Winter Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

anechoic

A

describes the portion of an image that appears echo-free

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2
Q

echogenic

A

describes an organ or tissue that is capable of producing echoes by reflecting the acoustic beam

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3
Q

echopenic

A

describes a structure that is less echogenic or has few internal echoes

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4
Q

heterogeneous

A

describes tissue or organ structures that have several different echo characteristics

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5
Q

homogeneous

A

refers to imaged echoes of equal intensity

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6
Q

hyperechoic

A

describes image echoes brighter than surrounding tissues or brighter than is normal for that tissue or organ

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7
Q

hypoechoic

A

describes portions of an image that are NOT as bright as surrounding tissues or are LESS bright than normal

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8
Q

isoechoic

A

describes structures of equal echo density

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9
Q

Superior (cranial)

A

Toward the head, closer to the head, the upper portion of the body, the upper part of a structure, or a structure higher than another structure

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10
Q

inferior (caudal)

A

Toward the feet, away from the head, the lower portion of the body, toward the lower part of a structure, or a structure lower than another structure

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11
Q

Anterior (ventral)

A

Toward the front or at the front of the body or a structure in front of another structure

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12
Q

Posterior (dorsal)

A

Toward the back or the back of the body or a structure behind another structure

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13
Q

Medial

A

Toward the middle or midline of the body or the middle of a structure

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14
Q

Lateral

A

Away from the middle or the midline of the body or pertaining to the side

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15
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Located on the same side of the body or affecting the same side of the body

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16
Q

Contralateral

A

Located on the opposite side of the body or affecting the opposite side of the body

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17
Q

Proximal

A

Closer to the attachment of an extremity to the trunk or the origin of a body part

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18
Q

Distal

A

Farther from the attachment of an extremity to the trunk or the origin of a body part

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19
Q

Superficial

A

Toward or on the body surface or external

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20
Q

Deep

A

Away from the body surface or internal

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21
Q

sagittal

A

the plane that courses vertically through the body and separates it into right and left portions. “Flight of an arrow”

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22
Q

Transverse

A

plane passes through the body from anterior to posterior and divides the body into superior and inferior portions and courses parallel to the surface of the ground.

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23
Q

Supine or dorsal

A

Lying on the back

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24
Q

RPO

A

Lying on the right posterior surface,
the left posterior surface is elevated

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25
Q

LPO

A

Lying on the left posterior surface, the
right posterior surface is elevated

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26
Q

RAO

A

Lying on the right anterior surface, the
left anterior surface is elevated

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27
Q

LAO

A

Lying on the left anterior surface, the
right anterior surface is elevated

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28
Q

increased acoustic signal amplitude returning from regions lying beyond an object that causes little or no attenuation of the sound beam such as fluid-filled structures

A

Enhancement

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29
Q

reduced echo amplitude from sound not transmitting due to attenuation or low reflectivity; Echogenic calculi attenuate sound is an example

A

Shadowing

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30
Q

retain an anechoic center even at high instrument gain settings.

A

Cysts

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31
Q

has sharply defined posterior wall indicative of a strong interface between cyst fluid and tissue or parenchyma

A

Mass

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32
Q

may have a hyperechoic, hypoechoic, echopenic, or anechoic homogeneous echo texture, or it may be heterogeneous because it contains many different types of interfaces. Usually exhibit the following characteristics
●Internal echoes that increase with an increase in instrument gain settings
●Irregular, often poorly defined walls and margins
●Low-amplitude echoes or shadowing posterior to the mass due to increased acoustic attenuation by soft tissue or calculi

A

Solid structure

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33
Q

usually exhibits both anechoic and echogenic areas on the image, originating from both fluid and soft tissue components within the mass.
Relative echogenicity complex soft tissue mass is related to a variety of constituents, including
●Collagen content
●Interstitial components
●Vascularity
●Degree and type of tissue degeneration

A

Complex structure

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34
Q

Refers to the gradual loss of ultrasound energy as it travels through tissue. This loss occurs due to several factors, including: absorption, reflection, scattering and reflection.

A

Attenuation

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35
Q

The sonography findings were positive, and the patient does have the disease or pathology.

A

True-positive result

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36
Q

The sonography findings were negative, and the patient does not have the disease or pathology.

A

True-negative result

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37
Q

The sonography findings were positive, but the patient does not have the disease or pathology.

