses the replies to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats to the flight crew.

A. enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS)

B. traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS II)

C. cockpit audio systems (speakers and headsets)

D. stormscope and weather radar

A

B. traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS II)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define Closest Point of Approach (CPA).

A. The exact point in space at which the intruder will skim to your aircraft.

B. The predicted time at which the intruder will impact your aircraft.

C. The predicted point in space at which the intruder will be closest to your aircraft.

D. The calculated position at which the intruder will be able to see your aircraft.

A

C. The predicted point in space at which the intruder will be closest to your aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The solid (filled) cyan diamond TCAS symbol, with the number +10 above it and an arrow pointing downward would indicate:

A. “Other” traffic, 1000 feet above own ship and climbing at greater than 500 feet per minute.

B. “Proximate” traffic, 1000 feet above own ship and climbing at greater than 500 feet per minute.

C. Resolution Advisory, 1000 feet above own ship and climbing at greater than 500 feet per minute.

D. “Proximate” traffic, 1000 feet above own ship and descending at greater than 500 feet per minute.

A

D. “Proximate” traffic, 1000 feet above own ship and descending at greater than 500 feet per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the TCAS II TVSI is selected to ABV (Above), this setting would display _________ feet above and _________ feet below the aircraft altitude. Used during takeoff and climbs.

A. 1200, 1200

B. 9900, 2700

C. 2700, 9900

D. 9900, 9900

A

B. 9900, 2700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The TCAS II system installed on the C12U1 aircraft is tested through which transponder?

A. Transponder (TTC-920)

B. Military Transponder (APX-119)

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A or B

A

C. Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All named waypoints in the GPS database are identified with a _________ designation provided by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC).

A. four-letter

B. five-letter

C. four-number

D. five-number

A

B. five-letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The angles of intercept (arc to radial or radial to arc) are about _________ degrees.

A. 15

B. 30

C. 45

D. 90

A

D. 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inbound aircraft should initiate contact about _________ miles from an airport without an operating control tower and continue to monitor the appropriate frequency until after landing and clear of the movement area.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. 25

A

B. 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The FAA recommends a maximum airspeed of _________.KIAS during procedure-turn course reversals.

A. 200

B. 220

C. 230

D. 250

A

A. 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The final approach starts at the FAF and ends at the MAP. The optimum length of the final approach is _________ miles; the maximum length is 10 miles.

A. 5

B. 8

C. 10

D. 15

A

A. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Considering holding, adjust outbound timing to achieve a one minute (one-and-a-half minutes above _________ feet MSL) inbound leg.

A. 8000

B. 10,000

C. 12,000

D. 14,000

A

D. 14,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Compensate for wind effect primarily by _________ correction on the inbound and outbound legs of a holding pattern.

A. drift

B. time

C. speed

D. altitude

A

A. Drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Activate ant-ice/deice systems before entering visible moisture with temperatures at _________ degrees above freezing or cooler.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 8

D. 10

A

B. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the unlikely event of complete radio failure, follow the procedures described in the _________ for two-way radio communications failure.

A. AIM

B. FIH

C. FLIP

D. Flight Manual

A

B. FIH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The PT6A-42 engine has two ignitor plugs which are located at _______.

A. 3 and 6 o’clock

B. 4 and 7 o’clock

C. 4 and 9 o’clock

D. 5 and 10 o’clock

A

C. 4 and 9 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The outlet pressure at the high-pressure fuel pump is _______.

A. 800 – 1000 psi

B. 900 – 1000 psi

C. 900 – 1000 psi

D. 900 – 1100 psi

A

D. 900 – 1100 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The torque limiter monitors torquemeter oil pressure and if the engine produces excessive torque, the limiter bleeds off governing air pressure within the FCU to reduce fuel flow, which in turn ___________.

A. increases N1 speed

B. reduces N1 speed

C. slows oil pressure

D. slows propeller speed

A

B. reduces N1 speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The oil pressure caution range above 21,000 feet is _______.

A. 60 – 85 psi

B. 85 – 100 psi

C. 85 – 135 psi

D. 100 – 135 psi

A

B. 85 – 100 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The max torque percent with less than 1600 propeller RPM is _______.

