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C12U CAE Fixed Wing Course > Written Test II > Flashcards

Written Test II Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition for VYSE?

A. Takeoff safety speed
B. Power-off stalling speed
C. Best single-engine, rate-of-climb speed
D. Best angle-of-climb speed (obstacle clearance speed)

A

C. Best single-engine, rate-of-climb speed

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2
Q

You must re-compute a new TOLD Card anytime conditions increase by?

A. 500 ft PA, 10°C, or 500 lbs gross weight
B. 1000 ft PA, 5°C, or 500 lbs gross weight
C. 500 ft PA, 10°C, or 1000 lbs gross weight
D. 1000 ft PA, 10°C, or 500 lbs gross weight

A

D. 1000 ft PA, 10°C, or 500 lbs gross weight

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3
Q

An aviator who has logged _________ has no Army takeoff minimums.

A. 50 hours
B. 50 hours simulated weather
C. 50 hours or more as PIC in actual weather
D. 50 hours or more logged as PIC simulator time

A

C. 50 hours or more as PIC in actual weather

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4
Q

The aircraft battery provides _________ VDC power to the electrical system.

A. 21
B. 24
C. 26
D. 28

A

B. 24

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5
Q

When the #1 or #2 NAC LOW annunciator on the caution/advisory panel illuminates there is approximately _________ (247 pounds) of usable fuel remaining at sea level normal cruise power consumption rate for the applicable engine.

A. 30 minutes
B. 35 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 1 hour

A

A. 30 minutes

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6
Q

Question 5
The Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) has a wind arrow, how many knots of wind does each full feather on the arrow represent?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50

A

B. 10

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7
Q

What is the definition for VX?

A. Design-flap speed
B. Takeoff safety speed
C. Maximum-design maneuvering speed
D. Best angle-of-climb speed (obstacle clearance speed)

A

D. Best angle-of-climb speed (obstacle clearance speed)

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8
Q

What is the formula for determining CG on the DD Form 365-4?

A. Weight x Arm = CG
B. Weight ÷ Moment = CG
C. Moment x Station = CG
D. Moment ÷ Weight = CG

A

D. Moment ÷ Weight = CG

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9
Q

Commanders will use _________ to assign levels of risk.

A. their gut feeling
B. rank and position
C. skill and knowledge
D. guidance and personal knowledge

A

D. guidance and personal knowledge

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10
Q

Each _________ provides an interface with the flight management computer (FMC).

A. integrated avionics processing system (IAPS)
B. CDU-2000 control display unit
C. air data computer (ADC)
D. database unit (DBU)

A

B. CDU-2000 control display unit

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11
Q

How many times should you reset a circuit breaker for an essential circuit?

A. Once
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Do not reset

A

A. Once

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12
Q

Infrared radiation exposure activates the relay circuit of a _________, which causes signal power to be sent to cockpit warning systems.

A. fire control handle
B. control amplifier
C. responder unit
D. chip detector

A

B. control amplifier

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13
Q

The PIC will be?

A. At crew station with access to flight controls
B. Responsible for crew briefings
C. Listed in unit briefings log
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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14
Q

All FMS data is visually displayed on ________________.

A. MFD, EADI, EHSI, and CDU
B. FMC, EADI, EHSI, and CDU
C. DBU, EADI, EHSI, and CDU
D. DBU

A

A. MFD, EADI, EHSI, and CDU

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15
Q

If either auxiliary transfer system fails to operate, the fault condition is indicated by two illuminated MASTER CAUTION annunciators on the glareshield and a steady illuminated yellow _________ light on the Master Caution/Advisory annunciator panel.

A. #1 or #2 NAC LOW
B. FUEL CROSSFEED
C. #1 or #2 FUEL PRESS
D. #1 or #2 NO FUEL XFR

A

D. #1 or #2 NO FUEL XFR

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16
Q

What is the maximum generator load allowed at FL250?

