Constitutional Law Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three requirements for standing?

A

Personal & Direct Injury; Causation; Redressibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Under what conditions is third-party standing allowed?

A

i) close relationship between P and injured 3rd party; ii) 3rd party meets all other standing requirements; iii) 3rd party unlikely able to assert rights on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the requirements for associational standing?

A

i) individual members have standing; ii) interests germane to organization’s purpose; iii) neither claim nor relief requires participation of individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two requirements for ripeness?

A

i) actual injury or immediate threat of injury to P; ii) action is not premature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a pre-enforcement challenge?

A

Credible threat of enforcement; and anticipated harm warrants immediate judicial review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What analysis is used to determine ripeness?

A

1) Are the issues purely legal and can they be decided without further factual development? 2) Would parties suffer substantial hardship without judicial review?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does mootness refer to?

A

Live controversy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are exceptions to the mootness doctrine?

A
  • Wrongs capable of repetition but evading review
  • Voluntary cessation
  • Class actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What types of challenges will not be adjudicated due to political question doctrine?

A
  • Challenges to Amendments
  • Foreign policy
  • Republican form of government
  • Partisan gerrymandering
  • Impeachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Under what conditions can states be sued in federal court?

A

i) Federal government sues; ii) express waiver; iii) Congress clearly removes immunity; iv) suits against state official for enforcing unconstitutional statute; v) state v. state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the principle of abstention in federal judicial power?

A

Federal courts cannot enjoin a pending state court proceeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What limitations exist on federal legislative power regarding police power?

A

None except MILD – Military; Indian reservations; Land (Federal); District of Columbia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the scope of the general welfare power of Congress?

A

May only tax and spend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What areas can Congress regulate under commerce power?

A
  • Channels of interstate commerce
  • Instrumentalities of interstate commerce
  • Activities with substantial effect on interstate commerce
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the 10th Amendment limit regarding federal power?

A

Can’t compel states to regulate or act, but may induce with strings on grants if expressly stated & related to purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the 14th Amendment state about congressional powers?

A

Congress can’t create new or expand existing rights; can only prevent or remedy violations of existing rights if proportional/congruent to violation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is required for treaties to be valid?

A

Must be ratified by Senate but no Senate approval required to void

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the conflict hierarchy between state law, federal law, and treaties?

A

State law → state law invalid; Federal law → last adopted controls; US Constitution → treaty invalid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are executive agreements and their requirements?

A

No Senate approval needed; conflicts follow the same hierarchy as treaties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who has the authority to appoint ambassadors, federal judges, and other officers?

A

The President appoints with Senate confirmation; Congress may vest appointment authority but cannot give itself appointment power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the removal power of the President?

A

Unless limited by statute, the President can fire any executive officer; federal judges removed only if impeached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the impeachment process?

A

President, VP, federal judges, and US officers can be impeached for treason, bribery, and high crimes & misdemeanors; requires majority House vote and 2/3 conviction in Senate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can a presidential pardon do?

A

Only for federal crimes, not state; only criminal liability, not civil; not for impeachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the veto process?

A

Within 10 days or pocket veto; no line item veto; 2/3 vote by House and Senate to override veto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does preemption refer to in federalism?

A

Supremacy Clause – US Constitution and laws/treaties made pursuant to it are supreme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the Dormant Commerce Clause state?

A

State or local law is unconstitutional if it places excessive burden on interstate commerce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the Privileges and Immunities Clause of Article IV state?

A

State may not deny citizens of other states the privileges and immunities it accords its own citizens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the limitations of the Privileges and Immunities Clause?

A

Corporations and aliens can’t sue under P&I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the standard for discrimination under the Dormant Commerce Clause?

A

Violation unless necessary to achieve substantial government interest and no less restrictive means to achieve objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the standard for discrimination under the Privileges and Immunities Clause?

A

Violation unless necessary to achieve important government interest and no less discriminatory than necessary to achieve objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the tax requirements under the Dormant Commerce Clause?

A
  • Substantial nexus to state
  • Fairly apportioned
  • Fair relationship to services or benefit provided
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is required for Qal provisions to apply to private entities?

A

Gov’t action is required before Qal provisions are applied to private entities

This occurs if there is excessive state financial entanglement or if the entity performs a public function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is entanglement in the context of government action?

