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A&P-RN > Wiley Plus MC Test #1 > Flashcards

Wiley Plus MC Test #1 Flashcards

1
Q

This is the study of the functions of body structures.

a. Anatomy
b. Physiology
c. Dissection
d. Histology
e. Immunology

A

b) Physiology

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2
Q

This is defined as a group of cells with similar structure and function.

a. Tissue
b. Organ
c. Molecules
d. Compounds
e. Organism

A

a) Tissue

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3
Q 
Using
a. Auscultation
your fingers to find your pulse on your wrist is an example of
b. Palpation
c. Responsiveness
d. Gross anatomy
e. Physiologist
A

b) Palpation

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4
Q

Percussion techniques can be used to determine

a. Heart beats
b. Pulse rate
c. Amplify sounds
d. Fluid in the lungs
e. Enlarged organs

A

d) Fluid in the lungs

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5
Q

This is the sum of all cellular processes that occur in the body.

a. Metabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Catabolism
d. Auscultation
e. Palpation

A

a) Metabolism

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6
Q

This is the regulation of body conditions within normal limits.

a. Palpation
b. Percussion
c. Homeostasis
d. Autopsy
e. Histology

A

c) Homeostasis

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7
Q

The systems that provide homeostasis are:

a. Cardiovascular and Integumentary
b. Nervous system and Endocrine
c. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems
d. Respiratory and muscular systems
e. Urinary and integumentary systems

A

b) nervous system and endocrine

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8
Q

This body fluid directly affects the proper functioning of cells.

a. Lymph
b. Blood
c. Interstitial fluid
d. Aqueous humor
e. Vitreous body

A

c) Interstitial Fluid

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9
Q

This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center.

a. Receptor
b. Body fluids
c. Brain
d. Effector
e. Afferent

A

d) Effector

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10
Q

This is the structure of a feedback system that provides input to the control center.

a. Receptor
b. Muscle
c. Brain
d. Effector
e. Efferent

A

a) Receptor

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11
Q

A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be:

a. Childbirth
b. Body temperature
c. Blood pressure
d. Heart rate
e. Blood sugar

A

a) Childbirth

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12
Q

This is a change in body function that can be measured objectively.

a. Symptom
b. Disorder
c. Disturbance d. Disease
e. Sign

A

e) Sign

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13
Q

In which cavity is the brain located?

a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity

A

a) Cranial Cavity

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14
Q

In which cavity are the lungs located?

a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity

A

e) Pleural Cavity

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15
Q

In which cavity is the stomach located?

a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity

A

c) Abdominal Cavity

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16
Q

This cavity is inferior to the abdominopelvic cavity.

a. Vertebral canal
b. Cranial cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pelvic cavity

A

e) Pelvic Cavity

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17
Q

Which cavity would include the heart?

a. Cranial cavity
b. V ertebral cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pericardial cavity
e. Pleural cavity

A

d) Pericardial Cavity

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18
Q

The function of the secretions of the serous membrane is to:

a. Separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities
b. Protect the central nervous system
c. Prevent infection
d. Reduce friction between organs
e. Carry nervous impulses

A

d) Reduce Friction Btw organs

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19
Q

This plane divides the body into right and left halves. a. Frontal

b. Sagittal
c. Transverse d. Oblique
e. Coronal

A

b) Sagital

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20
Q

This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. a. Frontal

b. Sagittal
c. Transverse d. Oblique
e. Midsagittal

A

a) Frontal

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21
Q

A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into

a. Anterior and posterior
b. Left and right
c. Superior and inferior
d. At an angle
e. Unequal left and right sides

A

c) Superior and Inferior

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22
Q

This directional term means farthest from the midline. a. Medial

b. Anterior
c. Proximal d. Deep
e. Lateral

A

e) Lateral

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23
Q

This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure.

a. Deep
b. Contralateral c. Lateral
d. Cephalic
e. Distal

A

e) Distal

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24
Q

This directional term is the opposite of deep. a. Superficial

b. Superior c. Inferior d. Distal
e. Proximal

A

a) Superficial

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25
Q

Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the liver.