A. 85%
B. 88%
C. 95%
D. 100%

A

D. 100%

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17
Q

For cargo loading purposes, the floor is designed to support _________ lb/ft² when supported by the seat tracks, whereas the areas where seat track support is not possible will support 100 lb/ft² floor loading.

A. 200
B. 238
C. 300
D. 550

A

A. 200

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18
Q

What are the four severity levels?

A. Minor, Medium, Major, Extreme
B. Negligible, Medium, Critical, Extreme
C. Minor, Negligible, Critical, Catastrophic
D. Negligible, Moderate, Critical, Catastrophic

A

D. Negligible, Moderate, Critical, Catastrophic

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19
Q

The ferry fuel system consists of two _________ aluminum fuel tanks mounted on the left and right side seat tracks on each side of the cabin.

A. 79-pound
B. 120-pound
C. 79-gallon
D. 120-gallon

A

D. 120-gallon

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the FMS 3000?

A. Flight management computer (FMC)
B. CDU-2000 control display unit
C. Flight data recorder (FDR)
D. Database unit (DBU)

A

C. Flight data recorder (FDR)

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21
Q

Do not fill the ferry fuel tanks unless the _________ tanks are full.

A. auxiliary
B. main and auxiliary
C. fuel purge and main
D. nacelle and auxiliary

A

B. main and auxiliary

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22
Q

What is one thing commanders will base their selection on for a briefing officer?

A. Age
B. Skill
C. Rank
D. Maturity

A

D. Maturity

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23
Q

IAW the operator’s manual, what weight and balance class is the Army C-12 U1 model?

A. None
B. Class 1
C. Class 2
D. AR 95-1 designates the class for each Army aircraft

A

C. Class 2

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24
Q

Pressing the lens of the _________ switch will fire the squib, expelling all the agent in the cylinder at one time.

A. PUSH TO EXTINGUISH
B. #1 EXTGH DISCH
C. #2 EXTGH DISCH
D. SQUIB OK

A

A. PUSH TO EXTINGUISH

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a capability of the FMS 3000?

A. Oceanic and remote operations between 80° North and 80° South
B. Minimum navigational performance standards (MNPS) airspace
C. IFR instrument approaches
D. Auto-Land

A

D. Auto-Land

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26
Q 
Risk assessment is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of hazards. 
A. identification and maintenance 
B. identification and assessment 
C. identification and notification 
D. finding and fixing
A

B. identification and assessment

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27
Q

The rudder boost system is _________.

A. An aid for maintaining directional stability during engine failure or large power variation between engines
B. Used to warn the crew of a BL AIR FAIL
C. Regulated to 10 PSI for normal operation
D. Only utilized above 17,000 feet MSL

A

A. An aid for maintaining directional stability during engine failure or large power variation between engines

28
Q

What provides the pitch and roll references for the standby attitude indicator?

A. FMS 1
B. FMS 2
C. Flight Director
D. Self-contained gyro

A

D. Self-contained gyro

29
Q

Where is the Hot Battery Bus physically located on the aircraft?

A. Inside the battery compartment
B. Under the left center wing section
C. Under the right center wing section
D. Upper part of the left center wing section

A

C. Under the right center wing section

30
Q

On the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI), what will the FMS vertical deviation pointer do to alert the approach of a vertical path waypoint?

A. Flash
B. Waiver
C. Turn off
D. Turn bold

A

A. Flash

31
Q

To exit FMS holding function, press _________ HOLD on the LEGS or HOLD page.

A. CANCEL
B. CLEAR
C. STOP
D. EXIT

A

D. EXIT

32
Q

The radio altitude readout automatically shows on the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI) when the aircraft is at or below _________ AGL.

A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500

A

D. 2500

33
Q

What is the zero fuel weight limitation for the C-12 U1?

A. 14,000 lbs
B. 12,500 lbs
C. 11,000 lbs
D. No limitation

A

C. 11,000 lbs

34
Q

On the Turn and Slip indicator, where would the ball be during a skid?

