Food Flashcards
What are the high and low proper holding temperatures for food?
(Below 40 degrees and above 140 degrees F)
Solid meats should be cooked to a minimum of what temperature to prevent food-borne disease?
(145 degrees F)
What type of food products is Salmonella enteritidis associated with?
(Poultry especially eggs and egg products)
Which of the Salmonella serovars is associated with milk products?
(Salmonella dublin)
(T/F) The growth of Salmonella on contaminated food does not alter the flavor, appearance, or taste of the food.
(T)
People typically experience signs associated with Staphylococcal food poisoning within how many hours of ingesting contaminated food?
(2-4 hours)
What type of Clostridium perfringens is associated with precooking, improper storage of food, and eating leftovers?
(A)
(T/F) Recovery from botulism takes 6-8 weeks.
(F, up to 6-8 months)
Why should babies under the age of one not be fed honey?
(They will not have established bacterial flora that can inhibit C. botulinum from colonizing their intestinal tract)
Which bacteria and its toxin is most likely implicated in a case of food borne disease related to canned food?
(Clostridium botulinum, specifically types A and B are associated with improper canning)
What agent is associated with milk, vegetables, poultry and processed meats and can cause chills, fever, headache, septicemia, and possibly abortions in pregnant women?
(Listeria monocytogenes)
(T/F) Listeria monocytogenes can replicate in the refrigerator so control is through pasteurization, proper cooking, and preventing cross contamination.
(T)
What agent is the most common cause of bacterial enteritis in humans, is associated with cattle, poultry, shellfish, and produce, and may also come from puppies and kittens with diarrhea?
(Campylobacter jejuni)
Some of the sequelae of campylobacteriosis are hemolytic uremia syndrome, guillain-barre syndrome, and one other disease; what is the disease?
(Reactive arthritis)
Why are many outbreaks of campylobacteriosis associated with cross contamination?
(Because the infectious dose is so low)
What is the most common food borne cause of acute renal failure in children?
(Infection with 0157: H7 E. coli)
(T/F) Animals will never show signs of 0157:H7 E. coli infection.
(F, calves may develop bloody diarrhea; slaughter age cattle or older are asymptomatic)
What type of diet is associated with decreasing the number of E. coli organisms in the gut of ruminants?
(Low concentrate diets)
What type of diet is associated with increasing the number of E. coli organisms in the gut of ruminants?
(Feeding distillers grain)
Outbreaks of 0157:H7 E. coli is associated with what food primarily?
(Improperly cooked meat, especially hamburger → also contaminated vegetables, flour, milk, etc.)
What is the toxin produced by 0157:H7 E. coli that causes uremic hemolytic syndrome and subsequent death?
(Shigella toxin)
(T/F) Infection of shellfish with Vibrio spp. is associated with polluted and/or contaminated water.
(F, Vibrio is a naturally occurring infection in water, specifically warmer water)
Of the Vibrio species that cause issues in humans, Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus, which is associated with septicemia in individuals with a compromised immune system?
(Vibrio vulnificus → fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and septicemia in individuals with compromised immune systems; Vibrio parahaemolyticus → acute gastroenteritis, vomiting, fever, diarrhea, all usually lasting 3 days)
(T/F) Cooking does not inactive ciguatoxin.
(T)
What toxicoses are associated with dinoflagellate algae? Two answers.
(Ciguatera fish poisoning and paralytic shellfish poisoning)
What two bacteria are associated with the breakdown of tryptophan in the muscle of fish to histamine, resulting in Scombroid toxicity?
(Proteus and Klebsiella)
How is scombroid toxicity prevented?
(Proper refrigeration of fish → lack of refrigeration from the time of harvesting to preparation allows bacteria to proliferate and spoil the fish)
How long should pork be kept at 5 degrees F to prevent the transmission of Trichinella?
(20 days)
Why can freezing meat of other species besides swine not be relied on to kill Trichinella?
(There are freeze resistant species of Trichinella)
What is the minimum temperature pork should be cooked to to prevent the transmission of Trichinella?
(137 degrees F)
What is the element of food security that is defined as the ability to acquire sufficient food to be able to eat healthy?
(Food access)
What are the four components of food security?