A. 49%

B. 56%

C. 81%

D. 100%

A

A. 49%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Normal climb and cruise TGT is _______.

A. 750° C.

B. 770° C.

C. 800° C.

D. 400° – 800° C.

A

B. 770° C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

All emergency and abnormal operations procedures can be found in which chapter of the flight manual?

A. Chapter 5

B. Chapter 7

C. Chapter 8

D. Chapter 9

A

D. Chapter 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Beta and reverse blade angles are controlled by the _________ in the beta and reverse range.

A. low-pitch stop

B. power levers

C. propeller levers

D. condition levers

A

B. power levers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the primary governor fails, the overspeed governor will activate at approximately _________.

A. 1830 RPM

B. 1910 RPM

C. 2080 RPM

D. 2120 RPM

A

C. 2080 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When the PROP SYN is ON, and the left propeller is operating at a higher RPM, a black and white cross pattern located on the pilot’s instrument panel will _________.

A. spin in a clockwise rotation

B. spin in a counter-clockwise rotation

C. remain black until propellers are synchronized

D. remain white until propellers are synchronized

A

B. spin in a counter-clockwise rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The AUTOFEATHER system will not arm until the AUTOFEATHER switch is in ARM, the power levers are at the 90% N1 or greater position, and _________.

A. the aircraft is NOT in a takeoff or landing configuration

B. the high and low pressure switches sense torque loss

C. torque for either engine drops to an indication between 16% to 21%

D. both indicator lights on the caution/advisory annunciator panel are on

A

B. the high and low pressure switches sense torque loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The maximum propeller overspeed limit is _________ RPM and is time limited to 5 seconds.

A. 1910

B. 2000

C. 2120

D. 2200

A

D. 2200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

During approach, propellers should be set to at least _________ RPM to prevent glideslope interference (ILS approach), provide better power response during approach, and minimize altitude change when advancing propeller levers for landing.

A. 1600

B. 1800

C. 1900

D. 2000

A

C. 1900

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If an overspeed condition occurs that cannot be controlled with the propeller lever or by reducing power, the first step the pilot must accomplish is _________.

A. TCAS (if required) – TA

B. Power lever (affected engine) – IDLE

C. Propeller lever (affected engine) – as required

D. Condition lever (affected engine) – as required

A

B. Power lever (affected engine) – IDLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most important pilot action in recovering from an impending or full stall?

A. forward movement of the control wheel

B. silence warning horn

C. reduce angle of attack

D. proper use of rudder

A

C. reduce angle of attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the 1st step if an engine fails AFTER the aircraft has accelerated to recommended decision speed (V1)?

A. LANDING GEAR – UP.

B. FLAPS (after VYSE) - UP.

C. POWER - Maximum allowable.

D. Propeller - Verify feathered.

A

C. POWER - Maximum allowable.

44
Q

If an engine fails during final approach, do NOT feather propeller unless _________ permit or conditions require it.

A. power, distance, and altitude

B. time, power, and distance

C. time, distance, and altitude

D. time, power, and altitude

A

C. time, distance, and altitude

45
Q

When landing with two engines inoperative, after reaching a suitable landing area, enter a(n) _________ pattern to best observe surface conditions, wind velocity, and direction.

A. upwind

B. circular

C. straight-in

D. downwind

A

B. circular

46
Q

Typical engine relight occurs in _________ seconds, but it may take as long as 10 seconds or more based on ambient conditions.

A. 2 to 5

B. 3 to 5

C. 5 to 7

D. 7 to 9

A

A. 2 to 5

47
Q

AOA is sensed by lift transducer vane on the _________ leading edge.

A. left wing

B. right wing

C. horizontal stabilizer

D. vertical stabilizer

A

A. left wing

48
Q

The stall warning horn will sound approximately _________ KIAS above power-off stall speed, depending on aircraft configuration, altitude, and power.

A. 2 to 5

B. 3 to 7

C. 5 to 10

D. 10 to 15

A

C. 5 to 10

49
Q

What does an asterisk (*) before a preflight step represent?