A

False-positive result

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38
Q

The sonography findings were negative, but the patient does have the disease or pathology.

A

False-negative result

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39
Q

describes how well the sonography examination documents whatever disease or pathology is present.

A

Sensitivity: If number of false-negative examinations decreases, sensitivity of the examination increases.

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40
Q

describes how well the sonography examination documents normal findings or excludes patients without disease or pathology

A

Specificity: If the number of false-positive examinations decreases, the specificity of the examination increases.

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41
Q

A connection between

A

Anastomosis

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42
Q

Dilation, expansion, or distention

A

Ectasia

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43
Q

A metallic stent covered with fabric and placed inside an aneurysm to prevent rupture

A

Endograft

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44
Q

Any tissue or organ for implantation or transplantation

A

Graft

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45
Q

an artificial substitute for a body part

A

prosthesis

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46
Q

caused by a hematoma that forms as a result of a leaking hole in an artery; this pulsating, false aneurysm forms outside the arterial wall

A

pseudoaneurysm

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47
Q

the formation of a clot in a blood vessel

A

thrombosis

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48
Q

Three blood vessel layers

A
  1. Tunica intima: innermost, endothelial lining, and elastic tissue
  2. Tunica media: middle, thickest layer, elastic fibers, and smooth muscle.
  3. Tunica adventitia: outer collagen fibers.
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49
Q

Differences in arteries and veins

A

Arterial walls:
- thicker, elastic, and smooth muscle fibers
-Tend to maintain constant shape; do not readily collapse in conjunction with low blood pressure due to wall thickness

Vain walls:
-Let’s smooth muscle and less elastic tissue
-Unable to contract to force blood flow
-Requires pressure, gradient, breathing, skeletal muscle, contractions, and valves in extremities to return blood to heart

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50
Q

Originate from the anterior aspect of the aorta and is usually found within the first 2 cm

A

Celiac axis or trunk

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51
Q

CA is a short vessel, approximately 1 cm long. It divides into three branches.

A

Common Hepatic artery, left gastric artery, splenic artery

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52
Q

The left renal vein being compressed between the AO and superior mesenteric artery is known as the

A

Nutcracker phenomenon

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53
Q

Anterior to the portal vein, left of the common bile duct, superior to the head of the pancreas

A

Hepatic artery

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54
Q

Superior to the body and tail of the pancreas

A

Splenic artery

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55
Q

Posterior to the pancreas and anterior to uncinate process and branches into mesentery and colon. Supplies blood to right side of the cecum, asending and transverse colon and small intestines.

A

Superior mesenteric artery

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56
Q

Posterior to the inferior vena cava

A

Right renal artery

57
Q

Posterior to the body and tail of the pancreas, inferior to the splenic artery

A

Splenic vein

58
Q

Right of and parallel to the superior mesenteric artery

A

Superior mesenteric vein

59
Q

Anterior to the aorta, posterior to the SMA, anterior to the right renal artery

A

Left renal vein

60
Q

Anterior to the IVC

A

Portal vein

61
Q

Anterior to the main portal vein, right of the hepatic artery

A

Common bile duct

62
Q

A form of arterial sclerosis, in which intimal lining of arteries is altered by the presence of any combination of the following:
-Focal accumulation of lipids
-complex carbohydrates
-Blood and blood product
-smoking
-calcium deposits

A

Atherosclerosis

63
Q

Focal abnormal dilation of a blood vessel caused by a structural weakness in its walls,

64
Q

A.k.a. false aneurysm, is an extra vascular hematoma, communicating with the intravascular space

A

Pseudoaneurysm

65
Q

This type of aneurysm involves all three layers of the arterial wall; the most common cause is atherosclerosis.

A

True aneurysm

66
Q

Sac like protrusion of aorta toward one side or the other, usually larger than a circumferential and connected to the aorta by a channel or opening that varies in size

A

Saccular aneurysm

67
Q

Occurs when there is a separation of the layers of the arterial wall by blood or hemorrhage, which generally begins in the proximal portion of the aorta

A

Aortic dissection

68
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysms of any size may rupture, but the risk increases with aneurysms larger than

A

7 cm in diameter

69
Q

Enveloped by a dense, fibrotic reaction, may include inflammatory cell infiltrates, and fatty tissue; are uncommon in less than 20% of all aortic aneurysms

A

Inflammatory aneurysms

70
Q

A type of aneurysm that involves a circumferential dilation of a blood vessel, meaning the entire vessel wall expands outward in a spindle like or elongated shape.