a. Inferior
b. Anterior
c. Contralateral d. Superior
e. Superficial

A

d) Superior

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26
Q

Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct: The sternum is ____ to the heart.
a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Inferior d. Superior e. Lateral

A

b) Anterior

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27
Q

Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity? a. Stomach

b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Gallbladder e. Diaphragm

A

e) Diaphragm

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28
Q 
This covers the viscera within the thoracic and abdominal cavities and lines the
walls of the thorax and abdomen.
a. Pericardium
b. Pleura
c. Mediastinum
d. Diaphragm
e. Serous membrane
A

e) Serous membrane

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29
Q

The liver is ______ to the sternum. a. Lateral

b. Medial c. Proximal d. Distal
e. Superior

A

a) lateral

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30
Q

The stomach is ____ to the bladder. a. Lateral

b. Medial c. Distal
d. Inferior e. Superior

A

e) Superior

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31
Q

The humerus is _____ to the scapula. a. Proximal

b. Distal
c. Medial d. Superior e. Anterior

A

b) Distal

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32
Q

What are the major elements found in the body?

a. Nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium
b. Hydrogen, carbon, phosphorus, calcium
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
d. Oxygen, nitrogen, potassium, calcium
e. Potassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen

A

c) C, H, O, N

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33
Q

Which of the following particles has a neutral charge?

a. Neutron
b. Electron
c. Proton
d. All of the above

A

a) Neutron

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34
Q

What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons? a. Cloud

b. Nucleus c. Element d. Ring
e. Shell

A

b) nucleus

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35
Q

This is the number of protons or electrons.

a. Mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Isotope
d. Valence shell
e. None of the above

A

b) Atomic Number

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36
Q

As an atoms nucleus decays, it will emit radiation. This is seen in a. Compounds

b. Cations
c. Anions
d. Isotopes e. Molecules

A

d) Isotopes

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37
Q

This refers to the atomic weight of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element.

a. Mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Atomic mass
d. Ionic mass
e. Covalent mass

A

c) Atomic Mass

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38
Q

Which of the following particles plays a role in creating chemical bonds? a. Neutron

b. Electron
c. Proton
d. All of the above

A

b) Electron

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39
Q

This is a negatively charged atom.

a. Superoxide
b. Isotope
c. Catalyst
d. Ion
e. V alence

A

d) Ion

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40
Q

Which of the below provide an electrical current?.

a. Isotope
b. Ionic molecule
c. Compound
d. Electrolyte
e. V alence molecule

A

d) Electrolyte

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41
Q

This type of bond requires a sharing of electrons. a. Covalent

b. Ionic
c. Hydrogen d. Atomic
e. Electronic

A

a) Covalent

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42
Q

This is the type of bond between the atoms forming water

a. Nonpolar covalent
b. Polar covalent
c. Hydrogen
d. Ionic
e. Atomic

A

b) Polar Covalent

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43
Q

Which of the following bonds provides the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA?

a. Nonpolar covalent
b. Polar covalent
c. Hydrogen
d. Ionic
e. Atomic

A

c) Hydrogen

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44
Q

This occurs when new bonds form or old bonds break between atoms.

a. Ions
b. Electrolytes
c. Isotopes
d. Chemical reaction
e. Compounds

A

d) Chemical Reaction

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45
Q

This is defined as the capacity to do work. a. Metabolism

b. Electrolytes
c. Chemical reaction
d. Concentration
e. Energy

A

e) Energy

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46
Q

This type of reaction will absorb more energy that it releases. a. Exergonic

b. Endergonic c. Potential
d. Kinetic
e. Activation

A

b) Endergonic

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47
Q

An enzyme acts to

a. Raise the activation energy needed
b. Lower the activation energy needed
c. Convert the activation energy into potential
d. Convert the activation energy into kinetic
e. Break a chemical reaction

