// C12U Systems Exam //

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a form of parasite drag?

Answer 1

Induced Drag

Question 2

Why is the top an airplanes wing curved?

Answer 2

To create an area of low pressure above the wing

Question 3

The _____________ is a theoretical point where all the aircraft’s weight is considered to be concentrated.

Answer 3

Center of gravity

Question 4

An aircraft with its center of gravity at the aft limit will exhibit all of these performance characteristics except?

Answer 4

Highest stall speed

Question 5

What is the purpose of a dihedral of a wing?

Answer 5

Create a stabilizing moment

Question 6

The initial tendency of the aircraft to return to the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed is called?

Answer 6

Positive static stability

Question 7

Which is NOT a purpose of a high lift device?

Answer 7

Important for high-speed characteristics of aircraft

Question 8

Which method is most often used to increase the coefficient of lift?

Answer 8

Increase camber of airfoil

Question 9

The only condition that can cause a stall is an excessive ___________

Answer 9

Angle of attack

Question 10

A method of stall progression from the root section to the wingtip where the wing consists of both a cambered and symmetrical airfoil is called _________.

Answer 10

Aerodynamic Twist

Question 11

The _________ should be used during takeoff when obstacle clearance is a primary concern. The most altitude is gained for the horizontal distance covered.

Answer 11

Vx Best angle of climb

Question 12

When airspeed is held constant, a larger _________ will result in a smaller turn radius and greater turn rate.

Answer 12

Angle of bank

Question 13

Ground effect reduces or cancels out the downwash and _________behind the wing during takeoff and landing near the runway surface. This causes lifting surfaces to become more effective.

Answer 13

Wingtip vortexes

Question 14

Takeoff distance is directly _________ to takeoff velocity squared.

Answer 14

Proportional

Question 15

A _______ propeller setting obtains maximum power for takeoff.

Answer 15

Low Pitch, high RPM

Question 16

The function of the propeller governor is to:

Answer 16

Control the blade angle to maintain a constant propeller RPM

Question 17

Define “critical engine”

Answer 17

Engine whose loss presents the greatest controllability problem

Question 18

Vmc is highly sensitive to which condition?

Answer 18

Bank Angle

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a form of structural icing?

Answer 19

Induction

Question 20

Which of the following should you perform in the event you inadvertently penetrate a thunderstorm while flying?

Answer 20

Plan and hold course to get through thunderstorm in minimal time

Question 21

_____________ can cause you to become disoriented with the horizon at night.

Answer 21

Ground lighting

Question 22

A_____________ runway can create an illusion that the aircraft is lower than it actually is leading to a higher approach.

Answer 22

Wide

Question 23

The PT6A-42 engine has two ignitor plugs which are located at?

Answer 23

4 and 9 o’clock

Question 24

The outlet pressure at the high pressure fuel pump is

Answer 24

900-1100 psi

Question 25

The torque limiter monitors torque-meter oil pressure and if the engine produces excessive torque, the limiter bleeds off governing air pressure within the FCU to reduce fuel flow, which in turn _______________

Answer 25

reduces N1 speed

Question 26

The oil pressure caution range above 21,000 feet is?

Answer 26

85-100 psi

Question 27

The max torque percent with less than 1600 propeller RPM is _________.

Answer 27

49%

Question 28

Normal climb and cruise TGT is ______.

Answer 28

770c

Question 29

All emergency and abnormal operations procedures can be found in which chapter of the flight manual?

Answer 29

Chapter 9

Question 30

A ____________ system is installed in each engine to detect external fire and provide alarm to the pilot.

Answer 30

Flame surveillance

Question 31

Infrared radiation exposure activates the relay circuit of a ___________, which causes signal power to be sent to cockpit warning systems.

Answer 31

control amplifier

Question 32

Pulling the _________ will electrically arm the extinguisher system and close the fuel firewall shutoff valve for that particular engine.

Answer 32

fire control handle

Question 33

Pressing the lens of the _________ switch will fire the squib, expelling all the agent in the cylinder at one time.