A

Fusiform aneurysm

71
Q

Is the thickening, hardening, and loss of elasticity of the walls of arteries. Affects small arteries in arterials, often associated with high blood pressure, hypertension or diabetes

A

Arteriosclerosis

72
Q

These aneurysms are rare, but potentially life-threatening vascular abnormalities that affect the arteries supply the gastrointestinal organs

A

Splanchnic artery aneurysms

73
Q

Renal artery aneurysms require surgical intervention in the presence of an aneurysm greater than

74
Q

The second most common type of splanchnic vessel aneurysms encountered is

A

Hepatic artery aneurysm

75
Q

This aneurysm is often associated with the continuation of abdominal aortic aneurysms

A

Iliac artery aneurysms

76
Q

A minimally invasive surgical procedure involves deploying a stent graft into the aorta with exclusion of the aneurysm

A

Endovascular repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm (EVAR)

77
Q

Which aortic graft complication is suspected if duplex Doppler cannot confirm the presence of blood flow?

A

Occlusion (graft thrombosis)

78
Q

Usually caused by atherosclerotic plaque generally located at origin or first 2 cm from aorta

A

Renal Artery Stenosis

79
Q

Results from lack of adequate blood supply to intestinal tract due to underlying vascular compromise

A

Mesenteric Artery Stenosis

80
Q

Indicates proximal arterial obstruction or stenosis, leading to distal damping of blood flow. Common causes include:
-Severe aortic or renal artery stenosis, > 50%
Aortic graft stenosis or kinking
-Aortic dissection

A

Tardus-parvus waveform
Delayed systolic upstroke (tardus); low amplitude and low velocity (parvus)

81
Q

A rare disorder characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, leading to liver congestion, hepatomegaly, and portal hypertension

A

Budd-Chiari

82
Q

Is defined as elevated pressure in the portal venous system, typically exceeding 10 mmHG. It results from obstruction or increase resistance to blood flow within the portal system, leading to complications such as ascites, varices, and splenomegaly.

A

Portal Venus hypertension

83
Q

Bones of the bony pelvis

A
  • two innominate bones
    -sacrum
    -coccyx
84
Q

Greater (false) pelvis vs. Lesser (true) pelvis

A
  • Greater (False) Pelvis – Superior portion that supports abdominal organs.
    -Lesser (True) Pelvis – Inferior portion that houses the pelvic organs and forms the birth canal.
85
Q

Pelvic Inlet vs Pelvic Outlet

A

-Pelvic Inlet → This is the upper opening of the pelvis. It is the space where the baby’s head first enters during childbirth. It is shaped like an oval and is formed by the sacrum (back), pubic bones (front), and ilium (sides).

-Pelvic Outlet → This is the lower opening of the pelvis. It is the space where the baby exits during birth. It is formed by the pubic arch (front), ischial tuberosities (sides), and the coccyx (back).

86
Q

is the diamond-shaped area between the thighs, located at the bottom of the pelvis. It is the region between the genitals and the anus and plays an important role in supporting pelvic organs and bodily functions like childbirth, urination, and defecation.

87
Q

Supports the bladder, uterus (in females), and rectum.
Help control urination, bowel movements, and childbirth.
Assist in sexual function and stability of the core.

A

Pelvic Floor Muscles

88
Q

Muscles that make up the Levator ani

A

pubococcygeus, puborectalis, and iliococcygeus

89
Q

What two triangles compose the perineum

A
  • Urogenital triangle (front, containing external genitalia)
  • Anal triangle (back, containing the anus)
90
Q

It serves both urinary and reproductive functions, as semen also passes through it.

91
Q

Male Reproductive Structures (7)

A

1.Testes – Located in the scrotum, they produce sperm and testosterone.
2.Epididymis – A coiled tube on the back of each testis, where sperm matures.
3.Vas deferens – A duct that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra.
4.Seminal Vesicles – Located behind the bladder; produce fluid that nourishes sperm.
5.Prostate Gland – Below the bladder; secretes a fluid that enhances sperm mobility.
6.Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) Glands – Small glands near the urethra that secrete lubricating fluid.
7.Penis – The external organ that delivers sperm and urine through the urethra.

92
Q

Female Reproductive Structures (6)

A

1.Ovaries – Located on either side of the uterus; produce eggs and hormones.
2.Fallopian Tubes – Extend from the ovaries to the uterus; the site of fertilization.
3.Uterus – A muscular organ located behind the bladder, where a fertilized egg implants and grows during pregnancy.
4.Cervix – The lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
5.Vagina – A muscular canal that connects the cervix to the external body; serves as the birth canal and passage for menstruation.
6.External Genitalia (Vulva) – Includes the labia, clitoris, and vaginal opening, which protect internal structures.

93
Q

a tumor marker frequently elevated in cases of hepatocellular carcinoma and certain testicular cancers

A

AFP alpha-fetoprotein

94
Q

an enzyme found in liver tissue that can be elevated with biliary obstruction

A

ALP alkaline phosphatase

95
Q

a liver enzyme most specific to hepatocellular damage

A

ALT alanine aminotransferase

96
Q

an enzyme found in all tissues, but in largest amounts in the liver; an increase can indicate hepatocellular damage

A

AST aspartate aminotransferase

97
Q

fold in the parietal peritoneum that extends from the umbilicus to the diaphragm and contains the ligamentum teres

A

falciform ligament

98
Q

blood flow away from the liver

A

hepatofugal

99
Q

blood flow toward the liver

A

hepatopetal

100
Q

remnant of the obliterated left umbilical vein seen as a triangular echogenic focus dividing the medial and lateral segments of the left lobe of the liver in the transverse plane

A

ligamentum teres

101
Q

remnant of the ductus venosus seen as an echogenic line separating the caudate lobe from the left lobe

A

ligamentum venosum

102
Q

Direction of blood flow also dictates the caliber of the venous radicles. Caliber of hepatic veins becomes _______ as it courses toward the IVC and diaphragm, and has a pulsatile waveform. Caliber of the portal veins ________ further from its point of origin, the porta hepatis, and has a continuous waveform

A

-increased
-decrease

103
Q

are interlobar and intersegmental, coursing between lobes and segments

A

Hepatic veins

104
Q

are intrasegmental, coursing within lobar
segments.

A

Portal veins

105
Q

The difference between the bunny sign versus the deer horn sign on a sonographic liver image

A

-the bunny sign is a normal liver image of the hepatic veins resembling a bunny
-the deer horn sign is of an abnormal liver image observed in portal hypertension

106
Q

Sonographically, identified as finger-like or tongue-like projection of right liver lobe extending distally and may reach as far as iliac crest; More common in women

A

Riedel lobe

107
Q

Hepatic arterial blood is ______ rich

Portal venous blood is _______ rich after it traverses the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.

A

-oxygen
-nutrient

108
Q

-Rt. Portal Vein divides into the _______ and _______ branches

-Lt. Portal Vein divides into the ______ and _______ branches

A

-Anterior and Posterior branches
-Medial and Lateral branches

109
Q

The parallel channel sign in liver sonography refers to the appearance of dilated bile ducts, running parallel to the portal vein branches. This abnormality is referred to as?

A

Biliary ductal dilation

110
Q

is largest and courses between anterior and posterior branches of the Hepatic Veins

111
Q

is largest and courses between anterior and posterior branches of the Hepatic Veins

112
Q

This Hepatic V. is located in main lobar fissure. Divides liver into right and left lobes.

A

Middle Hepatic Vein

113
Q

Located in the cephalic portion of left intersegmental fissure dividing left liver lobe into lateral and medial segments

114
Q

Which ligament surrounds the portal triad?

A

Hepatoduodenal

115
Q

Which cell type is most abundant in the liver, and carries out most metabolic functions?

A

Hepatocyte

116
Q

Is a yellow pigment that results from the breakdown of heme in red blood cells. It is processed by the liver and excreted in bile. There are two types, unconjugated (indirect), and conjugated (direct).

117
Q

Excessive accumulation of fat in hepatocytes. Caused by alcoholic liver disease, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, obesity, and diabetes. Can progress to fibrosis/cirrhosis.

-increased echogenicity
-blurry or obscured vasculature
-posterior attenuation due to excessive fat absorption of sound waves

A

Fatty Liver Infiltration

118
Q

Areas of normal liver tissue in a background of fatty infiltration. Thought to be due to altered perfusion in certain regions of the liver. Can mimic liver lesions but lacks a true mass-like appearance. A benign abnormality.
-Hypoechoic regions
-commonly seen near the porta hepatis, gallbladder fossa, or periportal area

A

Fatty sparing (Focal Fatty Sparring)

119
Q

A genetic metabolic disorder caused by enzyme deficiencies affecting glycogen metabolism in the liver muscles or both. These lead to abnormal glycogen accumulation, causing hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, and metabolic complications. Most common form GSD is type 1 Von Gierke Disease
-Marked diffuse increase in parenchymal echogenicity and decreased penetration indicating a fatty liver; Possible solid liver masses

A

Glycogen Storage Disease

120
Q

Inflammation of the liver which can be caused by viral infections, toxins, autoimmune disorders, or metabolic conditions. It leads to liver cell damage, impairing liver function, and potentially progressing to fibrosis, cirrhosis, or liver failure. There are five different variations, two of which are incurable.
-Parenchymal pattern ranges from normal to hypoechoic secondary to diffuse swelling of liver cells caused by inflammation.
-Portal vein walls appear more hyperechoic against hypoechoic background of edematous parenchyma, called “starry star” sign.

121
Q

The five types of viral hepatitis

A

● Hepatitis A: highly contagious liver infection caused by fecal or oral transmission, acute only
● Hepatitis B: serious liver infection caused by blood-borne sexual transmission can be chronic; preventable by vaccine
●Hepatitis C: infection caused by platform, sexual transmission, virus that attacks liver and leads to inflammation; chronic
●Hepatitis D: serious liver disease; requires HBV co-infection.
● Hepatitis E: caused by fecal or oral transmission, more severe in pregnancy

122
Q

Seen in cirrhosis or portal hypertension, were increased arterial flow compensates for reduced portal vain flow. The hepatic artery becomes enlarged and tortuous, leading to a __________ appearance.

A

Corkscrew-like

123
Q

Are dilated submucosal veins in the esophagus, usually due to portal hypertension from liver cirrhosis. They pose a high risk of rupture and life-threatening bleeding. On an ultrasound image will appear superior to the aorta and posterior to the left liver lobe.

A

esophageal varices

124
Q

A rare genetic disorder, characterized by multiple fluid, filled cysts in the liver without significant kidney involvement. It differs from autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease where liver occur, secondary to kidney cysts.

A

Isolated polycystic liver disease (PCLD)

125
Q

Aka echinococcus cyst; is a parasitic infection caused by a tapeworm through the ingestion of contaminated food or water containing dog or fox feces. The cysts remain asymptomatic for a long time, but symptoms can include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, feeling of fullness. The most significant complication arises from cyst rupture, which can trigger severe allergic reactions due to the release of cyst fluid. Geographically prevalent in the Middle East, Mediterranean, and South America. On a sonographic appears, depending on the level of larval maturation, will include:
-(1) Solitary cyst with possible mural or shell-like calcification
(2) Mother cyst containing internal, peripherally placed daughter cysts
(3) Fluid collections with septa—honeycomb appearance
(4) Solid-looking cysts, with or without calcification

A

Hydatid Disease

126
Q

Is a pus-filled cavity in the liver caused by Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoon parasite. It is the most common extra intestinal manifestation, occurring when the parasite spreads from the intestines to the liver via the portal vein. It is spread through fecal-oral transmission from contaminated food and water. Geographically prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions with poor sanitation’s. Lead to necrosis and abscess formation in the liver, filled with anchovy-paste like pus. However, if caught early, can be treated with an excellent prognosis.

A

Amoebic Liver Abscess

127
Q

Is a common parasitic infection in third world countries. It is transmitted by skin contact with freshwater containing infected snails. Larvae develop into adult worms in the venous system and lay eggs which get trapped in surrounding liver tissue, triggering inflammation and fibrosis. Can lead to urinary bladder cancer if not treated

Sonographic Features
●Irregular hepatic surface, hyperechoic thickened walls of portal venules, appears as a network-like or “turtle-back” fibrosis pattern
●Splenomegaly with portal vein and splenic vein dilatation with maintained continuous hepatopetal flow maintaining normal velocity

A

Schistosomiasis

128
Q

Is a pus filled cavity in the liver caused by a bacterial infection, usually from E.coli or often due to biliary track disease. It is a serious condition that requires urgent treatment with antibiotics and drainage. May include fever, leukocytosis, elevated LFT values, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, sepsis, and septic shock.
Sonographic appearance :
-Hypoechoic, complex cystic mass with internal debris or septations
-Mass can contain gas bubbles if bacterial growth is present.