A. Be careful
B. Placarding
C. Mandatory through-flight step
D. A detailed procedure is located in performance section

A

C. Mandatory through-flight step

50
Q

What does a star before a preflight step represent?

A. BOLDFACE
B. Placarding
C. Mandatory through-flight step
D. A detailed procedure is located in performance section

A

D. A detailed procedure is located in performance section

51
Q

A cold oil check is unreliable. Oil should be checked within _________ minutes after stopping engine.

A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

A

C. 10

52
Q

During the exterior check, the minimum shock strut extension is _________ inches for high flotation main landing gear.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 5.5

A

D. 5.5

53
Q

What is the minimum oil level allowed while checking the engine oil during the exterior check?

A. It must be full
B. No more than 1 quart low
C. No more than 2 quarts low
D. No more than 3 quarts low

A

D. No more than 3 quarts low

54
Q

Pitot heat should not be used for more than _________ minutes while the aircraft is on the ground.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

A

C. 15

55
Q

Pitot masts overheating may damage the _________.

A. pitot tube

B. fuselage surface

C. heating elements

D. aircraft instruments

A

C. heating elements

56
Q

The stall warning heat system heating elements protect the _________ from ice, however, a buildup of ice on the wing may change or disrupt the airflow and prevent the system from accurately indicating an imminent stall.

A. pitot tubes

B. windshields

C. wing leading edge

D. lift transducer vane and faceplate

A

D. lift transducer vane and faceplate

57
Q

The stall warning heat system level of heat is minimal for ground operation and automatically increased for flight operation through the _________.

A. lift transducer

B. landing gear safety switch

C. STALL WARN control switch

D. 15 amp STALL WARN circuit breaker

A

B. landing gear safety switch

58
Q

The elevator is used to _________ the airplane.

A. roll
B. yaw
C. pitch
D. start

A

C. pitch

59
Q

The wing flap position indicator will read how much percent of travel when the wing flap control switch is positioned to TAKEOFF AND APPROACH?

A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%

A

B. 40%

60
Q

Selecting BANK LIMIT mode on the autopilot controller provides lower maximum bank angle while in which select mode?

A. NAV
B. HDG
C. BC
D. APR

A

B. HDG

61
Q

When IAS is selected on the mode selector, it overrides the APR CAP, GA, ALT, VS, and _________ modes.

A. BC
B. SBY
C. HDG
D. ALTSEL CAP

A

D. ALTSEL CAP

62
Q

Either pilot TCS button will permit changing of the autopilot regardless of which pilot has control of the autopilot. However, use of the TCS will cancel the other pilot flight director _________ mode.

A. GA
B. VS
C. ALT
D. ALTSEL CAP

A

A. GA

63
Q

If AP FD 2 is selected, the annunciators, AP FLT DIR NO. 2, located above the _________, and the annunciator, AP FLT DIR NO. 2, located above the pilot altimeter, will illuminate.

A. pilots altimeter
B. copilot airspeed indicator
C. multi-function display
D. engine instruments

A

B. copilot airspeed indicator

64
Q

The maximum wing flap extension speed with the flap selector set to APPROACH is _________ KIAS.

A. 111
B. 157
C. 181
D. 199

A

D. 199

65
Q

The maximum positive load factor maneuvering limit with flaps up is _________ Gs.

A. 1.27
B. 2.0
C. 2.27
D. 3.17

A

D. 3.17

66
Q

Moisture entering or condensing in the elevator trim control clutch assembly can freeze in flight, locking the trim in a _________ position.

A. cruise
B. takeoff
C. unusable
D. down

A

A. cruise

67
Q

When landing with the wing flaps up, the approach angle will be _________ and the touchdown speed will be _________ resulting in a longer landing roll.

A. shallow; higher
B. shallow; lower
C. steeper; higher
D. steeper; lower

A

A. shallow; higher

68
Q

Engine bleed air is plumbed to the power pack to _________.

A. Raise landing gear
B. Lower landing gear
C. Prevent pump cavitation
D. Prevent landing gear lowering

A

C. Prevent pump cavitation

69
Q

Landing gear extension or retraction time is approximately _________.

