Conflict of Laws Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Rendering State?

A

State handing down judgment.

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2
Q

What is the Recognizing State?

A

State called upon to recognize and enforce judgment.

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3
Q

What two types of judgments can be recognized?

A
  • Sister State judgments
  • Foreign Country judgments
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4
Q

What does Full Faith & Credit (FF&C) refer to?

A

Entitlement of a judgment to recognition and enforcement.

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5
Q

What are the three FF&C requirements?

A
  • Valid jurisdiction over both parties and subject matter
  • Judgment must be on the merits
  • Judgment must be final
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6
Q

What is a good defense against FF&C?

A
  • Judgment is penal
  • Judgment procured by extrinsic fraud
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7
Q

What are some bad defenses against FF&C?

A
  • Tax Judgment
  • Action based on cause of action violating public policy
  • Mistakes of fact or law
  • Inconsistent judgments
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8
Q

True or False: Federal and State Courts must recognize judgments from each other.

A

True

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9
Q

What grounds are foreign country judgments recognized on?

A

Same grounds as sister state judgments.

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10
Q

What two standards must be satisfied for recognizing foreign judgments?

A
  • Jurisdiction was proper
  • Fair procedures were used in earlier litigation
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11
Q

What are the requirements for a divorce decree to be recognized?

A
  • Proper Subject Matter Jurisdiction (SMJ)
  • At least one spouse must be domiciled where divorce granted
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12
Q

What are the requirements for alimony and child support awards?

A

Court granting must have Personal Jurisdiction (PJ) over the spouse affected.

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13
Q

Which court has jurisdiction over child custody awards?

A

Only the child’s home state.

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14
Q

What are the two requirements for domicile by choice?

A
  • Physical presence in a place
  • Intent to be domiciled in that place
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15
Q

What is domicile by operation of law?

A

A domicile assigned to someone lacking domicile capacity.

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16
Q

Who gets the domicile of parents in case of infants?

A

Infants get domicile of their parents.

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17
Q

What is the general question regarding choice of law?

A

Which state’s law governs if litigation involves multiple states with conflicting laws?

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18
Q

What must the forum court use to select the law?

A

Its choice of law approach.

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19
Q

What are the constitutional limitations on choice of law?

A

State must have significant contacts with and/or a legitimate interest in the litigation.

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20
Q

What does the Erie Doctrine state?

A

In Federal diversity cases, court must apply substantive law of the state where court is located.

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21
Q

What is Depecage?

A

Process of applying law of different states to decide different issues.

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22
Q

What is Renvoi?

A

Forum may apply state’s internal law and conflicts rule if it doesn’t like foreign law.

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23
Q

What is the traditional treatment of foreign law?

A

Law of any other state is treated as fact, not law.

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24
Q

What types of judgments are involved in the recognition and enforcement of family law judgments?

A
  • Divorce Decree
  • Alimony & Child Support Awards
  • Child Custody Awards
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25
Q

What is the general rule regarding judicial notice of sister state and federal law?

A

Most states take judicial notice of sister state and Fed law.

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26
Q

How is the treatment of foreign law divided among states?

A

Generally a matter for court, not jury.

27
Q

What law applies if both parties have the same domicile?

A

Apply that state’s law.

28
Q

What law is applied if the parties are from different states and the law of the place of the accident helps its citizens?

A

Apply that state’s law.

29
Q

What is the traditional vested rights approach?

A

For each substantive law area, there are ‘vesting’ rules regarding where P’s rights vest.

30
Q

Where do rights vest in torts?

A

Place of injury.

31
Q

Where do rights vest in contracts?

A

Place of contract formation.

32
Q

Where do rights vest in real property?

A

Situs of land.

33
Q

What does the most significant relationship approach consider?

A
  • Place of injury
  • Place of conduct causing injury
  • Place of home state
  • Place where relationship between parties centered.
34
Q

In contracts, what does the court apply according to the most significant relationship approach?

A

Law of the state most significantly related to the outcome of litigation.

35
Q

What is the general rule of the interest analysis approach?

A

Court applies its own law if it has a legitimate interest in the outcome of litigation.

36
Q

What happens in the case of a true conflict between different state laws?

A

Court seeks to identify which state has the greatest interest.

37
Q

What governs if there is a valid, express choice of law provision in a contract?

A

The provision governs unless invalid.

38
Q

What are the conditions under which a choice of law provision may be invalid?

A
  • Law selected has no reasonable relationship with the contract
  • No true mutual assent.
39
Q

According to the vested rights approach, where do contract performance issues vest?

A

Place of performance.

40
Q

What does the better rule approach consider?

A
  • Predictability
  • Maintenance of interstate and international order
  • Simplification of judicial task
  • Government interest
  • Application of better rule law.
41
Q

In torts, what is the situs for inter vivos transactions?

A

Situs at the time of transaction.

42
Q

What governs inheritance matters in personal property?

A

Domicile of decedent at time of death.

43
Q

What is the general rule regarding the validity of marriage?

A

If marriage valid where performed, valid everywhere.

44
Q

What is the exception to the general rule of marriage validity?

A

When domiciliaries of one state temporarily leave to marry elsewhere to avoid a prohibitory rule.

45
Q

Which law does the forum apply in divorce cases?

A

Its own divorce laws.

46
Q

What is the presumption regarding a child born out of wedlock?

A

Child is illegitimate unless mother is married.

47
Q

What governs the validity of subsequent acts of legitimation?

A

Law of father’s domicile.

48
Q

What is the modern approach to the validity of legitimation acts?

A

Valid if sufficient under law of either father’s or child’s domicile.

49
Q

What is a defense against proposed choice of law based on public policy?

A

Must be extremely offensive

Rarely accepted defense

50
Q

What types of law does the penal law defense apply to?

A

Only applies to offenses against public

51
Q

What happens if the law is procedural, not substantive?

A

Forum will apply its own law

Procedural laws include: burden of proof laws, statutes of limitation, ability to bring counterclaims, etc.

52
Q

What are the two exceptions to the general treatment of statutes of limitation as procedural?

A
  • Borrowing statutes
  • Statute conditions substantive rights
53
Q

What is the trend regarding statutes of limitation?

A

Treated as substantive matters

54
Q

In federal court due to diversity, what must be used?

A

State’s choice of laws rules

55
Q

What are the four circumstances under which federal preemption of state law occurs?

A
  • Express
  • Actual Conflict
  • Implied Conflict
  • Field Preemption
56
Q

What does express preemption entail?

A

Congress specifically prohibits states from enacting a law

57
Q

What characterizes actual conflict preemption?

A

State law in direct conflict with federal law

58
Q

What is implied conflict preemption?

A

Federal law itself established standard of federal preemption

59
Q

What is field preemption?

A

Conflict with federal treaty, foreign affairs, or tries to occupy area where Congress left no room

60
Q

How are default judgments treated for full faith and credit?

A

Considered ‘on the merits’

BUT, don’t give rise to collateral estoppel because no issues have been litigated yet.

61
Q

What does the Dram Shop Act (DSA) establish?

A

Statutory liability on vendor of liquor if drunk customer injures another

62
Q

What is the general rule regarding liability if liquor is served in a state without a DSA?

A

Ct generally won’t impose liability since D would be exempt

63
Q

What is a Springing Power of Attorney?

A

Instrument becomes effective only on the happening of specified future event

64
Q

What must the power-holder do for a Springing Power of Attorney to become effective?

A

Declare in writing that the event has occurred