Wiley Plus MC Test #1 Flashcards
1
Q
This is the study of the functions of body structures.
a. Anatomy
b. Physiology
c. Dissection
d. Histology
e. Immunology
A
b) Physiology
2
Q
This is defined as a group of cells with similar structure and function.
a. Tissue
b. Organ
c. Molecules
d. Compounds
e. Organism
A
a) Tissue
3
Q
Using a. Auscultation your fingers to find your pulse on your wrist is an example of b. Palpation c. Responsiveness d. Gross anatomy e. Physiologist
A
b) Palpation
4
Q
Percussion techniques can be used to determine
a. Heart beats
b. Pulse rate
c. Amplify sounds
d. Fluid in the lungs
e. Enlarged organs
A
d) Fluid in the lungs
5
Q
This is the sum of all cellular processes that occur in the body.
a. Metabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Catabolism
d. Auscultation
e. Palpation
A
a) Metabolism
6
Q
This is the regulation of body conditions within normal limits.
a. Palpation
b. Percussion
c. Homeostasis
d. Autopsy
e. Histology
A
c) Homeostasis
7
Q
The systems that provide homeostasis are:
a. Cardiovascular and Integumentary
b. Nervous system and Endocrine
c. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems
d. Respiratory and muscular systems
e. Urinary and integumentary systems
A
b) nervous system and endocrine
8
Q
This body fluid directly affects the proper functioning of cells.
a. Lymph
b. Blood
c. Interstitial fluid
d. Aqueous humor
e. Vitreous body
A
c) Interstitial Fluid
9
Q
This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center.
a. Receptor
b. Body fluids
c. Brain
d. Effector
e. Afferent
A
d) Effector
10
Q
This is the structure of a feedback system that provides input to the control center.
a. Receptor
b. Muscle
c. Brain
d. Effector
e. Efferent
A
a) Receptor
11
Q
A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be:
a. Childbirth
b. Body temperature
c. Blood pressure
d. Heart rate
e. Blood sugar
A
a) Childbirth
12
Q
This is a change in body function that can be measured objectively.
a. Symptom
b. Disorder
c. Disturbance d. Disease
e. Sign
A
e) Sign
13
Q
In which cavity is the brain located?
a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity
A
a) Cranial Cavity
14
Q
In which cavity are the lungs located?
a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity
A
e) Pleural Cavity
15
Q
In which cavity is the stomach located?
a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity
A
c) Abdominal Cavity
16
Q
This cavity is inferior to the abdominopelvic cavity.
a. Vertebral canal
b. Cranial cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pelvic cavity
A
e) Pelvic Cavity
17
Q
Which cavity would include the heart?
a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity
A
d) Pericardial Cavity
18
Q
The function of the secretions of the serous membrane is to:
a. Separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities
b. Protect the central nervous system
c. Prevent infection
d. Reduce friction between organs
e. Carry nervous impulses
A
d) Reduce Friction Btw organs
19
Q
This plane divides the body into right and left halves. a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Transverse d. Oblique
e. Coronal
A
b) Sagital
20
Q
This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Transverse d. Oblique
e. Midsagittal
A
a) Frontal
21
Q
A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into
a. Anterior and posterior
b. Left and right
c. Superior and inferior
d. At an angle
e. Unequal left and right sides
A
c) Superior and Inferior
22
Q
This directional term means farthest from the midline. a. Medial
b. Anterior
c. Proximal d. Deep
e. Lateral
A
e) Lateral
23
Q
This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure.
a. Deep
b. Contralateral c. Lateral
d. Cephalic
e. Distal
A
e) Distal
24
Q
This directional term is the opposite of deep. a. Superficial
b. Superior c. Inferior d. Distal
e. Proximal
A
a) Superficial
25
# Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the liver.
a. Inferior
b. Anterior
c. Contralateral d. Superior
e. Superficial
d) Superior
26
Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct: The sternum is ____ to the heart.
a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Inferior d. Superior e. Lateral
b) Anterior
27
Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity? a. Stomach
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Gallbladder e. Diaphragm
e) Diaphragm
28
```
This covers the viscera within the thoracic and abdominal cavities and lines the
walls of the thorax and abdomen.
