Module 3 Test Flashcards
Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
a. Sensory function
b. Integrative function
c. Motor function
d. All are functions of the nervous system
D
The peripheral nervous system can be divided into:
a. Somatic nervous system
b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Enteric nervous system
d. All of the above
D
The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into:
a. Sympathetic division
b. Parasympathetic division
c. Enteric division
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
D
This has the property of electrical excitability.
a. Muscle cells
b. Neurons
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
C
This is the site of protein synthesis in a neuron.
a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleus
c. Nissl body
d. Dendrite
e. Axon
C
Nerve fiber refers to:
a. Axon
b. Dendrites
c. Nissl body
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
D
This type of neuron has one main dendrite and one main axon.
a. Multipolar neuron
b. Bipolar neuron
c. Unipolar neuron
d. Purkinje cell
e. Renshaw cell
B
Schwann cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons
a. When neurons are injured
b. During fetal development
c. After birth
d. Only in response to a disorder
e. None of the above
B
This contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals and neruoglia.
a. Gray matter
b. White matter
c. Astrocytes
d. Satellite cells
e. Ependymal cells
A
Which is not a type of channel used in production of an electrical signal in neurons?
a. Leakage channel
b. V oltage-gated channel
c. Ligand-gated channel
d. Mechanically gated channel
e. Ion dependent channel
E
The resting membrane potential in neurons ranges from:
a. +5to100mV
b. –25 to -70 mV
c. –40 to –90 mV
d. –90to5mV
e. None of the above
C
A polarized cell
a. Can vary from +5 to –100 mV
b. Includes most cells of the body
c. Exhibits a membrane potential
d. Bothbandc
e. All of the above
E
Sodium pumps are considered electrogenic because
a. They contribute to the negativity of the resting membrane potential
b. Because the sodium ions a re negatively charged
c. Because they exhibit low permeability
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
A
A depolarizing graded potential
a. Makes the membrane more polarized
b. Makes the membrane less polarized
c. Is not considered a graded potential
d. Is the last part of an action potential
e. Is seen when the cell approaches threshold
B
When a depolarizing graded potential makes the membrane depolarize to threshold
a. Ligand gated Ca+ channels close rapidly
b. V oltage gated CA+ channels open rapidly
c. Ligand gated Na+ channels close rapidly
d. Voltage gated Na+ channels open rapidly
e. None of the above
D
During the resting state of a voltage gated Na+ channel
a. The inactivation gate is open
b. The activation gate is closed
c. The channel is permeable
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
C
During which period can a second action potential be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus?
a. Refractory period
b. Absolute refractory period
c. Relative refractory period
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
C
Saltatory conduction
a. Occurs through unmyelinated axons
b. Happens due to even distribution of voltage gated channels
c. Encode only action potentials in response to pain
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above
E
Which axons have the largest diameter?
a. A fibers
b. B fibers
c. C fibers
d. None of the above
A
What phenomenon explains why a light touch feels different than a touch applied with more pressure?
a. Saltatory conduction
b. Continuous conduction
c. Frequency of impulses
d. Propagation
e. Refractory period
C
Which of the following terms describes synapses?
a. Axodendritic
b. Axosomatic
c. Axoaxonic
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
E
Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of
a. Chemical synapsis
b. Electrical synapses
c. Ligand gated channels
d. Voltage gated channels
e. Mechanically gated channels
B
If a neurotransmitter depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane it is referred to as:
a. Excitatory
b. Inhibitory
c. Spatial
d. Temporal
e. Summation
A
IPSP stands for:
a. Inhbitory presynaptic summation potential
b. Inhibitory postsynaptic summation potential
c. Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
d. Inhibitory presynaptic potential
e. None of the above
C
Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to
a. Remove a neurotransmitter
b. Stop a spatial summation
c. Continue a temporal summation
d. Inhibit a presynaptic potential
e. Excite a presynaptic potential
A
Where does summation occur?
a. In the synaptic cleft
b. In the dendrites
c. At the trigger zone
d. In the neuron nucleus
e. In the neuroplasm
C
A postsynaptic neuron may respond to inhibitory and excitatory effects in which of the following ways:
a) EPSP
b) Nerve impulse
c) IPSP
d) Bothaandc
e) All of the above
E
Which of the following is not considered a small molecule neurotransmitter?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Biogenic amines
c. Purines
d. Endorphins
e. Serotonin
D
Plasticity means
a. The ability to regenerate
b. Sending a signal through a converging circuit
c. Signal transmission at a synapse
d. Capability to change based on experience
e. The ability to stretch without damage
D
Which part of the diagram is considered nerve fiber?
