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Healthy Pop Exam 3 > Wildlife > Flashcards

Wildlife Flashcards

1
Q

What population of animals is thought to be the greatest contributor to the contamination of the environment with Toxoplasma gondii oocysts?

A

(Feral cats)

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2
Q

Can humans obtained Toxoplasma gondii in the following manner:
Via contaminated soil around their homes, such as vegetable gardens?

A

(Yes)

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3
Q

Can humans obtained Toxoplasma gondii in the following manner:
Via tap water?

A

(No, contamination of tap water is not reported)

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4
Q

Can humans obtained Toxoplasma gondii in the following manner:
Via shellfish?

A

(Yes, runoff containing oocysts enters rivers and oceans and shellfish that filter feed such as oysters can contain oocysts for months)

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5
Q

Can humans obtained Toxoplasma gondii in the following manner:
Via handling wildlife and/or zoo animals?

A

(Yes, any felid could be passing oocysts)

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6
Q

(T/F) Any warm-blooded wildlife species can carry Toxoplasma gondii tissue cysts.

A

(T)

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7
Q

What are the two ways that zoo or wildlife veterinarians can be exposed to Toxoplasma gondii tissue cysts?

A

(Necropsy and handling aborted fetuses/placentas)

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8
Q

Is Cryptosporidium parvum a waterborne pathogen?

A

(Yes bc oocysts are infective as soon as they are passed in feces so wildlife taking a dump in water can make it infective)

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9
Q

What is the causative agent of beaver fever?

A

(Giardia duodenalis)

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10
Q

(T/F) Both the species of Echinococcus (granulosus and multilocularis) are zoonotic.

A

(T)

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11
Q

(T/F) Infections with Echinococcus in definitive hosts is typically asymptomatic while intermediates hosts will have clinical disease.

A

(T, intermediate hosts get alveolar echinococcosis after ingesting eggs)

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12
Q

What parasite should you add to your differential list for a dog with an abdominal mass living in the eastern US?

A

(Echinococcus multilocularis)

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13
Q

What is the raccoon ascarid that undergoes vesicular and ocular larva migrans similarly to Toxocara?

A

(Baylisascaris procyonis)

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14
Q

(T/F) Unlike Toxocara, Baylisascaris larvae do not grow while in humans.

A

(F, Baylisascaris continues to grow in humans while Toxocara does not)

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15
Q

How do you use the IDEXX antigen test for Baylisascaris in dogs to distinguish between simple coprophagy and actual infection?

A

(If they have Baylisascaris eggs in their feces on fecal float but the antigen test is negative, that indicates coprophagy; if there are eggs on fecal float and the antigen test is positive, that indicates infection)

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16
Q

Human infections of Angiostrongylus cantonensis produce an eosinophilic meningoencephalitis similar to what other zoonotic parasite?

A

(Baylisascaris procyonis)

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17
Q

(T/F) You can obtain an Angiostrongylus cantonensis infection from both snails and rats.

A

(F, just the snails → need to ingest the 3rd larval stage which will then migrate to the CNS and cause severe to potentially fatal disease)

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18
Q

Exposure to what animal accounts for the largest proportion of humans cases of rabies in the U.S.?

A

(Bats)

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19
Q

What are the two forms of rabies?

A

(Dumb (Dr. Smith includes paralysis in this form) and furious)

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20
Q

What test for rabies, performed on brain tissue, is rapid, sensitive, and specific?

A

(Fluorescent antibody test)

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the oral rabies vaccine that was developed to immunize free-ranging carnivores that consume vaccine-laden bait?

A

(To prevent the westward spread of rabies, specifically the raccoon variant)

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22
Q

What tissue type does canine distemper have a tropism for?

A

(Epithelium → attacks the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract, GI tract, and eyes)

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23
Q

How is canine distemper transmitted? Three answers.

A

(Direct contact, aerosol of ocular or nasal secretions, and urine)

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24
Q

(T/F) There is no specific treatment for canine distemper.

A

(T)

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25
Q

Hemorrhagic disease of white tailed deer, which is characterized by fever, depression, oral cyanosis, pulmonary edema, respiratory distress, edema of multiple sites, hemorrhage at the base of the pulmonary artery, and death within 1 to 3 days, is caused by two closely related by distinct orbiviruses, what are those two viruses?

A

(Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus and bluetongue virus)

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26
Q

How is hemorrhagic disease transmitted in white tailed deer?

A

(Biting flies)

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27
Q

Is there a public health significance associated with hemorrhagic disease in white tailed deer?

A

(No)

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28
Q

What tissues are examined to make a chronic wasting disease diagnosis? Two answers.

A

(The obex of the medulla oblongata and the retropharyngeal lymph nodes)

29
Q

(T/F) There is no scientific evidence that chronic wasting disease has infected humans.

A

(T)

30
Q

What disease is caused by Pseudogymanoascus destructans?

A

(White-nosed syndrome of bats)

31
Q

Where does the fungal cause of white-nosed syndrome of bats thrive?

A

(Dark, low temperature, high humidity areas → all of which are perfect for bats too)

32
Q

Of rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus 1 and 2, which is associated with a lower mortality rate?