a. Pericardium
b. Pleura
c. Mediastinum
d. Diaphragm
e. Serous membrane
```
e) Serous membrane
29
The liver is ______ to the sternum. a. Lateral
b. Medial c. Proximal d. Distal
e. Superior
a) lateral
30
The stomach is ____ to the bladder. a. Lateral
b. Medial c. Distal
d. Inferior e. Superior
e) Superior
31
The humerus is _____ to the scapula. a. Proximal
b. Distal
c. Medial d. Superior e. Anterior
b) Distal
32
What are the major elements found in the body?
a. Nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium
b. Hydrogen, carbon, phosphorus, calcium
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
d. Oxygen, nitrogen, potassium, calcium
e. Potassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen
c) C, H, O, N
33
Which of the following particles has a neutral charge?
a. Neutron
b. Electron
c. Proton
d. All of the above
a) Neutron
34
What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons? a. Cloud
b. Nucleus c. Element d. Ring
e. Shell
b) nucleus
35
This is the number of protons or electrons.
a. Mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Isotope
d. Valence shell
e. None of the above
b) Atomic Number
36
As an atoms nucleus decays, it will emit radiation. This is seen in a. Compounds
b. Cations
c. Anions
d. Isotopes e. Molecules
d) Isotopes
37
This refers to the atomic weight of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element.
a. Mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Atomic mass
d. Ionic mass
e. Covalent mass
c) Atomic Mass
38
Which of the following particles plays a role in creating chemical bonds? a. Neutron
b. Electron
c. Proton
d. All of the above
b) Electron
39
This is a negatively charged atom.
a. Superoxide
b. Isotope
c. Catalyst
d. Ion
e. V alence
d) Ion
40
Which of the below provide an electrical current?.
a. Isotope
b. Ionic molecule
c. Compound
d. Electrolyte
e. V alence molecule
d) Electrolyte
41
This type of bond requires a sharing of electrons. a. Covalent
b. Ionic
c. Hydrogen d. Atomic
e. Electronic
a) Covalent
42
This is the type of bond between the atoms forming water
a. Nonpolar covalent
b. Polar covalent
c. Hydrogen
d. Ionic
e. Atomic
b) Polar Covalent
43
Which of the following bonds provides the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA?
a. Nonpolar covalent
b. Polar covalent
c. Hydrogen
d. Ionic
e. Atomic
c) Hydrogen
44
This occurs when new bonds form or old bonds break between atoms.
a. Ions
b. Electrolytes
c. Isotopes
d. Chemical reaction
e. Compounds
d) Chemical Reaction
45
This is defined as the capacity to do work. a. Metabolism
b. Electrolytes
c. Chemical reaction
d. Concentration
e. Energy
e) Energy
46
This type of reaction will absorb more energy that it releases. a. Exergonic
b. Endergonic c. Potential
d. Kinetic
e. Activation
b) Endergonic
47
An enzyme acts to
a. Raise the activation energy needed
b. Lower the activation energy needed
c. Convert the activation energy into potential
d. Convert the activation energy into kinetic
e. Break a chemical reaction
b) Lower the activation energy needed
48
This type of reaction will combine reactants to produce larger products. a. Synthesis
b. Decomposition c. Potential
d. Exchange
e. Activated
a) Synthesis
49
This type of reaction will break larger reactants to produce smaller products. a. Synthesis
b. Decomposition c. Potential
d. Exchange
e. Activated
b) Decomposition
50
This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body.
a. Water
b. Oxygen gas
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Glucose
e. DNA
a) Water
51
A solute that dissolves in water is. a. Hydrophobic
| b. Hydrostatic c. Hydroamoure d. Hydrophillic e. Hydrozone
d) Hydrophillic
52
In a typical body solution, the solvent is.
a. Glucose
b. Lipids
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water
e. Electrolyte
d) Water
53
A solution with a pH value smaller than 7 would be a(n) a. Base
b. Salt
c. Acid
d. alkaline
e. concentrate
c) Acid
54
A substance that adds or removes Hydrogen ions from a solution is a(n) a. Base
b. Salt
c. Acid
d. alkaline e. buffer
e) Buffer
55
Which of the following is considered a proton donor?
a. Acid
b. Base
c. Salt
d. Organic compound
e. Colloid
a) Acid
56
These are specific arrangements of atoms that confer characteristic chemical properties upon organic molecules.
