Contracts Flashcards

1
Q

What governs the sale of goods?

A

The UCC: UCC Art. 2 governs the sale of goods.

Applicable rules also apply to merchants.

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2
Q

What governs contracts other than the sale of goods?

A

The Common Law: Majority rules governing contracts other than the sale of goods.

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3
Q

How are mixed contracts determined?

A

By the more important part of the deal, except divided contracts where both UCC and common law rules may apply.

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4
Q

What is a unilateral contract?

A

An offer expressly required performance as a method for acceptance.

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5
Q

What characterizes divisible contracts?

A

Performance divided into 2+ parts under the contract; the number of parts due from each party is the same; performance between parties is equivalent.

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6
Q

What is an option contract?

A

An agreement to leave open in exchange for consideration.

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7
Q

How are advertisements generally treated in contract law?

A

Generally a preliminary proposal unless words are directed to an identifiable person.

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8
Q

What is a quasi-contract?

A

An equitable remedy when a contract results in unfairness, preventing unjust enrichment.

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9
Q

What are the three elements required for an enforceable contract?

A
  • Mutual assent (offer + valid acceptance)
  • Adequate consideration
  • No defenses to formation that invalidate the contract.
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10
Q

What are the requirements for a valid offer?

A
  • A manifestation of a present intent to contract
  • Definite and certain terms
  • Communicated to an identified offeree.
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11
Q

What is not required in a UCC sale of goods regarding the offer?

A

Price is not needed.

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12
Q

What is revocation in contract law?

A

An unambiguous statement by the offeror to the offeree or conduct indicating unwillingness to contract that the offeree is aware of.

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13
Q

What are the conditions under which an option contract cannot be revoked?

A

An option contract cannot be revoked.

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14
Q

What is a firm offer under UCC?

A

An offer that cannot be revoked for up to 3 months if it is a signed written promise to keep open and the party is a merchant.

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15
Q

What is detrimental reliance in contract law?

A

Cannot revoke if reasonably foreseeable detrimental reliance has occurred.

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16
Q

When does an offer become irrevocable?

A

Once performance has started.

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17
Q

What happens to an offer if it is rejected?

A

Counteroffers kill the original offer.

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18
Q

What is the mailbox rule?

A

Acceptance is effective when mailed; all else is effective when received.

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19
Q

What happens if a seller sends the wrong goods?

A

Unless with explanation, it is considered a counteroffer.

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20
Q

What is required for consideration in a contract?

A

A bargained-for exchange of legal detriment between parties.

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21
Q

What is past consideration in contract law?

A

Not adequate consideration, except when expressly requested performance/forbearance and expectation of payment.

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22
Q

What is an illusory promise?

A

An unenforceable promise because it is indefinite, only one side is obligated to perform, and it lacks adequate consideration.

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23
Q

What can substitute for consideration?

A
  • Written promise when prior obligation had applicable legal defense
  • Promissory estoppel.
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24
Q

Under what conditions is a promise not to sue adequate consideration?

A

If the promisor’s belief in the validity of the claim is reasonable or in good faith.

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25
Q

What is the legal capacity of a minor in contract law?

A

Under 18 has the right to disaffirm a contract unless the minor retains benefit after gaining capacity.

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26
Q

What happens to a contract if the subject matter is illegal?

A

The contract is void.

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27
Q

What is misrepresentation in contract law?

A

Innocent party may rescind if induced to enter a contract by fraudulent misrepresentation or non-fraudulent material misrepresentation.

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28
Q

What constitutes duress in contract law?

A

An improper threat and no reasonable alternative.

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29
Q

What is unconscionability in contract law?

A

Unfair and oppressive terms at the time of the contract.

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30
Q

What is ambiguity in contract terms?

A

Each party uses a material term open to two reasonable interpretations.

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31
Q

What is a mutual mistake in contract law?

A

No contract if there is a mutual mistake on a basic assumption of fact that materially affects the agreed-upon exchange.

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32
Q

What does the Statute of Frauds apply to?

A

MY LEGS: Marriage, Year (contract cannot be performed within 1 year), Land, Executory.

33
Q

What is required for a suretyship to be enforceable?

A

Satisfy by performance, writing, or judicial admission

In real estate, part performance requires 2 out of 3 of the following: payment, possession, or improvements.

34
Q

What elements must be included in a writing for a non-UCC contract?

A
  • Parties
  • Subject matter
  • Terms & conditions
  • Consideration
  • Signature

UCC requires quantity terms and signature unless there is a confirmatory memo of an oral contract and no objection within 10 days.

35
Q

What is the Parol Evidence Rule?

A

If a contract is completely integrated, no evidence of agreements outside the contract is allowed

A merger clause states that the agreement is the complete agreement between parties.

36
Q

What are the three types of conduct in contract interpretation?

A
  • Course of performance
  • Course of dealing
  • Custom and usage
37
Q

What does FOB stand for in contract terms?

A

Free on board

Indicates the location where the risk of loss shifts from seller to buyer.

38
Q

Under a shipment contract, when does the risk of loss transfer to the buyer?

A

When the seller delivers to the carrier

In a destination contract, risk of loss transfers when the seller delivers to the buyer.

39
Q

In the absence of an agreement, when does the risk of loss transfer for a merchant seller?

A

On receipt of goods

For a non-merchant seller, risk of loss transfers upon tender.

40
Q

What constitutes an express warranty under UCC?