Answer 33

Push to extinguish

Question 34

Beta and reverse blade angles are controlled by the ________ in the beta and reverse range.

Answer 34

Power levers

Question 35

If the primary governor fails, the overspeed governor will activate at approximately _________.

Answer 35

2080

Question 36

When the PROP SYN is ON, and the left propeller is operating at a higher rpm, a black and white cross pattern located on the pilots instrument panel will _____________.

Answer 36

Spin counterclockwise

Question 37

The AUTOFEATHER system will not arm until the AUTOFEATHER swtich is in ARM, the power levers are at the 90% N1 or greater position and ________________.

Answer 37

The high and low pressure switches sense torque loss

Question 38

The maximum propeller overspeed limit is _______ RPM and is limited to 5 seconds.

Answer 38

2200

Question 39

During approach, propellers should be set to at least _________ RPM to prevent glide-slope interference, provide better power response during approach, and minimize altitude change when advancing propeller levers for landing.

Answer 39

1900

Question 40

If an overspeed condition occurs that cannot be controlled with the propeller lever or by reducing power, the first step the pilot must accomplish is ________.

Answer 40

Power lever (Affected Engine) - IDLE

Question 41

The C-12 fuel system consists of ___________ wing tanks.

Answer 41

Five interconnected

Question 42

If either auxiliary transfer system fails to operate, the fault condition is indicated by two illuminated MASTER CAUTION annunciators on the glareshield and a steady illuminated yellow _________ light on the Master Caution/Advisory annunciator panel.

Answer 42

#1 or #2 NO FUEL XFR

Question 43

Normal gravity transfer of the main wing fuel into the nacelle tanks will begin when ________ is exhausted.

Answer 43

Aux fuel

Question 44

The ______ and ________ in each fuel system provide inlet head pressure to the engine driven primary high pressure fuel pump.

Answer 44

Engine driven fuel boost pump and standby fuel pump

Question 45

The ferry fuel system consists of two ________ aluminum fuel tanks mounted on the left and right side seat tracks on each side of the cabin.

Answer 45

120 gallon

Question 46

Do not fill the ferry fuel tanks unless the _________ tanks are full.

Answer 46

Main and Aux

Question 47

When the #1 or #2 NAC LOW annunciation on the caution/advisory panel illuminates there is approximately __________ (247 pounds) of usable fuel remaining at sea level normal cruise power consumption rate for the applicable engine.

Answer 47

30 Minutes

Question 48

Illumination of the No. 1 or No. 2 FUEL PRESS warning light usually indicates failure of the respective?

Answer 48

Engine-Driven boost pump

Question 49

Where is the Hot Battery Bus physically located on the aircraft?

Answer 49

Under the right center wing section

Question 50

The aircraft battery provides _______ VDC power to the electrical system.

Answer 50

24 Volts

Question 51

What is the maximum generator load allowed at FL250?

Answer 51

100%

Question 52

What is the starter limitation during the first start attempt?

Answer 52

40 sec on 60 sec off

Question 53

How many times should you reset a circuit breaker for an essential circuit?

Answer 53

Once

Question 54

The BATTERY CHARGE annunciator should extinguish within approx how many minutes after engine start?

Answer 54

5 minutes

Question 55

______ air is tapped off each engine from the 3rd stage of the compressor section, routed through the fire seal...…....

Answer 55

Bleed

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a component of the pressurization system.

Answer 56

Flow control valve

Question 57

If change in cruise altitude is necessary select a new altitude + ______ ft on the cabin alt dial.

Answer 57

500

Question 58

Which of the following is not used in determining the pressure control setting for landing.

Answer 58

Temperature

Question 59

Maximum cabin pressure differential.

Answer 59

6.0 +/- .1

Question 60

Cabin air pressure rate of descent must not exceed _______ when extended range fuel tanks are installed in the cabin and fuel caps are on.

Answer 60

1500

Question 61

Do not attempt to check security of cabin door or cargo door in flight remain as far from doors as possible with seatbelt securely fastened this is Warning associated with cabin door annunciator.