a. Acids
b. Bases
c. Carbons
d. Functional groups
e. Isomers
d) Functional Groups
57
Glucose and fructose both have the chemical formula C6H12O6 so they are considered
a. Isotopes b. Isometrics c. Isolates
d. Isomers
e. Isotonics
d) Isomers
58
Which of the following is a monosaccaride that is important in producing energy. a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Lactose
d. Ribose
e. Deoxyribose
a) Glucose
59
The major energy storage polysaccharide in humans is a. Cellulose
b. Ribose
c. Lipids
d. Fats
e. Glycogen
e) Glycogen
60
This type of triglyceride contains more than one double bond in the fatty acid carbon atoms.
a. Saturated
b. Monounsaturated c. Polyunsaturated d. Acylglycerols
e. Lipoprotein
c) Polyunsaturated
61
This type of lipid is the body’s long term energy storage molecule. a. Steroid
b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride
e. Lipoprotein
d) Triglyceride
62
This type of lipid is used by the body to create hormones. a. Cellulose
b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride e. Lipoprotein
c) Cholesterol
63
Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids?
a. They contain an glycerol backbone
b. The head group is polar
c. The molecule is an important part of cell membranes
d. The tail groups are nonpolar
e. They are a major energy storage lipid
e) They are a major energy storage lipid
64
Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are considered:
a. Amphipathic
b. Both Lipids and Eicosanoids
c. Eicosanoids
d. All of the above
d) All of the above
65
```
The primary structure of a protein contains a. Alpha helix
Essay
b. Beta-pleated sheets
c. Substrates
d. Amino acids
e. All of the above
```
d) Amino Acids
66
Which of the following is a purine? a. Cytosine
b. Guanine c. Thymine d. Ribose
e. Phosphate
b) Guanine
67
Which is the function of RNA?
a. Produce electrical impulses
b. storage of energy
c. transfer information for protein synthesis
d. store information for protein synthesis
e. transport of fluids
c) Transfer info for protein synthesis
68
Which is the function of DNA?
a. Produce chemical signals
b. storage of energy
c. transfer information for protein synthesis
d. store information for protein synthesis
e. transport of electrolytes
d) Store information for protein synthesis
69
Which is the function of ATP?
a. Produce electrical impulses
b. Transfers energy for cell functions
c. transfer information for protein synthesis
d. store information for protein synthesis
e. transport of fluids
b) transfers energy for cell functions
70
What monomer is used to build RNA and DNA? a. fatty acid
b. amino acid c. Glucose
d. glycerol
e. nucleotide
e) Nucleotide
71
What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell? a. Plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b. Plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus
c. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles d. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
e. Plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles
d) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
72
Plasma membranes consist of what three components?
a. Phospholipids, glycoproteins, water
b. Proteins, cholesterol, fatty acids
c. Cholesterol, fatty acids, glycolipids
d. Proteins, phospholipids, cholesterol
e. Water, proteins, fatty acids
d) Proteins, Phospholipids, Cholesterol
73
What are the nonpolar parts of a phospholipid? a. Head group
b. Tail group
c. Both are nonpolar
d. Neither are nonpolar
b) Tail Group
74
his portion of the cell membrane enables cell membranes to produce chemical products. .
a. Receptors
b. Phospholipids c. Cholesterol
d. Enzymes
e. Ligand
d) Enzymes
75
Which of the following is a function of a membrane protein that binds with hormones and neurotransmitters?
a. Transporters
b. Receptors
c. Enzymes
d. Linkers
e. Cell Identification markers
b) Receptors
76
This type of membrane protein helps to anchor proteins in the plasma membrane of neighboring cells to one another.
a. Transporters
b. Receptors
c. Ligand
d. Ion channels
e. Linkers
e) Linkers
77
he characteristic of plasma membranes allowing only some substances to move through is known as...
a. Selective permeability
b. Concentration gradient
c. Electrical gradient
d. Solubility
e. Transportation
a)
78
Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion?
a. Steepness of the concentration gradient
b. Mass of the diffusing substance
c. Charge of the diffusing substance
d. Amount of ATP available
e. Temperature
d)
79
This is a measure of a solutions ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content.