A. 5 seconds
B. 6 seconds
C. 14 seconds
D. 10 seconds

A

B. 6 seconds

70
Q

The nose landing gear _________ when retracted.

A. Must be centered
B. Automatically turns left
C. Stays in current position
D. Is automatically centered

A

D. Is automatically centered

71
Q

How is the landing gear down position indicated?

A. 3 lights on pilots subpanel
B. 3 lights on copilots subpanel
C. One light on pilots instrument panel
D. LDG GEAR light on warning annunciator panel

A

A. 3 lights on pilots subpanel

72
Q

The landing gear can be cycled _________ times followed by a _________ minute cool-down.

A. 1, 5
B. 5, 15
C. 6, 20
D. 6, 15

A

D. 6, 15

73
Q

Landing gear manual extension could require _________ strokes to achieve full extension.

A. 75
B. 50
C. 80
D. 100

A

C. 80

74
Q

The flow control unit controls the flow of _________ and _________ air.

A. Ambient, pressurized
B. Pneumatic, bleed
C. Ambient, hot
D. Ambient, bleed

A

D. Ambient, bleed

75
Q

The landing gear safety switch _________.

A. Opens the ambient air valve on the ground and opens it in flight
B. Opens the ambient air valve on the ground and closes it in flight
C. Closes the ambient air valve on the ground and opens it in flight
D. Closes the ambient air valve on the ground and closes it in flight

A

C. Closes the ambient air valve on the ground and opens it in flight

76
Q

Ambient air mixes with cabin air during _________.

A. Unpressurized flight and ground operations
B. Ground operations only
C. Pressurized and unpressurized flight
D. Pressurized flight and ground operations

A

C. Pressurized and unpressurized flight

77
Q

The aft blower operates continuously when the switch is placed in the _________ position and there is a _________ command.

A. OFF, high
B. ON, cool
C. ON, mixed
D. ON, flight

A

B. ON, cool

78
Q

_________ air is tapped off each engine from the third stage of the compressor section, routed through the fire seal, and combined with ambient air through the pressurization and heating flow control unit in each nacelle. Tempered air is then ducted into the cabin.

A. Compressed
B. Pressurized
C. Bleed
D. Hot

A

C. Bleed

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the pressurization system?

A. Cabin altitude controller
B. Flow control valve
C. Flow control unit
D. Safety valve

A

B. Flow control valve

80
Q 
If change in cruise altitude is necessary, select the new altitude plus \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet on the CABIN ALT/ACFT ALT dial of the cabin altitude controller. 
A. 1000 
B. 500 
C. 400 
D. 100
A

B. 500

81
Q

Which of the following is NOT used in determining the Pressure Controller Setting for Landing?

A. Figure 7-98. Pressure Controller Setting for Landing

B. Airport field elevation

C. Altimeter setting

D. Temperature

A

D. Temperature

82
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential pressure is _________.

A. 6.0 ± 0.1 psi
B. 5.0 ± 0.1 psi
C. 4.0 ± 0.1 psi
D. 3.0 ± 0.1 psi

A

A. 6.0 ± 0.1 psi

83
Q

Cabin air pressure rate of descent must not exceed _________ when extended range fuel tanks (ferry tanks) are installed in the cabin and fuel caps are on.

A. 2000 fpm
B. 1500 fpm
C. 1000 fpm
D. 500 fpm

A

B. 1500 fpm

84
Q

Do not attempt to check security of cabin door or cargo door in flight. Remain as far from doors as possible with seatbelts securely fastened. This is a _________ associated with cabin door annunciator illuminated.

A. RECOMMENDATION
B. WARNING
C. CAUTION
D. NOTE

A

B. WARNING

85
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the procedure for cracked or shattered windshield?

A. Pressurization (CABIN ALT) controller – Reset pressure differential to maintain 2.0 to 4.6 psid.

B. Altitude – Maintain 10,000 feet or less.

C. Altitude – Maintain 25,000 feet or less.

D. Depressurize cabin prior to landing.

A

B. Altitude – Maintain 10,000 feet or less.

86
Q

The flow control unit controls the flow of _________ and _________ air.