A. Centered
B. On the inside of the turn
C. On the outside of the turn
D. The ball will not provide a skid indication

A

C. On the outside of the turn

35
Q

To help prevent windshield cracking, windshield heat should be placed in the NORMAL position for at least _________ minutes prior to using the HIGH position.

A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

A

D. 15

36
Q

A feedback system _________ to ensure controls were or will be effective.

A. can help
B. will be used
C. must be established
D. should be established

A

C. must be established

37
Q

To add/change an approach procedure in FMS you will press the _________ function key. Select key adjacent to desired approach and press EXEC.

A. DEP ARR
B. ARR
C. APP
D. DES

A

A. DEP ARR

38
Q

Normal gravity transfer of the main wing fuel into the nacelle tanks will begin when _________ is exhausted.

A. ferry fuel
B. nacelle fuel
C. transfer fuel
D. auxiliary fuel

A

D. auxiliary fuel

39
Q

The _________ and _________ in each fuel system provide inlet head pressure to the engine-driven primary high-pressure fuel pump.

A. motive flow jet pump; standby fuel pump
B. motive flow valve; auxiliary fuel transfer pump
C. engine-driven fuel boost pump; motive flow valve
D. engine-driven fuel boost pump; standby fuel pump

A

D. engine-driven fuel boost pump; standby fuel pump

40
Q

The _________ position of the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) readies the ELT to transmit when an impact force occurs.

A. ON
B. ARM
C. STBY
D. Reset

A

B. ARM

41
Q

Pitot heat should not be used for more than _________ minutes while the aircraft is on the ground. Overheating may damage the heating elements.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

C. 15

42
Q

The BATTERY CHARGE annunciator should extinguish within approximately how many minutes after engine start?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

A

D. 5

43
Q

How can the most accurate performance data be obtained?

A. By using the TAF.
B. By using existing conditions
C. As a technique add 5 C to current conditions
D. Use the highest PA and temp forecast for the departure.

A

B. By using existing conditions

44
Q

_________ processes transmissions from multiple GPS satellites simultaneously to calculate navigation solutions.

A. Integrated avionics processing system (IAPS)
B. FMS 3000 flight management system
C. CDU-2000 control display unit
D. Air data computer (ADC)

A

B. FMS 3000 flight management system

45
Q

The C-12 fuel system consists of _________ wing tanks.

A. five independent
B. seven Independent
C. five interconnected
D. seven interconnected

A

C. five interconnected

46
Q

Which system is NOT part of the Pneumatics system

A. Air-conditioning system
B. Surface deice system
C. Rudder boost system
D. Brake deice system

A

A. Air-conditioning system

47
Q

What is the starter limitation during the first start attempt?

A. 30 seconds on, 40 seconds off
B. 40 seconds on, 40 seconds off
C. 40 seconds on, 60 seconds off
D. 60 seconds on, 60 seconds off

A

C. 40 seconds on, 60 seconds off

48
Q

A _________ system is installed in each engine to detect external engine fire and provide an alarm to the pilot.

A. flame surveillance
B. responder unit
C. sensor cable
D. pneumatic

A

A. flame surveillance

49
Q

Recording approval on the DA Form 5484 and/or RAW in the mission approval process can be done by?

A. initialing, signing, documenting oral approval
B. stamping and initialing the form
C. placing an X on the form
D. initialing the form

A

A. initialing, signing, documenting oral approval

50
Q

What provides control inputs to the EADI and EHSI?

A. VOR 1
B. Center MFD
C. NAV/TAC #1
D. Display Control Panel (DCP)

A

D. Display Control Panel (DCP)

51
Q

Bleed air is supplied to the landing gear power pack to _________.

A. Prevent gear retraction
B. Extend the landing gear
C. Prevent pump cavitation
D. Prevent landing gear extension

A

C. Prevent pump cavitation

52
Q

The poly-flow is used for which system?

