Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

IMG1033 (MSK) > wk 3-5. Pathology concepts for sonography > Flashcards

wk 3-5. Pathology concepts for sonography Flashcards

1
Q

2 categories for muscle and tendon injury

A
  1. acute

2. chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

acute muscle injury grade 1 presents with

A

no fiber disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

acute muscle injury grade 2 presents with

A

partial tear or moderate fiber disruption

-decreased muscle strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

acute muscle injury grade 3 presents with

A

complete fiber disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name the 4 types of tears

A
  1. intrasubstance tear
  2. partial thickness tear
  3. full thickness tear
  4. complete tear or rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tear with no communication wth sides or edges, all surrounding tissue is in tact

A

intrasubstance tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tear with communication to one surface either the articulate surface or the bursal surface

A

partial thickness tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

anisotropy makes tendons appear ____

A

hypoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tendons, if images at the appropriate angle (90 degrees) there will be no anisotropy and will appear

A

hyperechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t/f: in a normal tendon there is little vascularity

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

surface of tendon in contact with cartilage of bone

A

articulate side of the tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

from articulate to bursal surface there is a disruption of the fiber

A

full thickness tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

tear separate tendon form bone

A

complete/ rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

separation of bursal and articular lamina

A

delaminating tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

appearance of ___:

  • hypoechoic or heterogeneous
  • loss of fibular architecture
  • calcification
  • disorganized/ fiber separation
A

tendonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

inflammation of the fibrous tissue (plantar fascia) along the bottom of your foot that connects your heel bone to your toes

A

fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

inflammation of the bursa, becomes fluid filled and hypoechoic

A

bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

increase of the cellularity of the synovial membrane and leads to synovial thickening

A

synovial hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

extra fluid surrounds the joint

A

joint effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

jelly-fluid filled lumps commonly occurs around joints of wrist

A

ganglion cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the flow of arthrographic contrast or joint fluid from the glenohumeral joint across the acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) to form a supraclavicular collection.

A

geyser sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hypoechoic fluid collection above the AC joint

A

geyser sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

abnormal hypoechoic, poorly compressible and non-displaceable intra-articular tissue which may exhibit doppler signal.

A

hyperemic synovial hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During the healing of the bruise, Calcium can become deposited in the bruise causing a hard bone like structure within the muscle.

A

myosititis ossificans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ill defined heterogeneous/ hypoechoic fluid collection

A

hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a spherical or oblong structure that is largely anechoic or hypoechoic. Containing hyperechoic debris

A

abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

enlargement of the bursa with fluid collection. Fluid filled anechoic structure lines with hyperechoic wall

A

bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

well defined collection of fluid with rounded inferior margin in the pop fossa

A

bakers cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

multiple echogenic foci superficial and deep to a tendon represent

A

foreign bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

linear hypoechoic area within tendon represents

A

laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

non-infective causes of inflammation (resemble infection)

A

arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

characteristics of ____:

  • worn down cartilage with narrowed joining space
  • inflammatory cells
  • swelling around the joint
  • over growth of synovial membrane
A

rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cartilage-capped bony proliferations (spurs) that most commonly develop at the margins of a synovial joint as a response to articular cartilage damage

A

osteophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

synovial proliferation (thickening) as seen in rheumatoid arthritis

A

pannus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

osteophytes (bony proliferations at tendon and ligament attachments) are a distinguishing feature of ____

A

psoriatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

appear heterogeneously hyperechoic, surrounded by hypoechoic halo caused by the zone of chronic inflammation

A

tophi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The presence of synovial monosodium urate monohydrate (MSU) crystals is the gold standard for diagnosing

38
Q

cartilage loss and osteophyte formation are common findings associated with

A

Osteoarthritis

39
Q

____ cysts have a fibrous lining

40
Q

___ cysts have a cubodial/ flattened cell lining

41
Q

t/f: ganglion cysts can originate from the tendon sheath

42
Q

ganglion cysts are commonly ___-loculated and ____-lobar

43
Q

5 types of infection

A
  1. cellulitis
  2. abscess
  3. necrotizing fasciitis
  4. Other ST infections
  5. Hematogeneous infections
44
Q

infections adjacent to bone

A

-osteomyelitis

45
Q

____ infections are common in children, IV drug useres, pt with sepsis, steroid users

A

hematogeneous

46
Q

strep A is a popular cause of ___

A

necrotizing fasciitis

47
Q

anechoic perifascial fluid and gas at the deep fascia

A

necrotizing fasciitis

48
Q

necrotizing fasciitis contain hyperechoic foci with ___ artifacts

A

commet tail & dirty shadow

49
Q

a wound or skin ulcer is considered what type of infection

A

cellulitis

50
Q

___ cellulitis appears as hyperechoic and thickened subq fat

51
Q

___ cellulitis appears as hypoechoic or anechoic, branching channels, distorted ST (soft tissue) , with possible hyperemia

