Torts Flashcards

1
Q

What must P show to establish a case of battery?

A

1) a harmful or offensive contact, 2) to P’s person, 3) D’s intent, and 4) causation.

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2
Q

What are the elements required to prove assault?

A

1) an act by the D which causes reasonable apprehension in P, 2) of immediate harmful or offensive contact to P’s person, 3) D’s intent, and 4) causation.

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3
Q

What must P demonstrate to establish false imprisonment?

A

1) an act or omission by D that confines or restrains P, 2) to a bounded area, 3) D’s intent, and 4) causation. NOTE: P must be aware or harmed by confinement.

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4
Q

What are the requirements for intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)?

A

1) extreme and outrageous conduct by D, 2) intent or recklessness, 3) causation, and 4) severe emotional distress.

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5
Q

What must P establish for bystander IIED claims?

A

1) P present when injury occurred, 2) P is a close relative to V, and 3) D knew P was present and a close relative.

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6
Q

What elements must P show for trespass to land?

A

1) a physical invasion of P’s real property, 2) intent, and 3) causation. NOTE: Negligent or reckless entries only subject to liability if D causes harm to land.

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7
Q

What are the requirements for trespass to chattel?

A

1) an act by D that interferes with P’s right of possession in chattel, 2) intent, 3) causation, and 4) damages.

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8
Q

What must P demonstrate for conversion claims?

A

1) an act by D that interferes with P’s right of possession of chattel, 2) which is so serious that D must pay for chattel’s full value, 3) intent, and 4) causation.

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9
Q

What is the defense of consent in intentional torts?

A

Requires legal capacity. Can be express or implied.

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10
Q

What are the conditions for self-defense and defense of others?

A

Invasion is imminent or in progress; reasonable mistake does not negate; may use only proportionate force.

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11
Q

What are the criteria for a felony arrest without a warrant?

A

Police → reasonable grounds to believe felony was committed; Private → felony was actually committed and private person had reasonable grounds to believe person committed it.

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12
Q

What is the shopkeeper’s privilege?

A

Shopkeeper may detain for reasonable time and manner if reasonably believes person committed theft to conduct an investigation.

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13
Q

What is the public necessity defense?

A

To protect the community as a whole, it is an absolute defense for trespass and damages.

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14
Q

What is private necessity in the context of torts?

A

Protect one’s own interest only if the emergency is not of their own making. Only a defense for trespass.

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15
Q

What must P show to prove a prima facie case for common law defamation?

A

1) defamatory language, 2) of or concerning P, 3) publication by D to a third person, and 4) damages.

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16
Q

What additional requirements are there for defamation cases involving public concern?

A

1) falsity of the statement and 2) fault on D’s part.

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17
Q

What must a public figure prove in defamation cases?

A

Malice (D knowing of the falsity or acting in reckless disregard), in which case damages are presumed.

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18
Q

What must a private figure prove in defamation cases?

A

Negligence, in which case P must prove damages, or demonstrate malice, in which case damages are presumed.

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19
Q

What are the defenses to defamation?

A

1) Consent, 2) Truth, 3) Privilege: Absolute and Qualified.

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20
Q

What must P establish for appropriation of P’s picture or name?

A

An unauthorized use of P’s picture or name for D’s commercial advantage, unless newsworthy publication.

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21
Q

What is required to prove intrusion in invasion of privacy claims?

A

D’s act of prying or intruding into a private affair where P has a reasonable expectation of privacy would be objectionable to a reasonable person.

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22
Q

What must P show for false light claims?

A

D attributed to P certain views that P does not hold or actions that P did not take, which would be objectionable to a reasonable person under the circumstances.

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23
Q

What must P show for a public disclosure of private info to be objectionable?

A

Widespread dissemination of confidential info unless newsworthy publication.

This refers to the standard of objectionability in privacy torts.

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24
Q

What are the defenses to privacy torts?

