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Hazmat > WMD > Flashcards

WMD Flashcards

1
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A

Chemical, biological, radiological/nuclear, explosive

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2
Q

What should be anticipated during WMD incidents?

A

Multiple events

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3
Q

What should first responders be aware of during these events and where might they be found?

A

Secondary devices and they can be found in mailboxes, trash cans, unattended backpacks, etc

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4
Q

What Code of Federal Regulation defines terrorism?

A

28 CFR

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5
Q

What is terrorism defined as?

A

The unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, civilian population, or any segment thereof in furtherance of political or social objectives.

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6
Q

What is a key element for a terrorist?

A

Symbolism

Ex: government buildings, mass transit facilities, public buildings, controversial businesses

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7
Q

What are some size up factors?

A
  • Time of day
  • Weather
    -Dispatch info
    -Type and scope of the event
    -Vapor cloud
    -Historic anniversaries
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8
Q

What does SLUDGEM stand for?

A

Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defication, gastrointestinal upset, emesis, miosis

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9
Q

What is an acronym used to describe the signs of a person exposed to chemical warfare agents and organophosphates?

A

SLUDGEM

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10
Q

What antidotes do we carry that counteract the effect of chemical warfare agents and where can more be found?

A

CHEMPACKS. Large quantities are held by the CDC and SNS (strategic national stockpile). They can be requested through the Northern Virginia Regional Hospital Coordination Center (RHCC)

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11
Q

What are some basic responsibilities of the first responder during a WMD event? ECCE

A
  • Ensure safety of response personnel
  • Conduct a continuous size up
  • Collect intelligence
  • Establish objectives for the incident
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12
Q

What are some considerations for decon?

A
  • Establish it uphill and upwind
  • Be alert for secondary devices
  • Clothing removal and other forms of decon
  • Coordinate decon with EMS triage activities
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13
Q

What types of decon are there for first responders?

A

Two main types.

-Emergency Gross decon: single hose line

-Mass Decon: set up with engines 15-20’ apart

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14
Q

Who can assist with locating and disposing of secondary devices?

A

EOD- Explosive Ordinance Disposal

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15
Q

Any explosive detonation should be considered ______ until it can be ruled out by detection and monitoring.

A

Dirty

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16
Q

When should victims be decontaminated?

A

In the warm zone, prior to transport if possible

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17
Q

What are control zones?

A

Hot, cold, and warm zones

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18
Q

What is the most prevalent type of terrorist event?

A

Explosive

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19
Q

How far away should you be when using two way radios if there is a potentially explosive device present?

A

300 ft

EMR from data terminal devices and cell phones in the apparatus can cause these devices to detonate

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20
Q

How far away should responders stage from the site of an explosion?

A

500 ft or where debris/damage is first encountered

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21
Q

Where should secondary units stage?

A

Further away than the primary units. They should also avoid line-of-sight areas and stage away from buildings with large amounts of glass

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22
Q

What should you do if multiple threats have been called in for the same area?

A

Avoid using a pre-planned staging area nearby or predictable staging location

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23
Q

When should MDTs and vehicle radios be shut down?

A

Within 300 ft of the site because they are powerful transmitters. Portable radios can be left on to monitor traffic but should not transmit within 50 ft

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24
Q

What are some secondary hazards?

A
  • Unstable structures
  • Damaged utilities
  • Secondary devices
  • Patients with a secondary device
  • Bloodborne pathogens
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25
Q

What classifications are there for explosives?

A

High order (HE): deafening, supersonic, over-pressurization shock wave

Low order (LE): supersonic explosion that lacks over-pressurization

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26
Q

What are the 4 basic mechanism of blast injuries?

A
  • Primary: HE, Gas filled organs are affected, blast lung, traumatic amputations, and fatalities
  • Secondary: flying debris/bomb fragments, penetrating or blunt injuries
  • Tertiary: Closed head injuries, any body part can be impacted
  • Quaternary: thermal burns, crush injuries, respiratory complications from dust or smoke
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27
Q

In what two ways will biological agent attacks be presented?

A
  • Focused response: single known point, source of contamination
  • Public health emergency: large number of victims who begin to experience the same symptoms
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28
Q

What is the most important route of exposure for biological agents?

A

Inhalation

29
Q

What provides an excellent natural barrier to biological agents? What agent would be an exception?

A

Skin is an excellent barrier but T-2 Mycotoxins would be an exception.

30
Q

Indicators of a biological attack

A
  • Unusual number of sick or dying people or animals
  • Suspicious bombing incidents
  • Unusual dissemination of sprayed materials
  • Casualties distributed with wind direction
31
Q

What are the primary and secondary forms of harm that can occur during a biological event?

A

Primary: Etiological; approach uphill and upwind

Secondary: Chemical/mechanical; stay out of contaminated areas

32
Q

What types of PPE are good for protection from a focused response?

A

Structural PPE, Level B, Level C

33
Q

Biological agents will or will not produce illness or symptoms in a rapid manner?

A

Will not

34
Q

What categorizes biological agents?

A
  • Bacteria: A unicellular micro-organism that has cell walls but lacks organelles and an organized nucleus
  • Viruses: An infective agent that typically consists of a nucleic acid molecule in a protein coat, and is able to multiply only within the living cells of a host.
  • Toxins: Poisonous substances produced by certain micro-organisms, animals, and plants.
35
Q

Examples of biological agents

A
  • Anthrax
  • Ricin
  • Botulism
  • Smallpox
  • Plague
36
Q

Through what methods can recognition of biological agents occur? (I.D.D.D.)

