Written Test IV Flashcards

1
Q

What does an asterisk (*) before a preflight step represent?

A. Be careful
B. Placarding
C. Mandatory through-flight step
D. A detailed procedure is located in performance section

A

C. Mandatory through-flight step

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2
Q

What does a star () before a preflight step represent?

A. BOLDFACE
B. Placarding
C. Mandatory through-flight step
D. A detailed procedure is located in performance section

A

D. A detailed procedure is located in performance section

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3
Q

A cold oil check is unreliable. Oil should be checked within _________ minutes after stopping engine.

A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

A

C. 10

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4
Q
During the exterior check, the minimum shock strut extension is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ inches for high flotation main landing gear.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 5.5
A

D. 5.5

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5
Q

What is the minimum oil level allowed while checking the engine oil during the exterior check?

A. It must be full
B. No more than 1 quart low
C. No more than 2 quarts low
D. No more than 3 quarts low

A

D. No more than 3 quarts low

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6
Q

If time permits, accomplish the _________ during daylight hours.

A. flight planning
B. preflight inspection
C. airplane refueling
D. starting engines checklist

A

B. preflight inspection

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7
Q

Turn position and _________ lights on before starting engines.

A. taxi
B. landing
C. anti-collision
D. interior

A

C. anti-collision

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8
Q

Night takeoff is the same as daytime except that _________.

A. takeoff speed is 3 knots higher
B. the landing lights are left on throughout the flight
C. centerline is harder to see
D. runway visual cues are not available

A

D. runway visual cues are not available

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9
Q

If ground lights suddenly disappear on departure climb-out, it means _________.

A. the aircraft has flown into a cloud
B. the terrain is NOT back-lighted
C. ground fog has suddenly appeared
D. there’s terrain between the aircraft and the lights

A

D. there’s terrain between the aircraft and the lights

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10
Q

Practicing maneuvers with all cockpit lights turned off is accomplished for _________.

A. night vision competency training
B. electrical power conservative training
C. electrical or instrument light failure training
D. combat operations training

A

C. electrical or instrument light failure training

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11
Q

On clear low-moon illumination nights, stars can reflect on the water’s surface leading to a variation of the visual illusion called _________.

A. false illumination effect
B. ground light misinterpretation
C. water reflection error
D. visual illumination fault

A

B. ground light misinterpretation

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12
Q

The use of _________ is essential during landings to unlighted airfields when the surface is not visible. This is also an effective technique in preventing errors in judgment and perception on lighted airfields.

A. flaps
B. power
C. landing lights
D. night vision devices

A

B. power

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13
Q

To aid in determining the proper round-out point, an aviator continues a constant approach descent until the landing light reflects off the runway and _________ or expansion joints on the runway can be clearly seen.

A. tire marks
B. runway centerline
C. runway markings
D. touchdown zone

A

A. tire marks

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14
Q

If experiencing dual engine failure or unable to maintain single engine flight, maintain positive control of the airplane, establish the best glide configuration and airspeed, and _________.

A. ensure seat belts are secured and loose items are stowed
B. passengers are briefed of emergency landing (as required)
C. navigate airplane toward a body of water to minimize damage
D. turn airplane toward an airport or away from congested areas

A

D. turn airplane toward an airport or away from congested areas

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15
Q

When accomplishing a forced landing, complete the landing in the normal landing attitude at _________.

A. threshold speed
B. touchdown speed
C. nearest airport available
D. the slowest speed possible

A

D. the slowest speed possible

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16
Q

What are the four severity levels?

A. Minor, Medium, Major, Extreme
B. Negligible, Medium, Critical, Extreme
C. Minor, Negligible, Critical, Catastrophic
D. Negligible, Moderate, Critical, Catastrophic

A

D. Negligible, Moderate, Critical, Catastrophic

17
Q
What is one thing commanders will base their selection on for a briefing officer?
A. Age
B. Skill
C. Rank
D. Maturity
A

D. Maturity

18
Q

How much fuel is required for a VFR night flight?

A. Enough to reach the destination
B. Enough to reach destination plus alternate and no reserve
C. Enough to reach destination and alternate plus 30 minute reserve at cruise
D. Enough to reach destination and alternate plus reserve of 45 minutes at cruise

A

D. Enough to reach destination and alternate plus reserve of 45 minutes at cruise

19
Q

An aviator who has logged _________ has no Army takeoff minimums.

A. 50 hours
B. 50 hours simulated weather
C. 50 hours or more as PIC in actual weather
D. 50 hours or more logged as PIC simulator time

A

C. 50 hours or more as PIC in actual weather

20
Q

Commanders will use _________ to assign levels of risk.

A. their gut feeling
B. rank and position
C. skill and knowledge
D. guidance and personal knowledge

A

D. guidance and personal knowledge

21
Q

Recording approval on the DA Form 5484 and/or RAW in the mission approval process can be done by?

A. initialing, signing, documenting oral approval
B. stamping and initialing the form
C. placing an X on the form
D. initialing the form

A

A. initialing, signing, documenting oral approval

22
Q

The PIC will be?

A. At crew station with access to flight controls
B. Responsible for crew briefings
C. Listed in unit briefings log
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

23
Q

Risk assessment is the _________ of hazards.

A. identification and maintenance
B. identification and assessment
C. identification and notification
D. finding and fixing

A

B. identification and assessment

24
Q

What is Step 5 of the RM process?

A. Implement controls
B. Assess the hazards
C. Reevaluate the risks
D. Supervise and evaluate

A

D. Supervise and evaluate

25
Q

A feedback system _________ to ensure controls were or will be effective.

A. can help
B. will be used
C. must be established
D. should be established

A

C. must be established

26
Q

The maximum demonstrated crosswind component at 90° is _________.

A. 15 kts
B. 20 kts
C. 25 kts
D. 30 kts

A

C. 25 kts

27
Q

The aircraft shall not be operated when the ambient temperatures are warmer than International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) +37°C at SL to _________ ft. PA.

A. 22,000
B. 25,000
C. 27,000
D. 30,000

A

B. 25,000

28
Q

Operation of the surface deice system in ambient temperatures below _________ can cause permanent damage to the deice boots.

A. -25°C
B. -30°C
C. -35°C
D. -40°C

A

D. -40°C

29
Q

Ice, snow, or frost formations having as little thickness and surface roughness as medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge or upper surface of a wing can reduce lift by as much as _________%.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

A

D. 30

30
Q

In the event of windshield icing, reduce airspeed to _________ KIAS or below.

A. 207
B. 215
C. 222
D. 226

A

D. 226

31
Q

N1 speeds of _________% or higher may be required to keep oil temperatures within limits.

A. 65
B. 70
C. 75
D. 80

A

B. 70

32
Q

During ground taxi with engine ICE VANES extended, and the outside air temperature is above _________°C, monitor the engine oil temperatures closely.

A. +15
B. +18
C. +20
D. +25

A

A. +15

33
Q

The recommended penetration speed in severe turbulence is _________ KIAS.

A. 155
B. 160
C. 165
D. 170

A

D. 170

34
Q

Directional wind changes of 180 degrees and speed changes of _________ knots or more are associated with low-level wind shear.

A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55

A

C. 50

35
Q

Mountain waves occur when air is being blown over a mountain range or even the ridge of a sharp bluff area at _________ knots or better at an intersection angle of not less than 30 degrees.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

A

B. 15

36
Q

At airports with elevations of _________ feet and higher, control towers and flight service stations (FSSs) will broadcast the advisory “check density altitude” when the temperature reaches a predetermined level.

A. 2000
B. 2100
C. 2500
D. 2700

A

A. 2000