A

Consent; Absolute and Qualified Privileges for disclosure and false light.

Truth is not a defense.

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25
Q

What are the elements required to prove Intentional Misrepresentation (Fraud)?

A
  • Affirmative misrepresentation of a material fact
  • D made the misrepresentation knowing or believing it was false
  • Induced P to act in reliance upon the misrepresentation
  • Justifiable reliance
  • Causation
  • Damages
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26
Q

What must P prove for Negligent Misrepresentation?

A
  • Misrepresentation by D in a business or professional capacity
  • Breach of duty toward P
  • Causation
  • Justifiable reliance
  • Damages
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27
Q

What are the elements required to prove Inducement of a Breach of Contract?

A
  • Existence of a valid contractual relationship between P and a third party
  • D’s knowledge of the relationship or expectancy
  • Intentional interference by D inducing breach or termination
  • Damages
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28
Q

What is a defense for Inducement of a Breach of Contract?

A

D’s own business interest or protection of interest.

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29
Q

What are the elements required to prove Malicious Prosecution?

A
  • Institution of criminal proceedings against P
  • Termination in P’s favor
  • Absence of probable cause for the prior proceedings
  • Improper purpose
  • Damages
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30
Q

What constitutes Abuse of Process?

A
  • Wrongful use of the legal process for an ulterior purpose
  • A definite act or threat against P to accomplish the ulterior purpose
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31
Q

What is the standard for Duty of Care in negligence?

A

Amount of care a reasonably prudent person would exercise under similar circumstances, considering superior skill, knowledge, and physical characteristics.

32
Q

What is the liability for children under 4 in negligence cases?

A

No liability.

33
Q

What duty is owed to children aged 4-18 in negligence cases?

A

Care of a child of similar age, intelligence, and experience under similar circumstances, unless engaged in adult activity.

34
Q

What is the standard of care owed by professionals?

A

Care of an average member of that profession in a similar community.

35
Q

What duty do common carriers and innkeepers owe?

A

A high degree of care and liable for even slight negligence if P is a passenger or guest.

36
Q

What duty does an auto driver owe to a guest?

A

Ordinary care, but may only be liable for reckless, tortious conduct for nonpaying passengers.

37
Q

What is the duty of care owed to undiscovered trespassers?

A

No duty of care, but no traps.

38
Q

What duty is owed to discovered trespassers?

A

Duty to warn of concealed unsafe conditions that may cause death or serious bodily harm if conditions are met.

39
Q

What is required for the Attractive Nuisance Doctrine to apply?

A
  • Dangerous condition present on land that owner is or should be aware
  • Owner knows or should know that kids frequent area
  • Condition likely to cause injury
  • Expense of remedy is slight versus risk
40
Q

What duty is owed to licensees?

A

Duty to warn of all known dangerous conditions.

41
Q

What is required for an invitee in terms of duty owed by the possessor?

A

Duty to protect invitees from all reasonably knowable dangerous conditions.

42
Q

What is the general duty of a lessor?

A

To warn of existing defects if aware that lessee will not discover them upon reasonable inspection.

43
Q

What must a vendor of realty disclose?

A

Concealed, unreasonably dangerous conditions not discoverable by reasonable inspection.

44
Q

What creates negligence per se?

A
  • Statute provides for a criminal penalty
  • Statute clearly defines the standard of conduct
  • Plaintiff is within the protected class
  • Statute designed to prevent type of harm suffered by plaintiff.
45
Q

What is the general duty to rescue?

A

Generally none, unless specific relationships exist.

46
Q

What is Res Ipsa Loquitur?

A

P lacks info of what D did wrong, but accident is routinely associated with negligence.

47
Q

What is the ‘But for’ test in actual causation?

A

Used to determine if the harm would not have occurred but for D’s actions.

48
Q

What is the standard for multiple defendants in causation?

A

Substantial factor test or shift burden of proof to D if causes are unascertainable.