A

b) Lower the activation energy needed

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48
Q

This type of reaction will combine reactants to produce larger products. a. Synthesis

b. Decomposition c. Potential
d. Exchange
e. Activated

A

a) Synthesis

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49
Q

This type of reaction will break larger reactants to produce smaller products. a. Synthesis

b. Decomposition c. Potential
d. Exchange
e. Activated

A

b) Decomposition

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50
Q

This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body.

a. Water
b. Oxygen gas
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Glucose
e. DNA

A

a) Water

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51
Q

A solute that dissolves in water is. a. Hydrophobic

b. Hydrostatic c. Hydroamoure d. Hydrophillic e. Hydrozone

A

d) Hydrophillic

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52
Q

In a typical body solution, the solvent is.

a. Glucose
b. Lipids
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water
e. Electrolyte

A

d) Water

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53
Q

A solution with a pH value smaller than 7 would be a(n) a. Base

b. Salt
c. Acid
d. alkaline
e. concentrate

A

c) Acid

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54
Q

A substance that adds or removes Hydrogen ions from a solution is a(n) a. Base

b. Salt
c. Acid
d. alkaline e. buffer

A

e) Buffer

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55
Q

Which of the following is considered a proton donor?

a. Acid
b. Base
c. Salt
d. Organic compound
e. Colloid

A

a) Acid

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56
Q

These are specific arrangements of atoms that confer characteristic chemical properties upon organic molecules.

a. Acids
b. Bases
c. Carbons
d. Functional groups
e. Isomers

A

d) Functional Groups

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57
Q

Glucose and fructose both have the chemical formula C6H12O6 so they are considered

a. Isotopes b. Isometrics c. Isolates
d. Isomers
e. Isotonics

A

d) Isomers

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58
Q

Which of the following is a monosaccaride that is important in producing energy. a. Glucose

b. Sucrose
c. Lactose
d. Ribose
e. Deoxyribose

A

a) Glucose

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59
Q

The major energy storage polysaccharide in humans is a. Cellulose

b. Ribose
c. Lipids
d. Fats
e. Glycogen

A

e) Glycogen

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60
Q

This type of triglyceride contains more than one double bond in the fatty acid carbon atoms.

a. Saturated
b. Monounsaturated c. Polyunsaturated d. Acylglycerols
e. Lipoprotein

A

c) Polyunsaturated

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61
Q

This type of lipid is the body’s long term energy storage molecule. a. Steroid

b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride
e. Lipoprotein

A

d) Triglyceride

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62
Q

This type of lipid is used by the body to create hormones. a. Cellulose
b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride e. Lipoprotein

A

c) Cholesterol

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63
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids?

a. They contain an glycerol backbone
b. The head group is polar
c. The molecule is an important part of cell membranes
d. The tail groups are nonpolar
e. They are a major energy storage lipid

A

e) They are a major energy storage lipid

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64
Q

Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are considered:

a. Amphipathic
b. Both Lipids and Eicosanoids
c. Eicosanoids
d. All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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65
Q 
The primary structure of a protein contains a. Alpha helix
Essay
b. Beta-pleated sheets
c. Substrates
d. Amino acids
e. All of the above
A

d) Amino Acids

66
Q

Which of the following is a purine? a. Cytosine

b. Guanine c. Thymine d. Ribose
e. Phosphate

A

b) Guanine

67
Q

Which is the function of RNA?

a. Produce electrical impulses
b. storage of energy
c. transfer information for protein synthesis
d. store information for protein synthesis
e. transport of fluids

A

c) Transfer info for protein synthesis

68
Q

Which is the function of DNA?

a. Produce chemical signals
b. storage of energy
c. transfer information for protein synthesis
d. store information for protein synthesis
e. transport of electrolytes

A

d) Store information for protein synthesis

69
Q

Which is the function of ATP?

a. Produce electrical impulses
b. Transfers energy for cell functions
c. transfer information for protein synthesis
d. store information for protein synthesis
e. transport of fluids

A

b) transfers energy for cell functions

70
Q

What monomer is used to build RNA and DNA? a. fatty acid

b. amino acid c. Glucose
d. glycerol
e. nucleotide

A

e) Nucleotide

71
Q

What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell? a. Plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b. Plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus

c. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles d. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
e. Plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles

A

d) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus

72
Q

Plasma membranes consist of what three components?

a. Phospholipids, glycoproteins, water
b. Proteins, cholesterol, fatty acids
c. Cholesterol, fatty acids, glycolipids
d. Proteins, phospholipids, cholesterol
e. Water, proteins, fatty acids

A

d) Proteins, Phospholipids, Cholesterol

73
Q

What are the nonpolar parts of a phospholipid? a. Head group

b. Tail group
c. Both are nonpolar
d. Neither are nonpolar

A

b) Tail Group

74
Q

his portion of the cell membrane enables cell membranes to produce chemical products. .

a. Receptors
b. Phospholipids c. Cholesterol
d. Enzymes
e. Ligand

A

d) Enzymes

75
Q

Which of the following is a function of a membrane protein that binds with hormones and neurotransmitters?

a. Transporters
b. Receptors
c. Enzymes
d. Linkers
e. Cell Identification markers

A

b) Receptors

76
Q

This type of membrane protein helps to anchor proteins in the plasma membrane of neighboring cells to one another.

a. Transporters
b. Receptors
c. Ligand
d. Ion channels
e. Linkers

A

e) Linkers

77
Q

he characteristic of plasma membranes allowing only some substances to move through is known as…

a. Selective permeability
b. Concentration gradient
c. Electrical gradient
d. Solubility
e. Transportation

A

a)

78
Q

Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion?

a. Steepness of the concentration gradient
b. Mass of the diffusing substance
c. Charge of the diffusing substance
d. Amount of ATP available
e. Temperature

A

d)

79
Q

This is a measure of a solutions ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content.

a. Hyperness
b. Hyponess
c. Tonicity
d. Pressure
e. Facilitation

A

c)

80
Q

This is the transport process by which gases move through a membrane.

a. Osmosis
b. Active transport
c. Secondary active transport
d. Simple diffusion
e. Endocytosis

A

d)

81
Q

In this type of transport process a solute, like Glucose, binds to a specific transporter protein on one side of the membrane and is released on the other side after the transporter protein undergoes a change in shape.

a. Osmosis
b. Active transport
c. Secondary active transport
d. Facilitated diffusion e. Endocytosis

A

d) Facilitated Diffusion

82
Q

In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.

a. Primary active transport
b. Secondary active transport
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Passive diffusion
e. Osmosis

A

a) Primary Active Transport

83
Q

If the solute concentration is greater in the solution on the inside of the cell, compared to the solute concentration of the solution that is outside the cell, then what direction will water move?

a. into the cell
b. out of the cell
c. no movement

A

a) into the cell

84
Q

In this transport process, the energy stored in Na+ or H+ concentration gradient is used to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.

a. Primary active transport
b. Secondary active transport
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Passive diffusion
e. Osmosis

A

b)

85
Q

This is a transport process by which cells secrete materials, within vesicles, into the extracellular fluid.

a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Active transport
d. Diffusion
e. Osmosis

A

b)

86
Q

This is a transport process by which cells take up extracellular substances within vesicles..

a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Active transport
d. Diffusion
e. Osmosis

A

a)

87
Q

This is an extension of the plasma membrane that will surround a particle outside the cell forming a vesicle.

a. Phagocyte
b. Exterior vesicle
c. Interior vesicle
d. Pseudopod
e. Pinocytosis

A

d)

88
Q

The function of the cytosol is.

a. A TP production
b. Location of chemical reactions
c. Production of polypeptides
d. Digestion of decomposing proteins
e. Protection of nuclear material

A

b)

89
Q

These perform special functions in cellular growth, maintenance and reproduction.