A

Entanglement occurs when the gov’t authorizes, encourages, or facilitates activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

To whom does the Bill of Rights apply directly?

A

The Bill of Rights applies directly to the Federal Government only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the Bill of Rights apply to the states?

A

It applies to states through incorporation under the 14th Amendment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Rational Basis scrutiny?

A

Law must be rationally related to a legitimate gov’t interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Intermediate Scrutiny?

A

Law must be substantially related to an important gov’t interest and narrowly tailored to achieve that objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Strict Scrutiny?

A

Law must be necessary to achieve a compelling state interest and use the least restrictive means necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What constitutes Procedural Due Process?

A

Deprivation of life, liberty, or property if there is an entitlement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What factors are balanced in Procedural Due Process?

A
  1. Importance of interest to individual
  2. Ability of additional procedures to increase accuracy of fact finding
  3. Gov’t interest in fiscal & administrative efficiency.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What level of scrutiny applies to Economic Liberties?

A

Rational basis. Limited protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What scrutiny is applied to state/local law impacting existing contracts?

A

Intermediate scrutiny.

43
Q

What does the 5th Amendment state regarding Takings?

A

Private property may not be taken for public use without just compensation.

44
Q

What is a Possessory Taking?

A

Gov’t confiscation or physical occupation of property is always a taking.

45
Q

What defines a Regulatory Taking?

A

Decrease in property value because government regulation leaves no economically viable use for the property.

46
Q

What must a taking be related to?

A

It must be rationally related to a legitimate public purpose.

47
Q

What rights are considered Fundamental Rights?

A
  1. Contraception
  2. Procreation
  3. Right to Privacy
  4. Speech
  5. Parenting/Custody
  6. Extended family together
  7. Marriage
  8. First Amendment Rights
  9. Religion.
48
Q

What level of scrutiny is applied to abortion rights?

A

Rational basis review.

49
Q

What was the significance of Dobbs v. Jackson?

A

It overturned Roe v. Wade and determined abortion is not a fundamental right.

50
Q

Is there a constitutional right to refuse medical treatment?

A

Yes, but the level of scrutiny is uncertain.

51
Q

What must be balanced in the refusal of medical treatment?

A

State interests such as public health, safety, and human life.

52
Q

Which rights are stated as having no constitutional protection?

A
  1. Abortion
  2. Physician Assisted Suicide
  3. Practice of Trade
  4. Education.
53
Q

What is the evaluation criteria for a law denying rights based on classification?

A

Evaluated according to the type of classification.

54
Q

What are the constitutional sources for Equal Protection?

A
  1. State/Local → 14th Amendment
  2. Federal → 5th Amendment Due Process Clause.
55
Q

How can classifications be proven?

A
  1. Law is discriminatory on its face
  2. Demonstrate discriminatory impact + discriminatory intent.
56
Q

What level of scrutiny applies to RACE/NATIONAL ORIGIN classifications?

A

Strict Scrutiny.

57
Q

What are the requirements for set asides/quotas?

A

Requires clear proof of past discrimination and a congruent remedy.

58
Q

In college admissions, how can race be considered?

A

As a factor due to the compelling interest of diversity, but not through set asides.

59
Q

What level of scrutiny applies to Alienage?

A

Generally Strict Scrutiny, but Rational Basis if related to self-gov’t/democratic process.

60
Q

What level of scrutiny applies to Gender classifications?

A

Intermediate Scrutiny.

61
Q

What is the scrutiny level for Non-Marital Children?

A

Intermediate Scrutiny.

62
Q

What level of scrutiny is applied to the Right to Travel?

A

Strict Scrutiny.

63
Q

What level of scrutiny is applied to the Right to Vote?

A

Strict Scrutiny.

64
Q

What must ballot access regulations be?

A

Reasonable and non-discriminatory means of promoting an important state interest.

65
Q

What level of scrutiny applies to all other classifications?

A

Rational Basis (e.g., age, disability, wealth/econ, sexual orientation, education).

66
Q

What are the types of restrictions on speech?

A
  1. Content based → Strict Scrutiny
  2. Content Neutral → generally Intermediate Scrutiny.
67
Q

What are prior restraints?

A

Judicial order or administrative system stopping speech before it occurs.

68
Q

What is required for a Preliminary Injunction?