(Food availability, food access, food utilization, and food stability)
What is the element of food security that is defined as sufficient quantity and diversity of foods to meet nutritional needs?
(Food utilization)
What does CARVER + Shock stand for?
(Criticality, accessibility, recuperability, vulnerability, effect, recognizability + shock)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool measures public health and economic impacts of a potential attack?
(Criticality)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool evaluates the ability to physically access and egress from the target facility?
(Accessibility)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool evaluates the ability of a system to recover from an attack?
(Recuperability)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool assesses the ease of accomplishing an attack on a facility?
(Vulnerability)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool evaluates the amount of direct loss from an attack as measured by loss in production?
(Effect)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool assess the ease of identifying a target facility?
(Recognizability)
Which of the attributes of the CARVER + Shock assessment tool looks at the combined health, economic, and psychological impacts of an attack?
(Shock)
What are the five steps to using the CARVER + Shock assessment tool?
(1. establish assessment parameters, 2. assemble a team of experts to conduct the assessment, 3. develop process flow charts, 4. score and rank, 5. develop mitigation strategies)
The bacterial count needs to be less than what value for milk to be considered grade A?
(Less than 100,000 cells/ml)
The somatic cell count needs to be less than what value for milk to be considered grade A?
(Less than 750,000 cells/ml)
Grade A milk needs to be at what temperature within less than 2 hours and remain at or below that temperature during storage.
(40 degrees F)
What is the test used to determine if water has been added to milk?
(Cryoscope test)
What test is used to estimate the shelf life of milk?
(The preliminary incubation count or PI count)
What is important to know about thermoduric bacteria such as lactobacilli and enterococci?
(They are not removed by pasteurization; pasteurization only removes pathogenic bacteria)
Why can psychrotrophic bacteria still produce an off flavor in milk when they do not survive pasteurization?
(Bc their enzyme products do survive pasteurization and cause the off flavor)
What test is used to confirm appropriate pasteurization of milk?
(The alkaline phosphatase test)
How long does milk need to be kept at 145 degrees F to be considered pasteurized?
(30 minutes)
How long does milk need to be kept at 161 degrees F to be considered pasteurized?
(15 seconds → flash pasteurization)
How long does milk need to be kept at 280 degrees F to be considered sterile?
(2 seconds → ultra high temperature milk)
What two components cause variation in milk fat content?
(Breed and diet fed)
Does a high fiber or high grain diet result in milk with a higher fat content?
(High fiber → high grain diets suppress fat content)
How is alkaline phosphatase used to check milk for pasteurization?
(Alkaline phosphatase is deactivated by pasteurization so you can check for AP activity to ensure pasteurization has occurred)
(T/F) There are exceptions to the rule that all meat must be inspected, established by the Wholesome Meat Inspection act of 1967.
(T, custom slaughtered animals do not need to be inspected)
What are the five methods of humane slaughter?
(Captive bolt, gunshot, carbon dioxide, electrical stunning, kosher kill)
(T/F) Antemortem inspection of slaughter animals can occur within a week of their slaughter day.
(F, has to be done the day they are to be slaughtered)
You observe a slaughter animal inspector performing inspections. They walk around a pen of cows, some of which are laying down, others are pacing, and others are standing in a corner. The inspector seems to deem everyone good to go, and signs them off as passed. What is the issue with this scenario?
(The inspector did not see some of them moving → all animals need to be examined at rest and in motion)
(T/F) Suspect and condemned animals are destroyed.
(F, suspects are killed separately from passed animals but are not destroyed, they are more thoroughly examined after slaughter)
What are the four sets of lymph nodes that are examined in relation to the head of a slaughtered animal?
(Parotid, retropharyngeal, mandibular, and atlantooccipital lnn)
What is the most common cause of drug residues?
(Failure to observe withdraw times)
If you are using an extralabel drug in your food animal and cannot determine a withdrawal time, what is the standard withdrawal time you should default to?
(6 months)
What is the mode of action of bovine somatotropin?
(Stimulates the liver to produce IGF-1 which regulates the conversion of dietary nutrients to milk)
(T/F) There is no public health significance to the use of rBST in dairy cows.
(T)
Where are hormonal growth implants administered to food animals?
(Middle third of the ear)