A
  • Identification
  • Discovery
  • Diagnosis
  • Detection
37
Q

What is the delay between the exposure and onset of illness described as?

A

The incubation period. This can range from hours to weeks

38
Q

What will the severity and scope of chemical agent incidents be determined by?

A
  • Chemical and physical properties of the agent
  • Dissemination methods
  • Quantity released
  • Environmental factors

Chemical agents have the ability to cause mass casualties in a short period of time.

39
Q

What TWO GROUPS are chemical agents divided into?

A
  • Toxic industrial chemicals (TICs)
  • Chemical warfare agents

Some chemicals, such as chlorine, can be classified as both

40
Q

Where can TICs be found in large quantities?

A
  • Industrial settings
  • Bulk storage
  • Transportation
41
Q

Why do TICs present a unique challenge?

A

Because of the quantity and easy access to them.

42
Q

Examples of toxic industrial chemicals (TICs)

A
  • Chlorine
  • Sulfur dioxide
  • Phosgene
  • Anhydrous ammonia
  • Concentrated sulfuric acid
43
Q

Why are chemical agent disseminated easily but not effectively?

A

They are usually heavier than air and have a low vapor pressure.

44
Q

Chemical agents tend to affect people immediately. What agent is an exception to that rule?

A

Mustard agents, it can take between 2-48 hours.

45
Q

What form of respiratory protection can be used for these events?

A

APRs and PAPRs

46
Q

What is the key factor for overall successful response? When is it most effective?

A

Decontamination within minutes of exposure

47
Q

Where should apparatus be staged for Chemical events?

A

300 feet from event, uphill and upwind

48
Q

Who should decon begin with?

A

Symptomatic patients

49
Q

In a purely chemical event what system of triage is not applicable?

A

START system. However, it may be used if the chemical event is combined with an event causing traumatic injuries.

50
Q

What is a Clandestine lab?

A

A place where controlled substances used for drugs are secretly manufactured

51
Q

What is LQC and what does it help determine?

A

It refers to location, quantity, and combination of materials in a given area that helps first responders determine whether or not a situation is suspicious.

52
Q

What can be a hazard for first responders in clandestine labs?

A

Booby traps

53
Q

Do not use radios within _____ of a suspected lab. Why?

A

300 ft. Some booby traps may be RF controlled

54
Q

What is a the most commonly produced gas in chemical suicides?

A

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

55
Q

What should you do if a chemical suicide is suspected? What should be done prior to transport of a viable patient?

A

Call for a hazardous materials response. Gross emergency decontamination.

56
Q

What happens when aluminum phosphide comes into contact with moisture? What is the IDLH?

A

Phosphine gas is created. The IDLH is 50ppm

57
Q

What does TRACEM stand for?

A

Thermal
Radiological
Asphyxiant
Chemical
Etiological
Mechanical

58
Q

Define contamination

A

The process of transferring a hazardous material from its source to people, equipment, or the environment. The material remains in contact and creates a continuing risk of injury or harm

59
Q

Define exposure

A

An incident of contact or an encounter with a hazardous chemical, biological, or energetic agent.

60
Q

Define pathogen

A

ANY organism capable of producing serious disease or death. Bacteria, fungi, viruses.

61
Q

Define public health emergency

A

An incident which may or has the potential to spread illness to the public

62
Q

Define RAD

A

Short for radiation. Any material that emits ionizing radiation and has a specific activity greater than .002 microcuries per gram.

63
Q

Define Roentgen

A

A unit of measure for the exposure of X-rays and gamma rays

64
Q

Define WMD

A
  • Any explosive, incendiary, poison gas, bomb, grenade, or rocket having a propellant charge of more than 4oz
  • A missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than 1/4 oz, or mine or device similar to the above.
  • Any weapon involving a disease or organism, or that is designed to release radiation at a level dangerous to human life.
65
Q

Nerve Agents

A

Routes of entry: Multiple

Targets the CNS and has multiple routes of entry.

Symptoms: SLUDGEM, seizures, presents the same as exposure to organophosphates

  • Tabun (GA)
  • Sarin (GB)
  • Soman (GD)
  • VX
66
Q

Blister Agents

A

Route of entry: Absorption

Targets skin, eyes, and respiratory tract

Symptoms: Blistering, redness, burning, itching

  • Mustard gas (HD)
  • Lewisite (L)
  • Phosgene Oxide (CX)
67
Q

Choking Agents

A

Route of entry: Inhalation

Targets lungs and mucus membranes

Symptoms: Irritation of eyes, nose, throat. SOB 2-24 hours later. Laryngeal spasm

  • Chlorine (Cl)
  • Phosgene (PS)
  • Diphosgene (DP)
68
Q

Blood Agents

A

Routes of entry: Inhalation, Absorption

Targets CNS, heart, cellular level. Prevents oxygen exchange.

Symptoms: convulsions, cessation of breathing and heartbeat

  • Arsine
  • CO
  • Cyanogen Chloride
  • Hydrogen Cyanide
69
Q

Riot Control Agents

A

Route of entry: Absorption

Targets mucus membranes

Symptoms: pain, burning, respiratory discomfort, tingling skin

  • Pepper spray (OC)
  • Chloroacetophenone (CN)
  • Chlorobenzylidenemalononitrile (CS)

Hazmat (18 decks)

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