A
  1. Standard narrowly drawn, reasonable & definite
  2. Injunction promptly sought
  3. Prompt and final determination.
69
Q

What is required for licenses/permits?

A

Clear criteria and procedural safeguards like prompt determination of requests for licenses and judicial review.

70
Q

What makes regulations facially invalid?

A

Vagueness, overbreadth, and unfettered discretion.

71
Q

True or False: ‘Fighting words’ bans are considered valid.

72
Q

What is symbolic speech?

A

Conduct that communicates.

73
Q

What are the two tests for regulation of symbolic speech?

A
  1. Important state interest independent of suppression of message.
  2. Impact on communication no greater than necessary.
74
Q

Which types of symbolic speech are protected?

A

Flag burning.

75
Q

Which types of symbolic speech are not protected?

A

Draft card and nude dancing.

76
Q

What are the conditions for incitement of illegal activity to be punishable?

A
  1. Substantial likelihood of imminent illegal activity.
  2. Speech directed to causing imminent illegality.
77
Q

What is the test for obscenity?

A

PIPS: Prurient Interest, Patently Offensive, Serious Value.

78
Q

Fill in the blank: Child porn may be completely banned, even if not _______.

79
Q

When is profane and indecent language generally protected?

A

Except in broadcast media and criminal trials.

80
Q

What are public forums?

A

Parks, sidewalks, etc. where regulations must be subject matter and viewpoint neutral.

81
Q

What are designated public forums?

A

Government properties that are allowed open for speech.

82
Q

What are limited public forums?

A

Government properties limited to certain groups or topics.

83
Q

What defines non-public forums?

A

Military bases, outside prisons, and specific government properties.

84
Q

What is the standard for prohibiting or punishing group membership?

A

Strict scrutiny.

85
Q

What must be proven to punish group membership?

A
  1. Active affiliation with the group.
  2. Knowledge of illegal activities.
  3. Specific intent of furthering illegal activities.
86
Q

What does the Free Exercise Clause prohibit?

A

Punishment based on religious beliefs.

87
Q

What is the Lemon test associated with?

A

Establishment Clause.

88
Q

What is the standard for commercial speech?

A

Intermediate scrutiny.

89
Q

What is required for defamation cases involving public officials?

A

Must show falsity and actual malice.

90
Q

What is the requirement for defamation cases involving private figures?

A

If of public concern, must show falsity and negligence; if not of public concern, no malice necessary.

91
Q

What is the standard for access to government information?

A

Truthful public information has no restrictions if lawfully obtained.

92
Q

What is the government’s position on participation in religious activities?

A

Government can’t coerce individuals to participate.

93
Q

What is the consideration for public employment regarding employee speech?

A

Whether the matter is of public concern.

94
Q

True or False: Employees can be fired for party affiliation in any position.

95
Q

What is the highest level of scrutiny in equal protection cases?

A

Strict Scrutiny

Applied when a law discriminates based on race, national origin, or alienage.

96
Q

What must a law achieve to pass Strict Scrutiny?

A

Necessary to achieve compelling state interest

This applies to classifications like race, alienage, and voting.

97
Q

What are the classifications that fall under Intermediate Scrutiny?

A
  • Gender
  • Illegitimacy
  • Undocumented alien children

These classifications must be substantially related to an important government interest.

98
Q

What is the standard for Rational Basis scrutiny?

A

Rationally related to a legitimate government interest

This applies to classifications like age, disability, and wealth.

99
Q

What type of government property is a Public Forum?

A

Gov’t property that is historically open for speech

Examples include streets, sidewalks, and public parks.

100
Q

What test must laws meet in a Public Forum?

A

Subject and Viewpoint neutral

Must be narrowly tailored to serve important government interest.

101
Q

What distinguishes a Designated Public Forum from a Public Forum?

A

Gov’t property that could be closed to speech, but which government has chosen to open

Must also be subject and viewpoint neutral.

102
Q

What is a Limited Public Forum?

A

Gov’t property limited to certain groups or dedicated to discussion of limited topics

Must be viewpoint neutral and reasonably related to a legitimate government purpose.

103
Q

What is a Non-Public Forum?

A

Gov’t property that gov’t can and does close to speech

Must be viewpoint neutral and reasonably related to a legitimate government purpose.