A

Seller is liable for breach based on statements of fact, promises, or description of goods.

41
Q

What is the Implied Warranty of Merchantability?

A

Goods must be fit for ordinary purposes and seller must know of the buyer’s purpose and reliance.

42
Q

What is a breach of contract?

A

Occurs when a party refuses to perform under the terms of the agreement.

43
Q

What is the perfect tender rule?

A

In the sale of goods, seller’s performance must be perfect or the buyer can reject.

44
Q

What options does a seller have upon rejection of goods?

A
  • Retain and sue for damages
  • Reject all of a commercial unit and sue for damages
45
Q

What is the cure provision in contract law?

A

Seller has a second chance at perfect tender if they had reasonable grounds to believe delivery would be accepted or if the time to perform has not expired.

46
Q

When can a buyer reject an installment in an installment contract?

A

Only if there is a substantial impairment that cannot be cured.

47
Q

What constitutes acceptance of goods by the buyer?

A

If the buyer accepts goods, they cannot later reject them. Payment does not equal acceptance without the opportunity to inspect.

48
Q

What are the conditions under which a buyer can revoke acceptance of goods?

A
  • Nonconformity substantially impairs value
  • Excusable ignorance of grounds for revocation
  • Revocation within reasonable time after discovering nonconformity
49
Q

What excuses performance under contract law?

A
  • Improper performance by the other party
  • Non-occurrence of condition
  • Anticipatory repudiation
50
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation in contract law?

A

A promisor makes clear and unequivocal repudiation of promise.

51
Q

What options does the non-repudiating party have in the event of repudiation?

A
  • Immediately sue for damages
  • Suspend performance and wait for performance date to sue
  • Treat repudiation as an offer to rescind
52
Q

What is rescission in contract law?

A

Cancellation of the contract only if performance is not completed.

53
Q

What is accord and satisfaction?

A

Mutual agreement of existing obligation to accept different performance.

54
Q

What is modification in contract law?

A

A mutual agreement to accept a different agreement to satisfy an existing contract.

55
Q

What is novation?

A

Mutual agreement to substitute an existing party with another, excusing performance of the substituted party.

56
Q

What is impossibility in contract law?

A

A situation where a contract cannot be performed due to damage, destruction, death, or subsequent law or regulation.

57
Q

What does impracticability refer to in contract law?

A

A situation where a contract cannot be performed without extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense.

58
Q

What is frustration of purpose?

A

An unforeseeable supervening event destroys the purpose of the contract.

59
Q

What is specific performance?

A

A non-monetary remedy typically limited to real estate and sale of unique goods, but never for services.

Requires a valid contract, conditions satisfied, inadequacy of legal remedies, mutuality, and feasibility of enforcement.

60
Q

What does rescission do?

A

Cancels a contract.

Requires grounds for rescission such as mutual mistake or unilateral mistake with undue hardship.

61
Q

What is reformation in contract law?

A

Changes a written agreement to conform to the parties’ original understanding.

Requires a valid contract and grounds for reformation, with no negligence, Statute of Frauds (SoF), or Parol Evidence Rule (PER).

62
Q

What is reclamation?

A

The right of an unpaid seller to get goods back.

Only applicable if the buyer was insolvent at the time of receipt and the seller makes a demand for return within 10 days or a reasonable time.

63
Q

What are the rights of a good faith purchaser in entrustment?

A

Cuts off the right of the original owner if the owner entrusts goods to a person who sells that kind of good and that person wrongfully sells to a third party.

64
Q

What is expectation interest?

A

A monetary damage that puts the plaintiff in the position as if the contract wasn’t breached.

65
Q

What is reliance interest?

A

A monetary damage that puts the plaintiff in the same financial position as if the contract had not been breached.

66
Q

What does restitution interest aim to do?

A

Prevents the defendant’s unjust enrichment.

67
Q

How is damages calculated for sale of goods if the seller breaches and the buyer keeps the goods?

A

The difference between the value of goods delivered and the fair market value had they been perfect.

68
Q

What are incidental damages?

A

Costs incurred for finding a replacement.

69
Q

What are foreseeable consequential damages?

A

Damages from the plaintiff’s special circumstances, only if the defendant had reason to know of those circumstances.

70
Q

What is the plaintiff’s duty regarding avoidable damages?

A

The plaintiff must mitigate damages.

71
Q

What is liquidated damages?

A

A predetermined amount of damages fixed in a contract.

Valid if actual damages would be difficult to ascertain if a breach occurs and are reasonable at the time of contract formation.

72
Q

What defines a third party beneficiary?

A

Only intended third party beneficiaries have rights under a contract, while incidental third party beneficiaries do not.

73
Q

What happens to a contract after a third party beneficiary’s rights have vested?

A

No cancellation or modification can occur by either party.

74
Q

What is the significance of assignment language in contracts?

A

If a contract states ‘Rights under this K are not assignable,’ the assignment is still valid.

75
Q

What is a gratuitous assign?

A

An assignment that can be revoked; the last gratuitous assign wins.

76
Q

What is required for an assignment for consideration?

A

No recovery from the obligor, and the assignor implies warranty that the right exists.

77
Q

What are the conditions for delegation of duties?

A

Allowed unless the contract prohibits it, calls for special skills, or has a very special reputation.

78
Q

Who remains liable if a delegated party fails to perform?

A

The delegating party always remains liable.

79
Q

When is a delegatee liable?

A

Only if they receive consideration from the delegating party.