a. A
b. D
c. H
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
E
This part of the diagram contains organelles and Nissl bodies.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
e. Both a and b
E
This portion of the diagram contains cytoplasm and a myelin sheath wrapped around neurolemma.
a. C
b. D
c. E
d. F
e. G
C
In the diagram, where is the axon collateral?
a. C
b. D
c. F
d. H
e. I
A
In the diagram where are axon terminals?
a. F
b. G
c. H
d. I
e. None of the above
C
Which of the following neurons is attached to a Merkel disc?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
B
Which of the following neurons is attached to a receptor that mainly detects painful stimuli?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. Both B and C
D
Which of the following neurons is attached to a receptor that mainly detects touch stimuli?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. BothAandD
A
This type of cell myelinates a single axon
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
A
This electrically insulates the axon of a neuron to increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
E
In the diagram where are the Nodes of Ranvier?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
B
In the CNS, this is produced by oligodendrocytes.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
E
Which of the follow represents a ligand-gated channel?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
B
This type of channel open in response to a change in the membrane potential.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
D
This type of channel opens randomly.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. All of the above
A
In the figure which one represents a converging circuit?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
B
Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial?
a. Arachnoid mater
b. Dura mater
c. Menix mater
d. Pia mater
e. Epi mater
B
Which of the below contains cerebrospinal fluid?
a. Epidural space
b. Subarachnoid space
c. Dural space
d. Meninx
e. Pia mater
B
Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of :
a. Arachnoid mater
b. Pia mater
c. Dura mater
d. Interstitial fluid
e. Subdural space
B
This is a structure that results from nervous input from the upper extremities.
a. Lumbar enlargement
b. Filum terminale
c. Cauda equine
d. Spinal nerve 12
e. Cervical enlargement
A
This contains only sensory axons that conduct nerve impulses from sensory receptors in the skin, muscles and internal organs into the CNS.
a. Spinal nerves
b. Cauda equine
c. Anterior root
d. Posterior root
e. Central canal
D
Which layer is found surrounding the entire spinal nerve?
a. Dura mater
b. Pia mater
c. endoneurium
d. perineurium
e. epineurium
E
Which type of axons contain endoneurium?
a. A. Myelinated
b. B. Unmyelinated
c. C. Dendrites only have endoneurium
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above
D
Spinal nerves
a. A. Are part of the PNS
b. B. Connect the CNS to the body
c. C. Are named according to the region of the cord from which they emerge
d. Bothaandc
e. All of the above
E
This reenters the vertebral cavity through the intervertebral foramen and supplies
the vertebrae, ligaments and blood vessels of the spinal cord and meninges.
a. Dorsal ramus
b. V entral ramus
c. Rami communicates
d. Meningeal branch
e. Brachial plexus
D
Intercostal nerves
a. Are also known as cervical nerves
b. Directly connect to the structures they supply
c. Are found in the C6-T4 area of the vertebrae
d. Extend through the sacrum
e. Do not exist in humans
B
A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand. What is the most likely sight of injury?
a. Brachial plexus
b. Intercostal nerves
c. Lumbar plexus
d. Medial nerve
e. Radial nerve
A
This tract carries nerve impulses for proprioception.
a. Posterior gray columns
b. White columns
c. Anterior gray column
d. Posterior gray horn
e. Dermatome tract
B
These white matter tracts of the spinal cord contain ascending information:
a. Sensory tracts
b. Motor tracts
c. Integration tracts
d. Columnar tracts
e. Epidural tracts
A
The descending tracts of the spinal cord carry what type of information:
a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Integration
d. Bothaandb
e. Bothbandc
B
Another term for integration is
a. Reflectory
b. Dermatome
c. Summing
d. Reflex
e. Stimulus
C
This pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the cerebral cortex and are destined to cause precise, voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.
a. Indirect pathway
b. Direct pathway
c. Reflex arc
d. Somatic arc
e. Muscle spindle
B
This pathway governs automatic movements and coordinates them with visual stimuli.
a. Indirect pathway
b. Direct pathway
c. Reflex arc
d. Somatic arc
e. Muscle spindles
A
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions?
a. Sensory receptor
b. Sensory neuron
c. Motor neuron
d. Effector
e. Integration neuron or interneuron
A
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc governs body condition levels?
a. Sensory receptor
b. Sensory neuron
c. Motor neuron
d. Effector
e. Integration neuron or interneuron
E
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc changes body condition levels?
a. Sensory receptor
b. Sensory neuron
c. Motor neuron
d. Effector
e. Integration neuron or interneuron
D
Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root (ganglion)s?
a. Sensory receptor
b. Sensory neuron
c. Motor neuron
d. Effector
e. Integration neuron or interneuron
A
A reflex pathway having only one synapse in the CNS is called
a. Visceral reflex
b. Somatic reflex
c. Polysynaptic reflex arc
d. Autonomic reflex arc
e. None of the above
E
In response to being stretched a muscle spindle generates nerve impulses that propagate along a sensory neuron through which below structure, to get into the spinal column?
a. Anterior root
b. Posterior root
c. Tectospinal tract
d. Central canal
e. Lateral reticulospinal tract
B
In response to a muscle being overstretched, a muscle spindle generates a somatic spinal reflex that, ultimately, causes what response?
a. A. Contraction of the agonist muscle
b. B. Relaxation of the antagonist muscle
c. C. Contraction of the antagonist muscle
d. D. Relaxation of the agonist muscle
e. Bothaandb
E
In response to excessive tension on a tendon, a tendon organ generates a somatic spinal reflex that, ultimately, causes what response?
a. A. Contraction of the agonist muscle
b. B. Relaxation of the antagonist muscle
c. C. Contraction of the antagonist muscle
d. D. Relaxation of the agonist muscle
e. Bothcandd
E
During a somatic spinal reflex, when one effector muscle is stimulated and the opposing muscle is inhibited, this type of innervation is called
a. Reversal
b. Relaxed
c. Representative d. Reciprocal
e. Relegated
D
The stretch and tendon spinal reflexes do NOT provide what function?
a. Awareness of muscle tension in body
b. Prevention of damage to muscles
c. Protection of spinal nerves
d. Prevention of damage to tendons
e. Maintenance of muscle tone
C
An ipsilateral and intersegemental spinal somatic reflex
a. Controls only one flexor muscle on one side of the body
b. Controls many flexor muscles on one side of the body
c. Controls many flexor and extensor muscles on one side of the body
d. Controls many flexor muscles on the opposite side of the body
e. Controls many flexor and extensor muscles on the opposite side of the
body
C
A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the cord?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
B
The superficial covering over the entire nerve is called:
a. Endonureium
b. Nerve bundle
c. Perineurium
d. Fascicle
e. Epineurium
E
This serves the deep muscles and skin of the dorsal surface of the trunk.
a. Meningeal branch
b. Rami communicates
c. Brachial plexus
d. Posterior ramus
e. Anterior ramus
D
Another term for the thoracic nerves is a. Brachial
b. Lumbar
c. Sacral
d. Cervical
e. Intercostals
E
Where is the denticulate ligament?
a. C
b. D
c. F
d. H
e. I
B
Where is the subarachnoid space?
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. H
e. I
A
Where is the subdural space?
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. H
e. I
B
Where is the pia mater?
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. H
e. I
C
Where is the arachnoid mater?
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. H
e. I
D
Where is the outermost of the menenges?
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. H
e. I
E
Where is cerebral spinal fluid found in the following figure?
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. F
e. All of the above
A
Where is the structure that carries sensory information?
a. B
b. C
c. F
d. G
e. H
A
Where is the structure that carries motor information?
a. B
b. C
c. F
d. G
e. H
B
Where is the pia mater?
a. D
b. E
c. F
d. G
e. H
B
Where is the posterior ramus?
a. B
b. C
c. G
d. H
e. None of the above
C
Where is the epidural space?
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. F
e. G
D
Where is the anterior root?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. G
e. H
C
Where is the posterior median sulcus?
a. A
b. E
c. F
d. H
e. J
A
Where is the lateral white column?
a. C
b. D
c. G
d. H
e. I
B
Where is the anterior gray horn?
a. B
b. C
c. H
d. I
e. None of the above
C
Where is the anterior white column?
a. B
b. C
c. H
d. I
e. J
D
Which portion of the following figure contains somatic and autonomic sensory nuclei?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. H
e. I
B
Which portion of the following figure contains the cell bodies of somatic motor neurons and motor nuclei?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. H
e. I
D
Which portion of the following figure is present only in the thoracic, upper lumbar and sacral segments of the spinal cord?
a. D
b. E
c. F
d. I
e. J
C
The brain and spinal cord develop from ______ arranged in a tubular structure called the neural tube.
a. Mesoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Ectoderm
d. Prosencephalon
e. Rhombencephalon
C
This gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct of the midbrain.
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Pia mater
e. Arachnoid mater
B
Which is NOT considered a major part of the brain?
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebellum
c. Cauda equina
d. Diencephalon
e. Cerebrum
C
This consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain.
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. Diencephalon
e. Dura mater
A
This consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus.
a. Cerebellum
b. Brain stem
c. Cerebrum
d. Diencephalon
e. Dura mater
D
Which of the following has two layers?
a. Spinal dura mater
b. Cranial dura mater
c. Spinal arachnoid mater
d. Cranial arachnoid mater
e. All of the above
B
This separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.
a. Flax cerebri
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium cerebelli
d. Tentorium cerebri
e. None of the above
A
The adult brain represents only ____ of the total body weight.
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%
e. 20%
A
This protects the brain by preventing passage of harmful substances and pathogens.
a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid mater
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Blood brain barrier
e. All of the above
D
Cerebrospinal fluid carries chemicals from the ______ to neurons.
a. Interstitial fluid
b. Bile
c. Intracellular fluid
d. Arachnoid space
e. Blood
E
Which is located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum?
a. Lateral ventricle
b. Septum pellucidum
c. Fourth ventricle
d. Third ventricle
e. Corpus callosum
A
This is a narrow cavity along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and between the right and left halves of the thalamus.
a. Lateral ventricle
b. Septum pellucidum
c. Third ventricle
d. Fourth ventricle
e. Fifth ventricle
C
Which of the following is a way that cerebral spinal fluid contributes to homeostasis?
a. A. Mechanical protection
b. B. Chemical protection
c. C. Circulation
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
E
These are networks of capillaries in the walls of the ventricles.
a. Choroid plexuses
b. Lateral apertures
c. Interventricular foramina
d. Median aperture
e. Aqueduct of the midbrain
A
These are fingerlike projections that reabsorb CSF
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Microcephalus
c. Arachnoid villus
d. Dura villus
e. Lemniscus
C
This is a netlike region of white and gray matter that extends through the brain , maintaining consciousness.
a. Pons
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Midbrain
d. Reticular formation
e. Decussation of pyramids
D
This structure is responsible for somatic (startle) reflexes in response to loud sounds.
a. Spinal cord
b. Midbrain
c. Pons
d. Thalamus
e. Cerebellum
B
This structure is responsible for secondary control of respiration.
a. Spinal cord
b. Mid brain
c. Pons
d. Thalamus
e. Cerebellum
C
Pyramids are
a. Gray matter extensions on the medulla
b. White matter extensions on the medulla
c. Gray matter extensions on the brain stem
d. White matter extensions on the brain stem
e. Superior to the medial lemniscus
B
Medulla nuclei are
a. A. Masses of gray matter
b. B. Masses of white matter
c. Bothaandb
d. C. Decussations of the pyramids
e. None of the above
A
Where is the inferior olivary nucleus found?
a. Pons
b. Olive
c. Pyramids
d. Hypothalamus e. Midbrain
B
Where can you find the medial lemniscus?
a. A. Medulla oblongata
b. B. Pons
c. C. Midbrain
d. Bothbandc
e. All of the above
E
Which nuclei are found in the pons?
a. Pontine nuclei
b. Apneustic area
c. Pneumotaxic area
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D
This contains axons of sensory neurons that extend from the medulla oblongata to the thalamus.
a. Tectum
b. Colliculi
c. Substantia nigra
d. Pontine nuclei
e. None of the above
E
This area contains neurons that release dopamine.
a. Substantia nigra
b. Olive
c. Inferior colliculi
d. Cerebral peduncles
e. Apneustic area
A
This helps maintain consciousness.
a. Reticular activating system
b. Pons
c. Substantia nigra
d. Olive
e. Inferior peduncles
A
This portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance.
a. V ermis
b. Anterior lobe
c. Posterior lobe
d. Flocculonodular lobe
e. Left hemisphere
D
The folia are
a. Ridges of white matter
b. Found in the vermis only
c. Portions of the pyramids
d. Ridges of gray matter
e. Used in the RAS system only
D
This structure is responsible for somatic (startle) reflexes in reponse to loud sounds.
a. Spinal cord
b. Midbrain
c. Pons
d. Thalamus
e. Cerebellum
B
This portion of the cerebellum carries sensory information from proprioceptors throughout the body.
a. Inferior cerebellar peduncles
b. Middle cerebellar peduncles
c. Superior cerebellar peduncles
d. Anterior lobe
e. Posterior lobe
A
This is the major relay station for most sensory impulses that reach the primary somatosensory areas of the cerebral cortex from the brain stem and the spinal cord.
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Pons
e. Midbrain
A
Which of the following is not a major nuclei found in the thalamus?
a. Anterior nucleus
b. Medial nuclei
c. Superior nuclei
d. Lateral group
e. V entral group
C
Which of the following is NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?
a. Hunger
b. Thirst
c. Blood calcium
d. Emotional behavior
e. Body temperature
C
Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the hypothalamus?
a. Kidney
b. Pituitary
c. Thymus
d. Pancreas
e. Pineal
B
Where is the pineal gland found?
a. Thalamus
b. Cerebellum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Epithalalmus
E
Gyri are made because
a. The white matter enlarges faster than the gray matter
b. The cerebellum grows faster than the cerebrum
c. The hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus
d. The gray matter grows faster than the white matter
e. The lobes of the cerebellum are not symmetrical
D
Which structure conducts nerve impulses between gyri in different hemispheres of
the cerebrum?
a. Association tracts
b. Corpus callosum
c. Projection tracts
d. Pyramids
e. Sulci
B
Together the leniform and caudate nuclei are known as
a. globus pallidus
b. putamen
c. lentiform nucleus
d. corpus striatum
e. internal capsule
D
This portion of the limbic system lies between the hippocampus and the parahippocampus gyrus.
a. dentate gyrus
b. septal nuclei
c. limbic lobe
d. olfactory bulbs
e. fornix
A
Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for sensing body touch and temperature.
a. Broca’s area
b. Primary visual area
c. Common integrative area
d. Prefrontal cortex area
e. Primary somatosensory area
E
Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for vision.
a. Broca’s area
b. Primary visual area
c. Common integrative area
d. Primmary olfactory area
e. Primary somatosensory area
B
Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for conscious movements the body.
a. Broca’s area
b. Primary visual area
c. Somatosensory association area
d. Primary frontal area
e. Primary somatosensory area
D
Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for speech.
a. Broca’s area
b. Primary gustatory area
c. Common integrative area
d. Prefrontal cortex area
e. Primary somatosensory area
A
Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information to the olfactory area?
a. cranial nerve I
b. cranial nerve V
c. cranial nerve VI
d. cranial nerve VIII
e. cranial nerve X
A
Which nerves move the eyeball?
a. cranial nerves II, III and IV
b. cranial nerve I, V and X
c. cranial nerve III, IX andV
d. cranial nerve III, IV and VI
e. cranial nerve X, XII and XII
D
Cranial nerve V is also known as the _______________nerve
a. trochlear
b. oculomotor
c. trigeminal
d. vagus
e. abducens
C
Which cranial nerve is responsible for regulating visceral activity?
a. Oculomotor
b. Trigeminal
c. Spinal accessory
d. Facial
e. Vagus
E
Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?
a. Oculomotor
b. Trigeminal
c. Spinal accessory
d. Facial
e. Vagus
D
Which of the following parts of the brain is the thalamus?
a. A
b. B
c. CandD
d. E
B
Which of the following parts of the brain controls heart rate and blood pressure?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
D
Which of the following parts of the brain is the thalamus?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. G
e. E
A
Which of the below structures converts vibrations to action potentials?
a. cochlea
b. pinna
c. tympanic membrane
d. Organ of Corti
e. vestibulocochlear nerve
D
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
a. Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
b. Regulates metabolism
c. Regulates glandular secretions
d. Produces electrolytes
e. Controls growth and development
D
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called:
a. Receptor recognition
b. Circulating hormone
c. Paracrine
d. Up regulation
e. Down regulation
E
These hormones act on neighboring cells without entering the bloodstream.
a. Local hormones
b. Paracrines
c. Autocrines
d. Bothbandc
e. All of the above
E
These are lipid soluble hormones derived from cholesterol.
a. Steroids
b. Thyroid hormones
c. Nitric Oxide
d. Amine hormones
e. Peptide hormones
A
Which of the following is a major eicosanoid?
a. A. Prostaglandins
b. B. Leukotrienes
c. C. Glycoproteins
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
D
What is a major difference in the action of a water soluble hormone versus a lipid soluble hormone?