52
Q

fluid distention of a joint recess, anechoic to hyperechoic, with hypo or isoechoic synovial hypertrophy. Requires aspiration to diagnose

A

sepetic arthritis

53
Q

hematogeneous, subperiosteal abscess, commonly seen in children where periosteum is loosely adherent

A

bone infection

54
Q

tissue death or necrosis

A

infarction

55
Q

myositis & diabetic muscle infarction are inflammatory processes that early on appear___ and later appear____

A

Early
-hyperechoic with hyperemia

Later
-atrophy (increased muscle echogenicity and diminished volume)

56
Q

hypoechoic masses/ nodules

A

sarcoidosis

57
Q

sarcoidosis is a disease caused by ___ commonly occurring in the lungs and lymph nodes

A

inflammation

58
Q

nerves get trapped with certain anatomy and by certain movements

A

peripheral nerve entrapment

59
Q

carpal tunnel is ___ nerve entrapment

60
Q

guyon canal is ___ nerve entrapment

61
Q

level of supinator muscle is ___ nerve entrapment

A

deep branch of radial

62
Q

tibial nerve- tarsal tunnel syndrome affects the

63
Q

common plantar digital nerve- morton neuroma (nerve entrapment) affecets thr

64
Q

common findings of nerve entrapment

A

hypoechoic swelling at entrapment site

-signs of denervation in muscle atrophy (increased echogenicity)

65
Q

loss of nerve connection to the muscle resulting in atrophic muscle

A

denervation

66
Q

denervation can compromise the ___ or ___ nerves

A

central

local

67
Q

ST gas can simulate __ on ultrasound

A

Foreign body

68
Q

related complications of foreign bodies (3)

A
  • tenosynovitis
  • periostitis
  • abscess
69
Q

Benign soft tissue masses (5)

A
  1. Lipoma
  2. Vascular anomalies
  3. Ganglion cyst
  4. Lymph nodes
  5. Nerve tumors
70
Q

ST foreign bodies become (more/less) echogenic over time

71
Q

thick layer of gel or standoff pad is the best way to assess

A

foreign bodies

72
Q

shoulder, upper extremety, trunk, back are common sites for ___

73
Q

tumor located just below the skin. Well defined, palpable, echogenic (depending on surrounding tissue)

74
Q

lipoma echogenicity is related to amount of ___ and ____

75
Q

differential diagnosis of lipoma (3)

A
  1. angiolipoma or “hemartoma”
  2. subQ fat necrosis
  3. dermatofibrosarcome protuberans
76
Q

solid ST masses, continuous with nerves- hypoechoic, low level homogeneous internal echoes, round or oval shaped and well definied. require doppler to confirm flow

A

peripheral nerve sheath tumors

77
Q

peripheral nerve sheath tumor differential diagnosis

A

complex cyst

–> show doppler flow to confirm it is PNST

78
Q

over production of schwann cells (coat nerve fibers)

A

schwannoma

79
Q

overgrowth of nerve tissue, intimately attached to nerve

80
Q

schwannoma is ___ to treat surgically than Neuroma

A

easier (not directly attached to never, just covers it)

81
Q

vascular anomalies can be separated into 2:

A
  1. vascular tumors

2. vascular malformations

82
Q

2 types of vascular tumors

A
  1. infantile hemangioma

2. intramuscular hemangioma

83
Q

vascular tumor that shows INCREASED flow on colour/ power doppler

A

infantile hemangioma

84
Q

vascular tumor that shows SLOW flow on colour/ power doppler

A

intramuscular hemangioma

85
Q

a benign (noncancerous) tumor made up of blood vessels.

A

hemangioma

86
Q

what gives the “tangles vessel” appearance

A

AVM

atriovenous malformation

87
Q

lymph nodes are oval with a ___ peripheral cortex and ___ hilum

A
  • hypoechoic

- hyperecoic

88
Q

cortex of lymph node should have a thin wall or have ____ thickness

89
Q

indicators of malignant lymph node

A
  • loss of echogenic hilum
  • enlarged, asymmetrical cortex
  • rounded shape
  • increased vascularity
  • cystic areas in cortex
90
Q

indicators of malignant ST tumors

A
  • increased vascularity
  • anechoic necrotic regions
  • “outside” or not related to joint
  • calcifications
91
Q

example of malignant ST tumor

IMG1033 (MSK) (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions