Wills & Trusts Flashcards

1
Q

What are the requirements for an attested will?

A

Requires (i) writing; (ii) signed by T; (iii) in presence of two Ws; (iv) Ws sign with understanding that instrument is T’s will.

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2
Q

What defines a holographic will?

A

Must be (i) signed by T and (ii) material provisions in T’s handwriting.

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3
Q

What is the presumption regarding interested witnesses?

A

Unless two disinterested Ws are present, there is a presumption that interested W secured gift by wrongdoing.

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4
Q

What is the capacity requirement for a testator (T)?

A

T must be > 18 years old; able to understand extent of T’s property; know the natural objects of their bounty; and know the nature of his act.

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5
Q

What constitutes an insane delusion in the context of a will?

A

T had a false belief that was a product of a sick mind; no evidence to support that belief; and delusion affected T’s will.

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6
Q

What are the two types of fraud related to wills?

A
  • Fraud in Execution
  • Fraud in Inducement
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7
Q

What happens if there is fraud in execution?

A

T’s signature is forged or T is given a document that he believes isn’t testamentary, leading to the entire will being invalid.

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8
Q

What is a prima facie case for undue influence?

A

(i) Susceptibility; (ii) Opportunity; (iii) Active participation; (iv) Unnatural result.

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9
Q

What is statutory undue influence?

A

Donative transfer is invalid if transferred to person that drafted the instrument or drafter’s family, unless specific exceptions apply.

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10
Q

What are the methods of revocation for a will?

A
  • Subsequent will
  • Physical act (burn, tear, cancel)
  • By operation of law
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11
Q

What is dependent relative revocation?

A

Disregards revocation caused by mistake when T revokes a will in mistaken belief that a substantially identical will effectuates T’s intent.

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12
Q

What are the components of wills regarding integration?

A

Determines what makes up the will by looking for staples, numbered pages, etc.

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13
Q

What is incorporation by reference in wills?

A

Requires (1) document or writing; (2) in existence when will was executed; (3) document clearly identified in will; and (4) T intended to incorporate document into will.

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14
Q

What are facts of independent significance?

A

Facts that would have existed without the will.

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15
Q

What is a pour over will?

A

T devises all assets into an inter-vivos trust, valid through incorporation by reference or independent significance.

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16
Q

What is the effect of a codicil on a will?

A

Codicils modify, amend, or revoke will and republicate the will.

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17
Q

What happens if a testator revokes a codicil?

A

There is a rebuttable presumption that T intended only to revoke the codicil.

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18
Q

What is a mistake in content regarding wills?

A

If omission, no judicial remedy; if addition, remedy possible by crossing out.

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19
Q

What is a mistake in execution?

A

No probate if no intent, unless reciprocal or mutual will.

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20
Q

What is a mistake in inducement?

A

No relief unless both mistake and what T would have done are expressed in the will.

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21
Q

What is a mistake in description?

A

Latent: introduce parol evidence to establish ambiguity and T’s intent; Patent: common law has no remedy, modern law allows parol evidence.

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22
Q

What is required for a beneficiary to not lapse?

A

Beneficiary must survive T.

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23
Q

What does the Anti-Lapse Statute provide?

A

If a predeceased beneficiary is T’s blood relative and leaves issue, then issue will step into the shoes of the predeceased and take, absent contrary provision.

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24
Q

Define specific devise.

A

A unique gift of a specific piece of property.

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25
Q

Define general devise.

A

A gift payable out of the general assets of the estate.

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26
Q

Define demonstrative devise.

A

A gift from a particular source, but if that source is insufficient, it is payable from general property.

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27
Q

Define residuary devise.

A

A gift that includes all the leftovers of the estate.

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28
Q

What is ademption by extinction?

A

Only applies to specific gifts; if T doesn’t own the specific property, the gift is adeemed by extinction.

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29
Q

What are the exceptions to ademption by extinction?

A
  • Securities change form
  • Conservator sells off assets
  • Eminent domain
  • Casualty
  • Installment sale
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30
Q

What is ademption by satisfaction?

A

May satisfy a general or demonstrative gift under certain conditions.

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31
Q

What are the requirements for ademption by satisfaction?

A
  • Will provides for deduction of inter vivos gift
  • T declares contemporaneous writing that gift is a satisfaction
  • Beneficiary acknowledges in writing the satisfaction
  • Property given in satisfaction is the same as the gift in the will
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32
Q

What happens to after-acquired property?

A

Increases during T’s life (e.g. dividends and splits) will go to intended beneficiary.

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33
Q

What is abatement?

A

Gifts increase or decrease by operation of law.

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34
Q

How does abatement occur to satisfy payment to a pretermitted spouse or child?

A
  • Property not passing by will or trust
  • All beneficiaries pro rata
35
Q

How does abatement occur to satisfy general debt?

A
  • Intestate property
  • Residuary gift
  • General gift to non-relative
  • General gift to relative
  • Specific gift to non-relative
  • Specific gift to relative
36
Q

What is exoneration in the context of gifts?

A

Extinguishes debt on gift; executor must pay off debt before passing to beneficiary.

37
Q

What is the order of intestate succession if there is no surviving spouse?

A
  • Issue
  • Parents
  • Siblings
  • Grandparents
  • Aunts and Uncles
  • Step-kids
  • Next of kin
  • Parent in laws
  • Sibling in laws
  • Escheat
38
Q

How are issue of the same degree distributed in intestate succession?

A

Take ‘per capita’ starting at the first level where there is a living being.

39
Q

What is strict per stirpes distribution?

A

Distribution at the first level so long as there is issue.

40
Q

How are adopted children treated in intestate succession?

A

Adopted kids are treated as natural kids.

41
Q

What is equitable adoption?

A

Parties hold out as parent/child.

42
Q

Under what conditions are stepkids/foster kids treated as adopted?

A
  • Relationship began during minority
  • Continued throughout parties’ life
  • Established by clear and convincing evidence that they would have been adopted but for a legal barrier
43
Q

What are the parental rights of non-marital kids in a domestic partnership?

A

Non-birthing parent is a parent if child is born during domestic partnership, named on birth certificate, or makes voluntary promise to pay child support.

44
Q

What are advancements in the context of intestate succession?

A

If inter vivos down payment is made by intestate to heir apparent, same result as satisfaction.

45
Q

What are the requirements for a gift to be considered an advancement?

A
  • Intestate declares in writing that gift is advancement
  • Heir acknowledges gift as advancement
46
Q

What happens in the case of simultaneous death?

A

Devisee deemed to predecease T; if joint tenants, sever JT and each get half.

47
Q

What happens to community property in the case of simultaneous death of spouses?

A

Community property and qualified community property divided in half.

48
Q

What is the requirement for an heir to take in the case of simultaneous death?

A

Heir must survive for 120 hours to take.

49
Q

What happens to an omitted child?

A

If born after testamentary instruments executed and not provided for, child will get intestate share plus share of assets in trust.

50
Q

What are the exceptions for omitted children?

A
  • Omission intentional on face of instrument
  • T had a child and transferred assets to parent of omitted child
  • Child provided for outside of testamentary instrument
51
Q

What happens to an omitted spouse/domestic partner?

A

Same as child, but go through CP/QCP rules.

52
Q

What are the exceptions for omitted spouses/domestic partners?

A
  • Omission intentional
  • Provided for in alternative
  • Spouse signed waiver
53
Q

What is a waiver in the context of omitted spouses?

A

Voluntary relinquishment of known right whether signed before or during marriage.

54
Q

What are the requirements for a waiver to be valid?

A
  • Waiver in writing
  • Full disclosure of decedent’s finances
  • Independent counsel by waiving spouse
55
Q

What is the consequence if a waiver is unconscionable?

A

No enforceability.

56
Q

What is the consequence of homicide in succession?

A

Requires conviction or probate court determines guilt by preponderance of evidence; killer deemed to predecease.

57
Q

What is the effect of elder abuse on succession?

A

Bans the abuser from inheriting.

58
Q

What is a no contest clause?

A

Enforced unless beneficiary brings contest with reasonable cause on grounds of forgery, revocation, or invalid transfer.

59
Q

What are gifts causa mortis?

A

Gifts made in contemplation of imminent death.

60
Q

What are the delivery requirements for gifts causa mortis?

A
  • Actual delivery
  • Symbolic delivery
  • Constructive delivery
61
Q

What is symbolic delivery?

A

Something representative of property is given to donee.

62
Q

What is constructive delivery?

A

CL: key providing access to corpus; Mod: donor has done everything possible to effectuate delivery & no fraud or mistake.

63
Q

What are the three essential elements in the creation of a valid trust?

A
  1. Property
  2. Beneficiary
  3. Trustee

Additional elements include intent, creation, and valid legal purpose.

64
Q

What is the role of the trustee in a trust?

A

The trustee administers the trust for the benefit of the beneficiaries and can be appointed by the court if absent.

65
Q

What must be demonstrated for the intent to create a trust?

A

There must be a present manifestation of intent; precatory words alone are not enough.

66
Q

What happens if a trust is created for an illegal purpose?

A

The illegal part may be excised; if impossible, the trust is invalidated at inception.

67
Q

What is a discretionary trust?

A

A trust where the trustee has sole and absolute discretion to determine how much to pay the beneficiary.

68
Q

What is a spendthrift trust?

A

A trust that prevents the beneficiary from voluntarily transferring future payments and protects from creditors.

69
Q

What is the duty of loyalty in trust administration?

A

The trustee must administer the trust solely for the benefit of the beneficiaries, prohibiting self-dealing.

70
Q

What is a support trust?

A

A trust requiring the trustee to use only as much income or principal as necessary for the beneficiary’s health, support, maintenance, or education.

71
Q

What is an honorary trust?

A

A trust with no ascertainable beneficiary that confers no substantial benefit to society but serves the settlor’s goal.

72
Q

What is a constructive trust?

A

A trust imposed to prevent fraud or unjust enrichment, applicable in cases of self-dealing or fraud.

73
Q

What are the requirements of a charitable trust?

A

Must confer substantial benefit on society and meet the same requirements as a private express trust.

74
Q

What is a ToTten trust?

A

A tentative bank account trust naming a beneficiary who takes whatever is left in the account at the grantor’s death.

75
Q

What is the major difference between revocable and irrevocable trusts?

A

Revocable trusts can be revoked by the settlor if expressly reserved, while irrevocable trusts generally cannot be revoked.

76
Q

What is the ‘Duty to Invest’ in trust administration?

A

Trustees must invest in accordance with state law, prudent person test, or Uniform Prudent Investors Act.

77
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ trust is implied in fact based on the presumed intent of the parties.

78
Q

What are the duties of a trustee regarding trust property?

A
  1. Duty to collect/protect property
  2. Duty to maintain marketability of property
  3. Duty to keep trust property productive.
79
Q

What is the liability of a trustee to third parties under contract law?

A

Trustees can be sued in personal capacity but may receive indemnification from the trust.

80
Q

What income does a life tenant receive from a trust?

A

Cash dividends, interest income, and net business income.

81
Q

What expenses does a remainderman pay in a trust?

A

Principal of loans and major repairs/improvements.

82
Q

What is the ‘Duty to Earmark’ in trust administration?

A

Trustees must ensure that trust property is clearly designated; failure to do so can result in personal liability.

83
Q

What happens to a trust if all beneficiaries and the settlor consent to its termination?

A

The trust may be terminated.

84
Q

What is a semi-secret trust?

A

A trust where a gift is made to a person to hold as a trustee without naming a beneficiary, resulting in a resulting trust.