a. organelles
b. cytoskeletom c. cytoplasm
d. cytosol
e. nucleus

A

a)

90
Q

This organelle is comprised of microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules.

a. cytoskeleton b. cytoplasm
c. cilia
d. flagella
e. ribosome

A

a)

91
Q

This is comprised of a pair of centrioles and pericentriolar materials. a. cytoskeleton

b. cilia
c. centrosome d. flagella
e. peroxisomes

A

c)

92
Q

This organelle contains ribosomes, which synthesis proteins

a. rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. cytosol
c. nucleus
d. centriole
e. mitochondria

A

a)

93
Q

This is an organelle that modifies proteins produced elsewhere.

a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi body
c. peroxisomes
d. nucleus
e. proteasome

A

b) Golgi

94
Q

These are small flattened curved membranous sacs with bulging edges. a. secretory vessels

b. membrane vessels c. cisternae
d. cis face
e. trans face

A

c)

95
Q

Which organelle oxidizes organic molecules? a. peroxisomes

b. mitochondria c. proteasome d. ribosomes
e. lysosomes

A

a)

96
Q

Which organelle recycles worn out organelles? a. peroxisomes

b. mitochondria c. proteasome d. ribosomes
e. lysosomes

A

e)

97
Q

Proteasomes

a. Perform extracellular digestion
b. Perform autophagy
c. Perform autolysis
d. Degrade faulty cellular proteins
e. Degrade A TP

A

d)

98
Q

Mitochondria

a. move the cell
b. generate A TP
c. produce proteins
d. oxidize organells
e. synthesize glycolipids

A

b) Generate ATP

99
Q

Which of the following protects the contents of the nucleus?

a. Nucleic acids
b. nuclear membrane
c. nuclear centrosome
d. cilia
e. golgi apparatus

A

b) nuclear membrane

100
Q

What is the major function of a histone protein? a. For helix shape

b. Adds a charge to DNA
c. Help organize coiling of DNA d. Degrade proteins
e. Enzymatic effect

A

c)

101
Q

This is a long molecule of DNA that contains genes-there are 46 in each body cell.

a. chromatin
b. chromatid
c. chromosome d. centromere e. centrosome

A

c)

102
Q

This is the set of rules that, relating the base triplet sequence of DNA to the corresponding codons of RNA, specifies a sequence of amino acids.

a. gene expression
b. genomics
c. anticodons
d. genetic code
e. protein synthesis

A

d)

103
Q

This binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it is incorporated into a protein during translation.
a. mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. DNA e. cDNA

A

c)

104
Q

This portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein. a. RNA

b. Intron
c. Exon
d. Polyribosome e. Ribosome

A

b)

105
Q

This process is division of the cytoplasm. a. mitosis

b. meiosis
c. cytokinesis d. cytosol
e. centrioles

A

c)

106
Q

During which phase do organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begin? a. Interphase

b. Prophase
c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase

A

a)

107
Q

Normally how long does the G2 phase last?

a. 8 hours
b. 4-6 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 24 hours
e. 1day

A

b)

108
Q

During this phase the chromatin fibers condense and shorten into chromosomes that are visible under the microscope.
a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase

A

b)

109
Q

The function of mitosis is a. production of gametes b. create more cilia

c. form flagella
d. production of proteins e. production of new cells

A

e)

110
Q

During this phase a cleavage furrow forms. a. Interphase

b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase

A

d)

111
Q

Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?

a. epithelial b. connective c. myocardial d. muscle
e. nervous

A

c)

112
Q

This type of cell junction anchors adjacent cells and resists their separation during contractile activities.

a. tight and hemidesmosome
b. gap and tight
c. adherens and desmosome
d. desmosome and gap
e. hemidesmosome and tight

A

c)

113
Q 
This is a thin extracellular layer, that commonly consists of basal lamina and reticular lamina, that is found in epithelial tissues.
a. basement membrane
b. epithelial cells
c. connective tissue
d. vascular tissue

e. gap junctions
A

a)

114
Q

Epithelial tissue

a. Is used as a covering
b. Is used as a lining
c. Is used in glands
d. Has a free surface
e. All of the above

A

e)

115
Q 
This tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.

a. Simple squamous epithelial
b. Simple cuboidal epithelial
c. Stratified squamous epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Simple columnar epithelial
A

a)

116
Q

This tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.

a. Simple squamous epithelial
b. Simple cuboidal epithelial
c. Stratified squamous epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Simple columnar epithelial

A

C)

117
Q

This tissue forms glands.

a. Simple squamous epithelial
b. Areolar connective tissue
c. Stratified squamous epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Transitional epithelial

A

d)

118
Q

This tissue lines the respiratory tract and the fallopian tubes.

a. Simple cuboidal epithelial
b. Simple columnar epithelial
c. Stratified columnar epithelial
d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial
e. Transitional epithelial

A

b)

119
Q 
These
a. Unicellular glands
are categorized by whether the ducts are branched or unbranched.
b. Multicellular glands
c. Endocrine glands
d. Exocrine glands
e. All of the above
A

b)

120
Q

This type of multicellular gland branching has a rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.

a. Simple coiled tubular
b. Compound tubular
c. Compound tuboloacinar
d. Simple branched acinar
e. Simple branched tubular

A

d)

121
Q

Simple tubular multicellular branching has
a. The tubular secretory portion straight and attaches to a single unbranched duct.
b. The tubular secretory part coiled and attaches to a single unbranched duct
c. The secretory part is rounded and attaches to a single unbranched duct
d. Rounded secretory part is branched and attaches to a single unbranched
duct.
e. None of the above

A

a)

122
Q

How are exocrine glands classified?

a. Based on shape
b. Based on size
c. Based on how their secretion is released
d. Based on how they synthesize their secretion
e. All of the above

A

c)

123
Q

This type of exocrine gland accumulates their product in their cytosol.

a. Apocrine
b. Exocrine
c. Holocrine
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

c)

124
Q

In connective tissue, the matrix consists of

a. Protein based enzymes and organelles
b. Plasma membranes and ground substance
c. Blood cells and protein fibers
d. Calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes
e. Protein fibers and ground substance

A

e)

125
Q

Connective tissues do NOT include

a. Bone
b. Blood cells
c. Cartilage
d. tendons
e. Liver cells

A

e)

126
Q

This component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers and is used for support and as a medium for chemical reactions.

a. Matrix
b. Formed elements
c. Ground substance
d. Basement membrane
e. Plasma membrane

A

c)

127
Q

Common polysaccharides found in ground substance include

a. Hyaluronic acid
b. Melatonin
c. Cholesterol
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

a)

128
Q

Which fibers are seen in embedded in the matrix of connective tissue?

a. Elastic
b. Reticular
c. Collagen
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d)

129
Q

Reticular fibers help form this, which is used as a supporting framework for many soft organs.

a. Matrix
b. Ground substance
c. Basement membrane
d. Stroma
e. Visceral layer

A

d)

130
Q

Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?

a. Blood
b. Bone tissue
c. Areolar connective tissue
d. Elastic tissue
e. Hyaline connective tissue

A

c)

131
Q 
Where is the most common location for adipose tissue?
a. Subcutaneous layer deep to skin
b. Lining bones
c. Covering brain
d. Inside ear canal
Essay
e. Cartilage
A

a)

132
Q

Dense connective tissues main function is

a. Storage of mineral
b. Forms stroma of organs
c. Reducing heat loss
d. Strong attachment between structures
e. Aids in elasticity

A

d)

133
Q

This type of connective tissue is used mainly for support within the skeletal system.

a. Adipose
b. Elastic
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Dense irregular
e. Reticular

A

c)

134
Q

What is the basic unit of compact bone tissue? a. osteon

b. stroma
c. lamellae
d. chromosome e. lacunae

A

a)

135
Q

Spongy bone lacks a. Lamellae

b. Lacunae
c. Osteocytes d. Osteons
e. Blood

A

d)

136
Q

The matrix in blood tissue is

a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Plasma
d. Platelets
e. Albumin

A

c)

137
Q

What is NOT an epithelial membrane in the human body? a. Mucous membrane

b. Serous membrane
c. Cutaneous membrane
d. Endocardium membrane

A

d)

138
Q

This type of membrane lines a body cavity that does NOT open directly to the outside.

a. Cutaneous b. Serous
c. Mucous
d. Basement e. Connective

A

b)

139
Q

These are immature, undifferentiated cells that can divide to replace lost or damaged cells.

a. Stem cells
b. Parenchyma
c. Fibrosis
d. Granular tissue
e. Adhesions

A

a)

140
Q

Which of the below tissues is small, spindle shaped and found in the walls of hollow organs?

a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle

A

b)

141
Q

Which of the below tissues has more than one nucleus and is voluntary? a. skeletal muscle

b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle

A

a)

142
Q

Which cells are excitable and, therefore, able to carry electrical impulses? a. neuroglial and muscular

b. muscular and connective
c. neuroglial and nervous
d. nervous and epithelial e. muscular and nervous

A

e)

143
Q

This is another name for the subcutaneous layer. a. Dermis

b. Epidermis c. Corpuscle d. Basale
e. Hypodermis

A

e)

144
Q

This layer is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. a. Epidermis

b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous e. Corpuscle

A

a)

145
Q

Keratin

a. Is a protein
b. Helps protect the bone from viruses
c. Is a protein that is made of melanocytes
d. Bothaandc
e. All of the above

A

a)

146
Q

This pigment absorbs ultraviolet light. a. Keratin

b. Melanin c. Melatonin d. Carotene e. Nigrosin

A

b)

147
Q

This epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance.

a. Langerhans
b. Keratinocytes
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Corpuscle

A

a)

148
Q

This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

a)

149
Q

This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis.

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

c)

150
Q

The stratum lucidum

a. Contains lamellar granules
b. Lies just superficially to stratum basale
c. Is the layer used in a skin graft
d. Is present only in thick skin
e. Consists of 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.

A

d)

151
Q 
Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus which is
the thickening of which layer?
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum
A

e)

152
Q

Keratinization

a. Is the process of synthesizing pigment in the skin
b. Is the process of cells accumulating keratin
c. Is only seen in thin skin
d. Is the process of synthesizing pigment and accumulating keratin
e. None of the above

A

b)

153
Q

This layer is composed mainly of connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers.

a. Hypodermis
b. Basement membrane
c. Epidermis
d. Dermis
e. Hypodermis

A

d)

154
Q

Which of the following plays an important role in thermoregulation?

a. Merkel cell
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Sweat gland
d. Nail
e. Fingerprint

A

c)

155
Q

This skin structure act to prevent water loss as well as inhibiting bacterial growth on the surface of the skin.

a. Thick skin
b. nails
c. Sweat glands
d. Hair
e. Oil glands

A

e)

156
Q

This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.

a. Alopecia
b. V ellus
c. Lanugo
d. Papilla
e. Hair follicles

A

c)

157
Q

This type of gland is a branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.

a. Sebaceous
b. Sudoriferous
c. Both sebaceous and sudoriferous
d. None of the above

A

a)

158
Q

This is a mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins and inorganic salts.

a. Sweat
b. Lanugo
c. V ellus
d. Sebum
e. Mucous

A

d)

159
Q 
This type of gland is a coiled tubular gland found almost throughout the entirety
of the a. b. c. d. e.
skin.
Sebaceous Eccrine Appocrine Ceruminous
None of the above
A

Eccrine

160
Q

In this type of scarring, the scar tissue extends beyond the boundary of the injury into normal tissue.

a. Hypertrophic b. Keloid
c. Proliferative d. Inhibitory
e. Granulatory

A

b)

A&P-RN (6 decks)

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