A. Ambient, pressurized

B. Pneumatic, bleed

C. Ambient, hot

D. Ambient, bleed

A

D. Ambient, bleed

87
Q

The air conditioning system uses a _________.

A. Direct drive compressor

B. Automotive style compressor on both engines

C. Automotive style compressor on the left engine

D. Automotive style compressor on the right engine

A

D. Automotive style compressor on the right engine

88
Q

The N1 speed switch will prevent electrical power from being delivered to the compressor clutch when engine RPM is below _________ % RPM

A. 70

B. 65

C. 80

D. 90

A

B. 65

89
Q

Allow _________ minutes for cabin air temperature to stabilize.

A. 1 to 4

B. 3 to 7

C. 3 to 5

D. 2 to 5

A

C. 3 to 5

90
Q

The L/R BL AIR FAIL annunciators may _________ during simultaneous surface deice and brake deice operations at low N1 speed.

A. Blink rapidly

B. Illuminate steady

C. Momentarily illuminate

D. Flash twice then remain steady

A

C. Momentarily illuminate

91
Q

The Duct Overtemperature Light Checklist _________.

A. Has a 1 minute time limit between each step

B. Will not be complete until all steps have been run

C. Is considered corrected at any point during the procedure that the light extinguishes

D. Is not considered corrected at any point during the procedure that the light extinguishes

A

C. Is considered corrected at any point during the procedure that the light extinguishes

92
Q

Cabin air pressure rate of descent must not exceed _________ when extended range fuel tanks (ferry tanks) are installed in the cabin and fuel caps are on.

A. 2000 fpm
B. 1500 fpm
C. 1000 fpm
D. 500 fpm

A

B. 1500 fpm

93
Q

The normal pitot static system provides _________ source(s) of static air to the flight instruments through two static air fittings on each side of the aft fuselage.

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

A

B. two

94
Q

The alternate static system provides a source of static air for the _________ instruments in the event of source failure from the static air line.

A. pilot’s
B. engine
C. aircraft
D. copilot’s

A

A. pilot’s

95
Q

The oil-to-fuel heat exchanger is located on each engine accessory case is operated _________ to heat the fuel sufficiently to prevent freezing of any water in the fuel.

A. manually
B. electrically
C. as required
D. continuously and automatically

A

D. continuously and automatically

96
Q

Each fuel governing line is protected against ice by _________ heated jackets.

A. oil
B. ram air
C. thermally
D. electrically

A

D. electrically

97
Q

To help prevent windshield cracking, windshield heat should be placed in the NORMAL position for at least _________ minutes prior to using the HIGH position.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

C. 15

98
Q

Erratic operation of the _________ may occur while windshield heat is being used.

A. aircraft radios
B. flight instruments
C. engine instruments
D. magnetic compass

A

D. magnetic compass

99
Q

Passenger oxygen is activated automatically when cabin altitude exceeds _________ feet.

A. 10,000
B. 12,500
C. 18,000
D. 20,000

A

B. 12,500

100
Q

If the oxygen system pressure is below _________ psi, do not attempt to service system. Make an entry on DA Form 2408-13-1.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

A

B. 200

101
Q

Do not operate windshield wipers on _________ glass. Such action can damage the linkage as well as scratch the windshield glass.

A. icy
B. dry
C. dirty
D. warm

A

B. dry

102
Q 
The windshield wiper \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ setting will return the blades to their normal inoperative position on the glass.
A. OFF
B. FAST
C. PARK
D. SLOW
A

C. PARK

103
Q

To service the electric toilet, the waste tank may be _________.

A. drained
B. dumped
C. removed
D. pumped out

A

C. removed

104
Q

Pressing the aircraft toilet PRESS TO FLUSH switch applies _________ power to the motor, which drives the pump.

A. AC
B. DC
C. standby
D. continuous

A

B. DC

105
Q

_________ permanently mounted, adjustable sun visors are provided for pilot and copilot use.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

B. Two

106
Q

When adjusting the sun visors, grasp only by the _________ to avoid damage to the fragile plastic shield.

A. back
B. sides
C. bottom
D. top metal attachment

A

D. top metal attachment

C12U CAE Fixed Wing Course (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions