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Healthy Pop Exam 3 > Food > Flashcards

Food Flashcards

1
Q

What are the high and low proper holding temperatures for food?

A

(Below 40 degrees and above 140 degrees F)

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2
Q

Solid meats should be cooked to a minimum of what temperature to prevent food-borne disease?

A

(145 degrees F)

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3
Q

What type of food products is Salmonella enteritidis associated with?

A

(Poultry especially eggs and egg products)

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4
Q

Which of the Salmonella serovars is associated with milk products?

A

(Salmonella dublin)

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5
Q

(T/F) The growth of Salmonella on contaminated food does not alter the flavor, appearance, or taste of the food.

A

(T)

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6
Q

People typically experience signs associated with Staphylococcal food poisoning within how many hours of ingesting contaminated food?

A

(2-4 hours)

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7
Q

What type of Clostridium perfringens is associated with precooking, improper storage of food, and eating leftovers?

A

(A)

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8
Q

(T/F) Recovery from botulism takes 6-8 weeks.

A

(F, up to 6-8 months)

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9
Q

Why should babies under the age of one not be fed honey?

A

(They will not have established bacterial flora that can inhibit C. botulinum from colonizing their intestinal tract)

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10
Q

Which bacteria and its toxin is most likely implicated in a case of food borne disease related to canned food?

A

(Clostridium botulinum, specifically types A and B are associated with improper canning)

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11
Q

What agent is associated with milk, vegetables, poultry and processed meats and can cause chills, fever, headache, septicemia, and possibly abortions in pregnant women?

A

(Listeria monocytogenes)

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12
Q

(T/F) Listeria monocytogenes can replicate in the refrigerator so control is through pasteurization, proper cooking, and preventing cross contamination.

A

(T)

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13
Q

What agent is the most common cause of bacterial enteritis in humans, is associated with cattle, poultry, shellfish, and produce, and may also come from puppies and kittens with diarrhea?

A

(Campylobacter jejuni)

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14
Q

Some of the sequelae of campylobacteriosis are hemolytic uremia syndrome, guillain-barre syndrome, and one other disease; what is the disease?

A

(Reactive arthritis)

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15
Q

Why are many outbreaks of campylobacteriosis associated with cross contamination?

A

(Because the infectious dose is so low)

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16
Q

What is the most common food borne cause of acute renal failure in children?

A

(Infection with 0157: H7 E. coli)

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17
Q

(T/F) Animals will never show signs of 0157:H7 E. coli infection.

A

(F, calves may develop bloody diarrhea; slaughter age cattle or older are asymptomatic)

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18
Q

What type of diet is associated with decreasing the number of E. coli organisms in the gut of ruminants?

A

(Low concentrate diets)

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19
Q

What type of diet is associated with increasing the number of E. coli organisms in the gut of ruminants?

A

(Feeding distillers grain)

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20
Q

Outbreaks of 0157:H7 E. coli is associated with what food primarily?

A

(Improperly cooked meat, especially hamburger → also contaminated vegetables, flour, milk, etc.)

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21
Q

What is the toxin produced by 0157:H7 E. coli that causes uremic hemolytic syndrome and subsequent death?

A

(Shigella toxin)

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22
Q

(T/F) Infection of shellfish with Vibrio spp. is associated with polluted and/or contaminated water.

A

(F, Vibrio is a naturally occurring infection in water, specifically warmer water)

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23
Q

Of the Vibrio species that cause issues in humans, Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus, which is associated with septicemia in individuals with a compromised immune system?

A

(Vibrio vulnificus → fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and septicemia in individuals with compromised immune systems; Vibrio parahaemolyticus → acute gastroenteritis, vomiting, fever, diarrhea, all usually lasting 3 days)

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24
Q

(T/F) Cooking does not inactive ciguatoxin.

A

(T)

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25
Q

What toxicoses are associated with dinoflagellate algae? Two answers.

A

(Ciguatera fish poisoning and paralytic shellfish poisoning)

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26
Q

What two bacteria are associated with the breakdown of tryptophan in the muscle of fish to histamine, resulting in Scombroid toxicity?

A

(Proteus and Klebsiella)

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27
Q

How is scombroid toxicity prevented?

A

(Proper refrigeration of fish → lack of refrigeration from the time of harvesting to preparation allows bacteria to proliferate and spoil the fish)

28
Q

How long should pork be kept at 5 degrees F to prevent the transmission of Trichinella?

A

(20 days)

29
Q

Why can freezing meat of other species besides swine not be relied on to kill Trichinella?

A

(There are freeze resistant species of Trichinella)

30
Q

What is the minimum temperature pork should be cooked to to prevent the transmission of Trichinella?

A

(137 degrees F)

31
Q

What is the element of food security that is defined as the ability to acquire sufficient food to be able to eat healthy?

A

(Food access)

32
Q

What are the four components of food security?

A

(Food availability, food access, food utilization, and food stability)

33
Q

What is the element of food security that is defined as sufficient quantity and diversity of foods to meet nutritional needs?

A

(Food utilization)

34
Q

What does CARVER + Shock stand for?

A

(Criticality, accessibility, recuperability, vulnerability, effect, recognizability + shock)

35
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool measures public health and economic impacts of a potential attack?

A

(Criticality)

36
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool evaluates the ability to physically access and egress from the target facility?

A

(Accessibility)

37
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool evaluates the ability of a system to recover from an attack?

A

(Recuperability)

38
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool assesses the ease of accomplishing an attack on a facility?

A

(Vulnerability)

39
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool evaluates the amount of direct loss from an attack as measured by loss in production?

A

(Effect)

40
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool assess the ease of identifying a target facility?

A

(Recognizability)

41
Q

Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool looks at the combined health, economic, and psychological impacts of an attack?

A

(Shock)

42
Q

What are the five steps to using the CARVER + Shock assessment tool?

A

(1. establish assessment parameters, 2. assemble a team of experts to conduct the assessment, 3. develop process flow charts, 4. score and rank, 5. develop mitigation strategies)

43
Q

The bacterial count needs to be less than what value for milk to be considered grade A?

A

(Less than 100,000 cells/ml)

44
Q

The somatic cell count needs to be less than what value for milk to be considered grade A?

A

(Less than 750,000 cells/ml)

45
Q

Grade A milk needs to be at what temperature within less than 2 hours and remain at or below that temperature during storage.

A

(40 degrees F)

46
Q

What is the test used to determine if water has been added to milk?

A

(Cryoscope test)

47
Q

What test is used to estimate the shelf life of milk?

A

(The preliminary incubation count or PI count)

48
Q

What is important to know about thermoduric bacteria such as lactobacilli and enterococci?

A

(They are not removed by pasteurization; pasteurization only removes pathogenic bacteria)

49
Q

Why can psychrotrophic bacteria still produce an off flavor in milk when they do not survive pasteurization?

A

(Bc their enzyme products do survive pasteurization and cause the off flavor)

50
Q

What test is used to confirm appropriate pasteurization of milk?

A

(The alkaline phosphatase test)

51
Q

How long does milk need to be kept at 145 degrees F to be considered pasteurized?

A

(30 minutes)

52
Q

How long does milk need to be kept at 161 degrees F to be considered pasteurized?

A

(15 seconds → flash pasteurization)

53
Q

How long does milk need to be kept at 280 degrees F to be considered sterile?

A

(2 seconds → ultra high temperature milk)

54
Q

What two components cause variation in milk fat content?

A

(Breed and diet fed)

55
Q

Does a high fiber or high grain diet result in milk with a higher fat content?

A

(High fiber → high grain diets suppress fat content)

56
Q

How is alkaline phosphatase used to check milk for pasteurization?

A

(Alkaline phosphatase is deactivated by pasteurization so you can check for AP activity to ensure pasteurization has occurred)

57
Q

(T/F) There are exceptions to the rule that all meat must be inspected, established by the Wholesome Meat Inspection act of 1967.

A

(T, custom slaughtered animals do not need to be inspected)

58
Q

What are the five methods of humane slaughter?

A

(Captive bolt, gunshot, carbon dioxide, electrical stunning, kosher kill)

59
Q

(T/F) Antemortem inspection of slaughter animals can occur within a week of their slaughter day.

A

(F, has to be done the day they are to be slaughtered)

60
Q

You observe a slaughter animal inspector performing inspections. They walk around a pen of cows, some of which are laying down, others are pacing, and others are standing in a corner. The inspector seems to deem everyone good to go, and signs them off as passed. What is the issue with this scenario?

A

(The inspector did not see some of them moving → all animals need to be examined at rest and in motion)

61
Q

(T/F) Suspect and condemned animals are destroyed.

A

(F, suspects are killed separately from passed animals but are not destroyed, they are more thoroughly examined after slaughter)

62
Q

What are the four sets of lymph nodes that are examined in relation to the head of a slaughtered animal?

A

(Parotid, retropharyngeal, mandibular, and atlantooccipital lnn)

63
Q

What is the most common cause of drug residues?

A

(Failure to observe withdraw times)

64
Q

If you are using an extralabel drug in your food animal and cannot determine a withdrawal time, what is the standard withdrawal time you should default to?

A

(6 months)

65
Q

What is the mode of action of bovine somatotropin?

A

(Stimulates the liver to produce IGF-1 which regulates the conversion of dietary nutrients to milk)

66
Q

(T/F) There is no public health significance to the use of rBST in dairy cows.

A

(T)

67
Q

Where are hormonal growth implants administered to food animals?

A

(Middle third of the ear)

Healthy Pop Exam 3 (7 decks)

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