a. How they diffuse through blood
b. How the mRNA is transcribed
c. The use of a second messenger
d. Only one type needs a hormone receptor
e. Lipid hormones are not found in the bloodstream
C
When one hormone opposing the action of another hormone is it called:
a. Synergistic effects
b. Permissive effects
c. Antagonistic effects
d. Circulating
e. Local
C
Which of the following is not a way hormone secretion is regulated.
a. A. Signals from the nervous system
b. B. Chemical changes in the blood
c. C. Signals from the peripheral nervous system
d. D. The action of other hormones
e. Bothaandb
C
What controls the anterior pituitary gland?
a. Chemical signals from the blood
b. The peripheral nervous system
c. Action of hypothalamic hormones
d. Action potentials from the thalamus
e. Chemical changes in CSF
C
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates growth.
a. Human growth hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Thyrotropin
d. Follicle stimulating hormone
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
A
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production.
a. Leutinizing hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Thyrotropin
d. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates Cortisol production.
a. Leutinizing hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Insulin like growth factors
d. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates sex cell production.
a. Leutinizing hormone
b. TSH
c. Corticotropin
d. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
e. Growth hormone
A
The pars distalis and the pars tuberalis comprise:
a. The anterior pituitary
b. The hypothalamus
c. The posterior pituitary
d. The adrenal gland
e. The thyroid gland
A
How many hormones do the five types of anterior pituitary cells secrete?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 12
e. unlimited
B
Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
a. Thyrotrophs
b. Gonadotrophs
c. Somatotrophs
d. Lactotrophs
e. Corticotrophs
C
Which hormones does the posterior pituitary produce?
a. Prolactin and Human Growth hormone
b. Melatonin stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
c. Oxytocin and Antidiruetic hormone
d. Follicle stimulating hormone and Thyroid stimulating hormone
e. Prolactin and ACTH
C
The amount of ADH that is secreted varies with
a. Blood osmotic pressure
b. Blood calcium levels
c. Oxygen content of blood
d. Blood levels of glucose
e. All of the above
A
Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?
a. Thyroid stimulating hormone
b. Testesterone
c. Insulin
d. Calcitonin
e. Calcitriol
D
Which of the following is not a means of synthesizing and secreting T3 and T4.
a. Iodide trapping
b. Oxidation of iodide
c. Coupling of T1 and T2
d. Hydrolysis of calcium
e. Iodination of tyrosine
D
Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of which ions in the blood?
a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride
e. Manganese
A
Complete loss of the Aldosterone will lead to death due to:
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Decreased airway dilation
c. Dehydration
d. No oxygen to the brain
e. Kidney failure
C
Which of the following is not a glucocorticoid effect?
a. Protein and fat breakdown
b. Glucose formation
c. Immune suppression
d. Reduction of inflammation
e. Increase in blood cell production
E
Which blood glucose lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
a. Insulin
b. Plasma proteins
c. Blood cotting factors
d. Thyroid hormones
e. Calcitonin
A
Which hormone is promotes metabolic rate?
a. Insulin
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c. Glucagon
d. Thyroid hormone
e. Calcitonin
D
Which hormone is stimulated by decreases in blood glucose?
a. Insulin
b. Leutinizing hormone
c. Glucagon
d. Parathyroid hormone
e. Calcitonin
C
Which of the below hormones is part of the body’s long term response to stress?
a. Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroid hormone
b. hGH, Insulin, Aldosterone
c. Cortisol, hGH, Thyroid hormone
d. Parathyroid hormone, Cortisol, hGH
e. Calcitonin, Thyroid hormone, Insulin
C
The responses of the body to long term stress does NOT include which one of the following responses.
a. Lipolysis
b. Glycogenesis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Increased heart rate
e. Breakdown of proteins
D
This is an amine hormone derived from seratonin.
a. Melatonin
b. Melanin
c. Glucose
d. Glucocorticoid
e. Eicosanoid
A
This gland secretes hGH, TSH and FSH among other hormones.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. I
e. D
B
The hormones from this gland help regulate metabolism.
a. C
b. D
c. A
d. G
e. I
A
This gland’s hormones help regulate blood calcium levels.
a. B
b. A
c. H
d. D
e. I
E
This gland produces stress reducing steroid hormones.
a. D
b. G
c. H
d. I
e. F
C
Which step represents the synthesis of TGB?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 7
B
Which step represents coupling of T1 and T2?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 7
C
Which cell secretes glucagon?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
B
Which cell secretes the blood glucose-reducing hormone?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
C
Which cell secretes somatostatin?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
D