a. Hyperness
b. Hyponess
c. Tonicity
d. Pressure
e. Facilitation
c)
80
This is the transport process by which gases move through a membrane.
a. Osmosis
b. Active transport
c. Secondary active transport
d. Simple diffusion
e. Endocytosis
d)
81
In this type of transport process a solute, like Glucose, binds to a specific transporter protein on one side of the membrane and is released on the other side after the transporter protein undergoes a change in shape.
a. Osmosis
b. Active transport
c. Secondary active transport
d. Facilitated diffusion e. Endocytosis
d) Facilitated Diffusion
82
In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a. Primary active transport
b. Secondary active transport
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Passive diffusion
e. Osmosis
a) Primary Active Transport
83
If the solute concentration is greater in the solution on the inside of the cell, compared to the solute concentration of the solution that is outside the cell, then what direction will water move?
a. into the cell
b. out of the cell
c. no movement
a) into the cell
84
In this transport process, the energy stored in Na+ or H+ concentration gradient is used to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a. Primary active transport
b. Secondary active transport
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Passive diffusion
e. Osmosis
b)
85
This is a transport process by which cells secrete materials, within vesicles, into the extracellular fluid.
a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Active transport
d. Diffusion
e. Osmosis
b)
86
This is a transport process by which cells take up extracellular substances within vesicles..
a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Active transport
d. Diffusion
e. Osmosis
a)
87
This is an extension of the plasma membrane that will surround a particle outside the cell forming a vesicle.
a. Phagocyte
b. Exterior vesicle
c. Interior vesicle
d. Pseudopod
e. Pinocytosis
d)
88
The function of the cytosol is.
a. A TP production
b. Location of chemical reactions
c. Production of polypeptides
d. Digestion of decomposing proteins
e. Protection of nuclear material
b)
89
These perform special functions in cellular growth, maintenance and reproduction.
a. organelles
b. cytoskeletom c. cytoplasm
d. cytosol
e. nucleus
a)
90
This organelle is comprised of microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules.
a. cytoskeleton b. cytoplasm
c. cilia
d. flagella
e. ribosome
a)
91
This is comprised of a pair of centrioles and pericentriolar materials. a. cytoskeleton
b. cilia
c. centrosome d. flagella
e. peroxisomes
c)
92
This organelle contains ribosomes, which synthesis proteins
a. rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. cytosol
c. nucleus
d. centriole
e. mitochondria
a)
93
This is an organelle that modifies proteins produced elsewhere.
a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi body
c. peroxisomes
d. nucleus
e. proteasome
b) Golgi
94
These are small flattened curved membranous sacs with bulging edges. a. secretory vessels
b. membrane vessels c. cisternae
d. cis face
e. trans face
c)
95
Which organelle oxidizes organic molecules? a. peroxisomes
b. mitochondria c. proteasome d. ribosomes
e. lysosomes
a)
96
Which organelle recycles worn out organelles? a. peroxisomes
b. mitochondria c. proteasome d. ribosomes
e. lysosomes
e)
97
Proteasomes
a. Perform extracellular digestion
b. Perform autophagy
c. Perform autolysis
d. Degrade faulty cellular proteins
e. Degrade A TP
d)
98
Mitochondria
a. move the cell
b. generate A TP
c. produce proteins
d. oxidize organells
e. synthesize glycolipids
b) Generate ATP
99
Which of the following protects the contents of the nucleus?
a. Nucleic acids
b. nuclear membrane
c. nuclear centrosome
d. cilia
e. golgi apparatus
b) nuclear membrane
100
What is the major function of a histone protein? a. For helix shape
b. Adds a charge to DNA
c. Help organize coiling of DNA d. Degrade proteins
e. Enzymatic effect
c)
101
This is a long molecule of DNA that contains genes-there are 46 in each body cell.
a. chromatin
b. chromatid
c. chromosome d. centromere e. centrosome
c)
102
This is the set of rules that, relating the base triplet sequence of DNA to the corresponding codons of RNA, specifies a sequence of amino acids.
a. gene expression
b. genomics
c. anticodons
d. genetic code
e. protein synthesis
d)
103
This binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it is incorporated into a protein during translation.
a. mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. DNA e. cDNA
c)
104
This portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein. a. RNA
b. Intron
c. Exon
d. Polyribosome e. Ribosome
b)
105
This process is division of the cytoplasm. a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. cytokinesis d. cytosol
e. centrioles
c)
106
During which phase do organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begin? a. Interphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase
a)
107
Normally how long does the G2 phase last?
a. 8 hours
b. 4-6 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 24 hours
e. 1day
b)
108
During this phase the chromatin fibers condense and shorten into chromosomes that are visible under the microscope.
a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase
b)
109
The function of mitosis is a. production of gametes b. create more cilia
c. form flagella
d. production of proteins e. production of new cells
e)
110
During this phase a cleavage furrow forms. a. Interphase
| b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase
d)
111
Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
a. epithelial b. connective c. myocardial d. muscle
e. nervous
c)
112
This type of cell junction anchors adjacent cells and resists their separation during contractile activities.
a. tight and hemidesmosome
b. gap and tight
c. adherens and desmosome
d. desmosome and gap
e. hemidesmosome and tight
c)
113
```
This is a thin extracellular layer, that commonly consists of basal lamina and reticular lamina, that is found in epithelial tissues.
a. basement membrane
b. epithelial cells
c. connective tissue
d. vascular tissue

e. gap junctions
```
a)
114
Epithelial tissue
a. Is used as a covering
b. Is used as a lining
c. Is used in glands
d. Has a free surface
e. All of the above
e)
115
```
This tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.

a. Simple squamous epithelial
b. Simple cuboidal epithelial
c. Stratified squamous epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Simple columnar epithelial
```
a)
116
This tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
a. Simple squamous epithelial
b. Simple cuboidal epithelial
c. Stratified squamous epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Simple columnar epithelial
C)
117
This tissue forms glands.
a. Simple squamous epithelial
b. Areolar connective tissue
c. Stratified squamous epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Transitional epithelial
d)
118
This tissue lines the respiratory tract and the fallopian tubes.
a. Simple cuboidal epithelial
b. Simple columnar epithelial
c. Stratified columnar epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Transitional epithelial
b)
119
```
These
a. Unicellular glands
are categorized by whether the ducts are branched or unbranched.
b. Multicellular glands
c. Endocrine glands
d. Exocrine glands
e. All of the above
```
b)
120
This type of multicellular gland branching has a rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.
a. Simple coiled tubular
b. Compound tubular
c. Compound tuboloacinar
d. Simple branched acinar
e. Simple branched tubular
d)
121
Simple tubular multicellular branching has
a. The tubular secretory portion straight and attaches to a single unbranched duct.
b. The tubular secretory part coiled and attaches to a single unbranched duct
c. The secretory part is rounded and attaches to a single unbranched duct
d. Rounded secretory part is branched and attaches to a single unbranched
duct.
e. None of the above
a)
122
How are exocrine glands classified?
a. Based on shape
b. Based on size
c. Based on how their secretion is released
d. Based on how they synthesize their secretion
e. All of the above
c)
123
This type of exocrine gland accumulates their product in their cytosol.
a. Apocrine
b. Exocrine
c. Holocrine
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
c)
124
In connective tissue, the matrix consists of
a. Protein based enzymes and organelles
b. Plasma membranes and ground substance
c. Blood cells and protein fibers
d. Calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes
e. Protein fibers and ground substance
e)
125
Connective tissues do NOT include
a. Bone
b. Blood cells
c. Cartilage
d. tendons
e. Liver cells
e)
126
This component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers and is used for support and as a medium for chemical reactions.
a. Matrix
b. Formed elements
c. Ground substance
d. Basement membrane
e. Plasma membrane
c)
127
Common polysaccharides found in ground substance include
a. Hyaluronic acid
b. Melatonin
c. Cholesterol
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a)
128
Which fibers are seen in embedded in the matrix of connective tissue?
a. Elastic
b. Reticular
c. Collagen
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d)
129
Reticular fibers help form this, which is used as a supporting framework for many soft organs.
a. Matrix
b. Ground substance
c. Basement membrane
d. Stroma
e. Visceral layer
d)
130
Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
a. Blood
b. Bone tissue
c. Areolar connective tissue
d. Elastic tissue
e. Hyaline connective tissue
c)
131
```
Where is the most common location for adipose tissue?