A. Brake deice system
B. Rudder boost system
C. Bleed air warning system
D. Supplies air to window defrost system

A

C. Bleed air warning system

53
Q

The gyro suction gauge normal range above 15,000 feet is?

A. 2.5 to 4.3 inHg
B. 2.8 to 4.3 inHg
C. 2.8 to 5.9 inHg
D. 4.3 to 5.9 inHg

A

B. 2.8 to 4.3 inHg

54
Q

When programming the FMS direct to a flight plan waypoint press the _________ key. Then select the waypoint from flight plan list and press EXEC.

A. NAV DATA
B. GO TO
C. DIR
D. TO

A

C. DIR

55
Q

_________ accepts data from multiple sensors, VOR, DME and GPS and computes a position.

A. Flight management computer (FMC)
B. CDU-2000 control display unit
C. Air data computer (ADC)
D. Database unit (DBU)

A

A. Flight management computer (FMC)

56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for programming an airway leg on the FMS 3000?
A. If you try to enter an entry or exit point not on airway the FMS will generate message NOT ON AIRWAY
B. Two airways that cross without a defined crossing intersection cannot be entered
C. Both entry and exit waypoint need not be on that airway
D. Both entry and exit waypoint must be on that airway

A

C. Both entry and exit waypoint need not be on that airway

57
Q

When computing takeoff power engine ice vanes shall be retracted above what temperature?

A. 10 °C
B. 15 °C
C. 20 °C
D. 22 °C

A

B. 15 °C

58
Q

If the aircraft altitude reaches extreme limits, all scales, pointers, and annunciations not related to attitude are removed from the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI). What is the bank limit that will cause this to happen?

A. 50 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 65 degrees
D. 80 degrees

A

C. 65 degrees

59
Q

Illumination of the No. 1 or No. 2 FUEL PRESS warning light usually indicates failure of the respective?

A. Standby fuel pump
B. Motive flow jet pump
C. Engine-driven boost pump
D. Engine-driven primary high-pressure pump

A

C. Engine-driven boost pump

60
Q

How much fuel is required for a VFR night flight?

A. Enough to reach the destination
B. Enough to reach destination plus alternate and no reserve
C. Enough to reach destination and alternate plus 30 minute reserve at cruise
D. Enough to reach destination and alternate plus reserve of 45 minutes at cruise

A

D. Enough to reach destination and alternate plus reserve of 45 minutes at cruise

61
Q

During simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice systems, maintain the N1 at _________% or higher. If adequate pneumatic pressure cannot be provided for simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice systems, turn the BRAKE DEICE switch to _________.

A. 85%, ON
B. 75%, ON
C. 85%, OFF
D. 75%, OFF

A

C. 85%, OFF

62
Q 
Pulling the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ will electrically arm the extinguisher system and close the fuel firewall shutoff valve for that particular engine. 
A. CONDITION lever 
B. POWER lever 
C. PROP lever 
D. fire control handle
A

D. fire control handle

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement for missed approach procedures defined in the FMS 3000?

A. For FMS to sequence beyond missed approach point to missed approach, you must disable approach or fly to MAP waypoint with AUTO SEQUENCE selected.
B. Missed approach procedures are automatically inserted in flight plan after missed approach point or runway threshold when an approach is selected.
C. Missed approach procedures are automatically deleted from flight plan.
D. Missed approach procedures are not automatically deleted from the flight plan.

A

C. Missed approach procedures are automatically deleted from flight plan.

64
Q

What is Step 5 of the RM process?

A. Implement controls
B. Assess the hazards
C. Reevaluate the risks
D. Supervise and evaluate

A

D. Supervise and evaluate

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the initialization process of the FMS 3000?

A. Checking NAV DATA (World, Americas, etc.)
B. Checking currency of ACTIVE DATABASE
C. Checking time and set correct UTC
D. Checking RAIM

A

D. Checking RAIM

C12U CAE Fixed Wing Course (8 decks)

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