A

Pyogenic abscess

129
Q

Is a parasitic infection caused by fasciola hepatica. It is transmitted by ingesting contaminated water or raw aquatic plants that carry the infective larva. Geographical prevalence is worldwide, especially in livestock rearing regions. The liver and bile ducts may show signs of inflammation obstruction or fibrosis, depending on how long the infection has been present.
Sonographic appearance :
-hypoechoic lesions in the liver, often with a halo effect due to inflammatory reaction
-Biliary dilatation might be visible if there is obstruction due to the presence of flukes or inflammation
-Hepatomegaly with a slightly heterogeneous echo texture

A

Liver fluke disease, aka fascioliasis

130
Q

Is a retro virus that targets the immune system, making the body more susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers. Transmitted through unprotected sexual contact, sharing needles or syringes, contaminated blood transfusions, mother-to-child during childbirth pregnancy or breast-feeding.
Sonographic appearance :
-hepatomegaly
-hypoechoic or hyperechoic lesions within the liver
-Fatty infiltration of the liver
-cirrhosis
-splenomegaly
-Enlarged lymph nodes
-nephropathy
-cardiomyopathy

131
Q

Refers to an abnormal growth of tissue that does not spread to other parts of the body and typically does not pose a life-threatening risk. It can develop in virtually any tissue or organ, grow slowly, maintain a well defined border.

A

Benign neoplasm’s

132
Q

Is a type of benign vascular tumor, composed of large dilated blood vessels. It is one of the most common types of hemangioma’s and can occur in various organs. These type of hemangiomas are 5× more common in women. Location is typically in the posterior segment of the right lobe and in subcapsular locations along the periphery of the liver and appearing hyperechoic.

A

Cavernous Hemangioma

133
Q

Excess fluids in extracellular compartments, causing swelling or enlargement of the tissues. It may be isotonic, hypotonic, or hypertonic, depending on the cause. Will cause restriction of movements, interference with digestion and absorption, accumulation of fluids around the heart, lungs, and general organs.

134
Q

A byproduct of cell breakdown excreted by the kidneys. Used in laboratory tests to determine kidney health.

A

Blood urea nitrogen BUN

135
Q

A byproduct of protein breakdown eliminated by the kidneys

A

Creatinine

136
Q

is a fungal infection caused by Candida species, primarily Candida albicans. It commonly affects immunocompromised patients such as patients with AIDS. Types of Candidiasis include:
-Superficial (oral thrush, vaginal candidiasis, skin infections)
-Invasive/Disseminated (affecting liver, spleen, kidneys, CNS, etc.)
Sonographic appearance:
-Multiple small, hypoechoic lesions (1-2 cm) in the liver and spleen
-“Target lesions” or “wheel-within-wheel” appearance
-Central hypoechoic necrosis
-Middle echogenic inflammatory zone
-Outer hypoechoic ring
-Hyperechoic calcifications in chronic cases
-Splenomegaly may be present

A

Candidiasis

137
Q

is a benign liver lesion caused by a hyperplastic response to abnormal blood flow, typically from an arterial malformation. It is the second most common benign liver tumor after hepatic hemangioma and occurs predominantly in young women (30–50 years old).
Sonographic appearance:
-Well-defined, iso- or hypoechoic lesion (compared to surrounding liver)
-“Spoke-wheel” vascular pattern (on Doppler imaging)
-Central scar (hyperechoic or hypoechoic)
-No significant mass effect or capsule
-No internal calcifications or necrosis

A

Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)

138
Q

is a benign liver tumor that has a strong association/long-term use from ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, anabolic steroids, and metabolic conditions. Most common in women 20-40 years old. Composed of normal hepatocytes, but lacks bile ducts and portal tracts. It is uncommon but has a risk of malignant transformation (HCC), hemorrhage, or necrosis.
Sonographic appearance:
-Well-defined, hyperechoic or isoechoic lesion
-Heterogeneous if hemorrhage or necrosis present
-No central scar (unlike FNH)
-Peripheral vascularity on Doppler

A

Hepatic Adenoma