a. Subcutaneous layer deep to skin
b. Lining bones
c. Covering brain
d. Inside ear canal
Essay
e. Cartilage
```
a)
132
Dense connective tissues main function is
a. Storage of mineral
b. Forms stroma of organs
c. Reducing heat loss
d. Strong attachment between structures
e. Aids in elasticity
d)
133
This type of connective tissue is used mainly for support within the skeletal system.
a. Adipose
b. Elastic
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Dense irregular
e. Reticular
c)
134
What is the basic unit of compact bone tissue? a. osteon
b. stroma
c. lamellae
d. chromosome e. lacunae
a)
135
Spongy bone lacks a. Lamellae
b. Lacunae
c. Osteocytes d. Osteons
e. Blood
d)
136
The matrix in blood tissue is
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Plasma
d. Platelets
e. Albumin
c)
137
What is NOT an epithelial membrane in the human body? a. Mucous membrane
b. Serous membrane
c. Cutaneous membrane
d. Endocardium membrane
d)
138
This type of membrane lines a body cavity that does NOT open directly to the outside.
a. Cutaneous b. Serous
c. Mucous
d. Basement e. Connective
b)
139
These are immature, undifferentiated cells that can divide to replace lost or damaged cells.
a. Stem cells
b. Parenchyma
c. Fibrosis
d. Granular tissue
e. Adhesions
a)
140
Which of the below tissues is small, spindle shaped and found in the walls of hollow organs?
a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle
b)
141
Which of the below tissues has more than one nucleus and is voluntary? a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle
a)
142
Which cells are excitable and, therefore, able to carry electrical impulses? a. neuroglial and muscular
b. muscular and connective
c. neuroglial and nervous
d. nervous and epithelial e. muscular and nervous
e)
143
This is another name for the subcutaneous layer. a. Dermis
b. Epidermis c. Corpuscle d. Basale
e. Hypodermis
e)
144
This layer is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous e. Corpuscle
a)
145
Keratin
a. Is a protein
b. Helps protect the bone from viruses
c. Is a protein that is made of melanocytes
d. Bothaandc
e. All of the above
a)
146
This pigment absorbs ultraviolet light. a. Keratin
| b. Melanin c. Melatonin d. Carotene e. Nigrosin
b)
147
This epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance.
a. Langerhans
b. Keratinocytes
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Corpuscle
a)
148
This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum
a)
149
This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis.
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum
c)
150
The stratum lucidum
a. Contains lamellar granules
b. Lies just superficially to stratum basale
c. Is the layer used in a skin graft
d. Is present only in thick skin
e. Consists of 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.
d)
151
```
Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus which is
the thickening of which layer?
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum
```
e)
152
Keratinization
a. Is the process of synthesizing pigment in the skin
b. Is the process of cells accumulating keratin
c. Is only seen in thin skin
d. Is the process of synthesizing pigment and accumulating keratin
e. None of the above
b)
153
This layer is composed mainly of connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers.
a. Hypodermis
b. Basement membrane
c. Epidermis
d. Dermis
e. Hypodermis
d)
154
Which of the following plays an important role in thermoregulation?
a. Merkel cell
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Sweat gland
d. Nail
e. Fingerprint
c)
155
This skin structure act to prevent water loss as well as inhibiting bacterial growth on the surface of the skin.
a. Thick skin
b. nails
c. Sweat glands
d. Hair
e. Oil glands
e)
156
This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.
a. Alopecia
b. V ellus
c. Lanugo
d. Papilla
e. Hair follicles
c)
157
This type of gland is a branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
a. Sebaceous
b. Sudoriferous
c. Both sebaceous and sudoriferous
d. None of the above
a)
158
This is a mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins and inorganic salts.
a. Sweat
b. Lanugo
c. V ellus
d. Sebum
e. Mucous
d)
159
```
This type of gland is a coiled tubular gland found almost throughout the entirety
of the a. b. c. d. e.
skin.
Sebaceous Eccrine Appocrine Ceruminous
None of the above
```
Eccrine
160
In this type of scarring, the scar tissue extends beyond the boundary of the injury into normal tissue.
a. Hypertrophic b. Keloid
c. Proliferative d. Inhibitory
e. Granulatory
b)