Answer 61

Warning

Question 62

Which of the following is not part of the procedure for cracked or shattered windshield.

Answer 62

Altitude - maintain 10,000 ft or less

Question 63

Which system is NOT part of the Pneumatics system?

Answer 63

Air-conditioning system

Question 64

The rudder boost system is ______________________?

Answer 64

An aid for maintaining directional stability during engine failure or large power variation between engines.

Question 65

During simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice systems, maintain the N1 at _________% or higher. If adequate pneumatic pressure cannot be provided for simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice system, turn the brake deice switch to ___________.

Answer 65

85 %, OFF

Question 66

Bleed air is supplied to the landing gear power pack to __________.

Answer 66

Prevent pump cavitation

Question 67

The poly-flow is used for which system?

Answer 67

Bleed air warning system

Question 68

The gyro suction gauge normal range above 15,000 feet is?

Answer 68

2.8-4.3

Question 69

The flow control unit controls the flow of ______ and ______ air.

Answer 69

Ambient and bleed

Question 70

The landing gear safety switch ________.

Answer 70

Closes the ambient air valve on the ground and opens it in flight.

Question 71

The ambient air mixes with cabin air during __________

Answer 71

Pressurized and unpressurized flight.

Question 72

The AFT vent blower operates continuously, when the switch is placed in the ________ position and there is a ______ command.

Answer 72

On and Cool

Question 73

The A/C system uses a ____________________

Answer 73

Automotive style compressor on the RIGHT or NUMBER TWO.

Question 74

The n1 speed switch will prevent electrical power from being delivered to the compressor clutch when engine RPM is blow ______%

Answer 74

65

Question 75

Allow _______ minutes for cabin air temp to stabilize.

Answer 75

3-5

Question 76

The left right Bleed air fail annunciators may __________ during simultaneous surface deice and brake deice operations at low N1 Speed.

Answer 76

Momentarily Illuminate.

Question 77

The duct overtemp light checklist

Answer 77

Is considered corrected at any point during the procedure that the light extinguishes

Question 78

To help prevent windshield cracking windshield heat should be placed in the Normal position for at least ____ minutes prior to using the High position.

Answer 78

15

Question 79

What is the definition for Vyse?

Answer 79

Best single engine rate of climb

Question 80

What is the definition for Vx

Answer 80

Best angle-of-climb speed (obstacle clearance)

Question 81

How can the most accurate performance data be obtained?

Answer 81

By using existing conditions

Question 82

When computing takeoff power engine ice vanes shall be retracted above what temperature?

Answer 82

15 C

Question 83

You must re-compute a new TOLD card anytime conditions increase by?

Answer 83

+1000 feet PA, +10 c, or +500 pounds

Question 84

Nose wheel steering limits are _________° to the left and _________° to the right.

Answer 84

12 Left, 14 Right

Question 85

Full flap extension or retraction time is _________.

Answer 85

11 Seconds

Question 86

Split flap protection is set at _________° to _________° out of phase with the adjacent flap panel

Answer 86

3 to 5

Question 87

The maximum flap extension speed for approach is?

Answer 87

200 KIAS

Question 88

The stall warning horn will sound _________ above power-off stall speed

Answer 88

5 to 10 KIAS

Question 89

Brakes are applied _________.

Answer 89

Individually

Question 90

The parking brake handle can be set from _________.

Answer 90

Pilot or Co pilot positions

Question 91

Engine bleed air is used to _________.

Answer 91

Prevent pump cavitation

Question 92

Landing gear down position is indicated by three _________ lights on the pilot's subpanel.

Answer 92

hree GREEN

Question 93

How many sources of static air are provided to the flight instruments in the normal static system?

Answer 93

Two

Question 94

What is the minimum amount of supplemental oxygen required?

Answer 94

10 minutes above 25000 feet

Question 95

For oxygen duration computations, count each diluter-demand crew mask in use as _________.

Answer 95

Two

Question 96

The PASS OXY ON light illuminates when _________.

Answer 96

Oxygen flows into passenger supply line