49
Q

What is proximate cause in negligence law?

A

Key is foreseeability. If D is direct cause, result is foreseeable unless freakish and bizarre.

50
Q

What are the scenarios where D is liable for intervening causes?

A

D is always liable for intervening:
* medical negligence
* rescue negligence
* protection or reaction forces
* subsequent disease or accident.

51
Q

When is D not liable for intervening causes?

A

No liability if intervening force is a crime or intentional tort.

52
Q

What is the eggshell plaintiff rule?

A

You take P as you found P.

53
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

Minority of jxs → contributory negligent P is barred from recovery unless:
* wanton and willful misconduct
* D had last clear chance to avoid injuring P.

54
Q

What is assumption of the risk?

A

P knew of risk and voluntarily proceeded.

55
Q

What is comparative negligence?

A

P failed to take proper degree of care for their own safety. Jury assigns % of fault.

56
Q

What is pure comparative fault?

A

Strictly by the numbers.

57
Q

What is partial/modified comparative fault?

A

P recovers % only if fault is < 50%. Last clear chance does not apply.

58
Q

What are the requirements for negligent infliction of emotional distress?

A

P must show:
* D was negligent
* P was within zone of physical danger
* physical manifestation of that stress.

59
Q

What is the implied warranty of merchantability?

A

Goods are of average acceptable quality and generally fit for the ordinary purpose.

60
Q

What are the defenses to implied warranty of merchantability?

A

Assumption of risk; contributory negligence.

61
Q

What is the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

A

Seller knows or has reason to know the particular purpose, and buyer relies on seller.

62
Q

What is express warranty?

A

Affirmation of fact or promise that becomes basis of the bargain.

63
Q

What constitutes misrepresentation of fact?

A

SL if stmt was of material fact concerning quality or use of goods and seller intended to induce reliance.

64
Q

What must P prove for strict liability?

A

P must prove:
* existence of an absolute duty to make safe
* breach of duty
* actual and proximate cause of P’s injury
* damage to P’s person or property.

65
Q

When is strict liability applicable for injuries caused by animals?

A

Always SL if livestock or wild animals; no SL for domesticated animals unless D knew of vicious propensities.

66
Q

What are the criteria for ultra-hazardous activity to be considered SL?

A

P must prove:
* activity cannot be made safe given existing technology
* activity poses severe risk of harm
* activity is uncommon in the area.

67
Q

What is public nuisance?

A

Established if the community’s right to health, safety, or property interfered with to an unreasonable degree.

68
Q

What is private nuisance?

A

Established if P’s ability to use or enjoy property has been interfered with to a substantial and unreasonable degree.

69
Q

What is loss of consortium?

A

Claim for damages for loss of:
* domestic services
* companionship
* sexual intimacy.

70
Q

What is vicarious liability?

A

Arises out of specific relationships, such as employer/employee, hiring party/independent contractor, car owner/car driver, and parent/child.

71
Q

What must P prove for strict tort liability in product liability?

A

P must show:
* D was a merchant routinely dealing in goods of this type
* defective product
* existence of defect when product left D’s control
* P was making foreseeable use of the product.

72
Q

What is a manufacturing defect?

A

Product differs from others off the assembly line and failed to perform as safely as an ordinary consumer would expect.

73
Q

What is a design defect?

A

All products in the line are dangerous; D has duty to use alternative design if it’s safer, economical, and practical.

74
Q

What is joint and several liability?

A

Two or more negligent acts are proximate causes to injury. If indivisible, each D liable for entire amount; if divisible, each D liable for their identifiable portion.

75
Q

What is contribution in comparative contributions?

A

Typically relative to proportion of fault; minority → apportionment in equal shares.

76
Q

What is indemnity in comparative contributions?

A

Shifts entire loss between or among tortfeasors if by K, VL, strict products liability, or identifiable difference in degree of fault.