A

(RHDV2)

33
Q

What are the two forms of avian pox?

A

(Cutaneous or dry form → proliferative nodules on unfeathered body areas; diphtheritic or wet pox form → raised plaques in oral cavity or respiratory tract)

34
Q

What avian disease has two forms, is diagnosed via histopath, viral isolation, or PCR, is transmitted by mosquitoes or ingestion/inhalation, and poses no public health risk?

A

(Avian pox)

35
Q

What type of virus causes duck plague aka duck viral enteritis?

A

(Herpesvirus)

36
Q

Do survivors of duck plague clear the disease or become lifelong carriers?

A

(Become lifelong carriers)

37
Q

Duck plague is a seasonal disease, what season is it primarily seen in?

A

(Late spring → March to June)

38
Q

(T/F) There is a vaccine for duck plague.

A

(T, only approved for domestic ducks though, not wild or geese/swans)

39
Q

(T/F) Both HPAI and LPAI are reportable to WOAH.

A

(F, only HPAI)

40
Q

What is the causative agent of avian cholera?

A

(Pasteurella multocida)

41
Q

What season is avian cholera associated with?

A

(Winter)

42
Q

What are the liver lesions associated with avian cholera?

A

(Multifocal hepatic necrosis)

43
Q

Is there a public health risk associated with avian cholera?

A

(It is a low risk but there is some risk, can result in local infections or septicemia via inhalation)

44
Q

What is the virus that belongs to the family Bunyaviridae, that occurs primarily in the western USA, and of which the primary reservoir is rodents but they often have no clinical signs?

A

(Hantavirus)

45
Q

How is hantavirus transmitted to humans?

A

(Via inhalation of aerosolized particles from rodent urine, feces, or saliva and/or handling rodents)

46
Q

What is the gram negative coccobacillus causative agent of tularemia?

A

(Francisella tularensis)

47
Q

What is the more common route of transmission of tularemia to humans?

A

(Direct contact through skin, mostly associated with hunting rabbits; other routes of transmission are blood sucking arthropods, ingestion, inhalation, and contamination of wounds)

48
Q

Where does tularemia occur in the US for the most part?

A

(Central US)

49
Q

Where will the pinpoint white lesions be found on necropsy of a rabbit with tularemia?

A

(Liver and kidneys, will also find necrotic lnn and pneumonia)

50
Q

What is the causative agent of plague?

A

(Yersinia pestis)

51
Q

How is plague transmitted?

A

(Through flea bites)

52
Q

How is a definitive diagnosis obtained for plague? Two answers.

A

(Culture and immunohistochemistry)

53
Q

A provisional diagnosis of plague can be made by detecting bi-polar-staining gram negative coccobacillus from aspirates of what organ?

A

(Lymph nodes)

54
Q

What is the primary external indication of tuberculosis in deer?

A

(Chronic weight loss, will also have swollen lnn is head and cranial neck)

55
Q

A hunter approaches you because they noticed the deer they were field dressing had yellow/tan pea-sized nodules all over their lungs. What type of stain would you need to use to be able to identify this organism?

A

(This is indicative of Mycobacterium so you need to use an acid fast stain)

56
Q

What are the three forms of plague?

A

(Buboes → swelling and inflammation of the peripheral lnn; septicemia → nervous and cerebral symptoms; and pneumonic → can occur secondarily to bubonic or septicemic or primarily if the agent is inhaled)

57
Q

What is the causative agent of deer-fly fever, rabbit fever, ohara’s disease, or francis’ disease?

A

(All other names for tularemia → Francisella tularensis)

58
Q

What are the signs of tularemia in cats? Three answers.

A

(Malaise, oral ulcers, and lymphadenopathy)

59
Q

What is the most common form of tularemia that humans get? (

A

Ulceroglandular → necrotic ulceration at the site of entry and local lymphadenopathy, case fatality rate is 5-7%)

60
Q

What is the most fatal form of tularemia that humans can get?

A

(The pneumonic form)

61
Q

What drugs can be used for treatment of tularemia?

A

(Aminoglycoside abx specifically → streptomycin or gentamicin)

62
Q

What is the reservoir for lyme disease?

A

(Rodents)

63
Q

What is the fancy term for the bullseye rash that develops 3 days to a month after receiving a bite from a tick carrying lyme disease?

A

(Erythema chronicum migrans)

64
Q

(T/F) The signs associated with hantavirus (flu-like with rapidly progressive bilateral pneumonia) are seen in both infected humans and rodents.

A

(F, just humans)

65
Q

What human populations is the bunyavirus disease California or LaCross encephalitis associated with? Two answers.

A

(Children and adolescents)

66
Q

What animal is the reservoir for California encephalitis?

A

(Rodents)

67
Q

How is lymphocytic choriomeningitis transmitted? Two answers.

A

(Via bite wounds/breaks in the skin or ingestion)

68
Q

What is the main concern with human infections of lymphocytic choriomeningitis?

A

(If a pregnant woman is infected, it can result in birth defects)

69
Q

What is the reservoir for macacine herpesvirus 1 aka herpesvirus B? Be specific.

A

(Rhesus monkeys)

Healthy Pop Exam 3 (7 decks)

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