Week Ten Flashcards

Exam Four

1
Q

Define Evidence Based Practice

A

The formulation of treatment decisions by using the best available research evidence and integrating this evidence with the practitioner’s skill and experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Purpose of Nursing Care Plan

A

Describes routine care to meet basic needs, addresses nursing diagnosis and collaborative problems, specific nursing responsibilities in carrying out the plan of care, must include the client if the plan is to be effective, incorporates client values, beliefs, and preferences, encourages active participation from client/caregivers/family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Essential Components of nursing interventions

A

what, when, how

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the criteria for therapeutic nursing interventions?

A

safe, appropriate, achievable, belief/value sensitive, not contraindicated, based on nursing knowledge, within established standards of care, appropriate cognitive, interpersonal and psychomotor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dependent TNI

A

Physician initiated. Activities that are carried out under the physician’s orders or supervision, or according to specified routes. Ex. Med administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Independent TNI

A

Nurse Initiated. Activities a nurse may initiate on the basis of their licensure, knowledge and skills. Ex. Assessing stool consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Collaborative TNI

A

Collaborative actions the nurse carries out with other health team members. Reflect overlapping responsibilities and collegial relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are TNIs prioritized?

A

Maslow’s hierarchy, high priority, intermediate priority, low priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

High Priority

A

Life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Intermediate priority

A

Health Threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Low Priority

A

normal development, minimal nursing support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Types of TNIs

A

observations/assessments, prevention strategies, treatments, health promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Steps in Implementation

A

reassessing client, determining need for assistance, implementing nursing strategies, communicate/document nursing actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Reassessing Client

A

Is intervention still needed? Are priorities still correct?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Determining need for assistance

A

Perform safely alone? Knowledge/skills?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Implementing nursing strategies

A

explain rationale, evidenced based practice, do I understand the interventions? are the interventions individualized for this client? are the interventions safe, holistic, education based, supporting, and comforting? Have I encouraged client active participation?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Communicate/Document nursing actions

A

Record TNI and client response, document immediately but never in advance, what will I need to communicate in my nurse’s note? in report? to the physician?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define Evaluation

A

Deliberate, systematic process in which a judgement is made about the quality, value, or worth of something by comparing it to previously identified criteria or standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Evaluation in the nursing process

A

A planned, ongoing, deliverate activity in which the client, family, nurse, and other health care professionals determine the client’s progress toward outcome achievement and the effectiveness of the nursing plan of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does evaluation relate to the other phases of the nursing process?

A

uses predetermined criteria (OUTCOMES) from the planning step, assessment data must be accurate and complete so the the correct diagnoses are chosen and that the criteria written in the outcomes phase are appropriate for the client, the TNIs must be stated in concrete, behavioral, and measurable terms if they are to be useful for evaluating, evaluation does not end the process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two steps in the evaluation phase of the nursing process?

A

evaluate outcome attainment and modify care plan prn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Evaluate outcome attainment

A

collect data related to desired outcomes, compare data with the outcomes, relate nursing activities to outcomes, draw conclusions about problem status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do we know when to evaluate the outcome?

A

When the established timeframe has occurred or when there is a change in the client’s condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the evaluative statement consist of?

A

Date, conclusion of judgement about whether the outcome was achieved, data to support this judgement, your signature, your title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Modifying care plan

A

extend timeframe, develop new outcomes, develop new TNIs, continue, choose new nursing diagnoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do you report/record the effectiveness of care given?

A

change in client status, during shift to shift report; on flow sheets, nursing progress notes, nursing care plans, transfer documentation, interdisciplinary rounds/meeting where client needs are discussed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the body sites used for intradermal injections?

A

inner lower arm, the upper chest, and the back beneath the scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Intradermal

A

under the epidermis, into the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the reasons for intradermal injections?

A

Allergy testing and tuberculosis screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which arm is commonly used for TB screening?

A

left arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the maximum amount of solution that can be administered into one site on an adult (intadermal)?

A

0.5 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the needle gauge for intradermal injections?

A

25-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the needle length for intradermal injections?

A

1/4-5/8in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the needle length of a Z-Track injection?

A

1-1 1/2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the needle gauge of a Z-Track injection?

A

21-23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How long should you aspirate for a Z-Track injection?

A

5-10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should you NEVER do after you perform a Z-Track injection?

A

Massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When should you release the skin/muscle that was pulled taut for the Z-Track injection?

A

after you have injected the medication and removed the needle at the same angle of insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the main concern with administration of oxygen?

A

Oxygen can facilitate combustion when fire (or spark) is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What should an RN teach clients when oxygen treatments are being used?

A

the importance of smoking away from the oxygen equipment, place no smoking signs on client’s door, teach client about fire hazard and oxygen, make sure that electric devices (hearing aids, radios, televisions, heating pads, razors) are in good working condition, avoid materials that may generate static electricity (no wool, use cotton), avoid use of alcohol, oils, greases, acetone, and ether, know the location of fire extinguishers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Nasal Cannula (nasal prongs)

A

The most common and inexpensive device used to administer oxygen. It goes into the nose and rests on ears. Delivers a relatively low concentration of oxygen of 24-45% at flow rates of 2-6L/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Non Rebreather Mask

A

Delivers the highest oxygen concentration possible - 95-100% at flow rates of 10-15 L/minute. One way valves on the mask and between the reservoir bag and the mask prevent the room and exhaled air from entering the bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Venturi Mask

A

Delivers oxygen concentrations from 24-40% or 50% at flow rates of 4-10 L/minute. Has colored tubing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Partial Rebreather MAsk

A

Delivers oxygen concentrations of 40-60% at flow rates of 6-10L/min. Oxygen reservoir bag attached.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Simple Face Mask or Standard Face Mask

A

Delivers oxygen at concentrations from 40-60% at flow rates of 5-8L/min, respectively.

46
Q

Sunction

A

Aspirating secretions through a catheter connected to a suction machine or a wall suction outlet.

47
Q

Oropharyngeal Suctioning

A

Removes secretions from the upper respiratory tract.

48
Q

Yankauer Device

A

An oral suction device used to suction the oral cavity

49
Q

Sputum

A

The mucous secretion from the lungs, bronchi, and trachea

50
Q

What is the first thing you need to do when you implement?

A

Reassess the patient

51
Q

What are the guideline for developing a nursing care plan?

A

all caregivers work towards common goal and same outcomes with approaches that have been shown to be effective for this client, nursing actions should address the nursing diagnosis and produce desired outcomes, should be on-going beginning with the first contact and updated based on client’s responses, condition and evaluation of goal achievement, the completed care plan: - describes routine care to meet basic needs - addresses nursing diagnosis and collaborative problems - Specific nursing responsibilities in carrying out the plan of care - must include the client if the plan is to be effective - incorporates client values, beliefs, and preferences - encourages active participation from client/caregivers/family (all)`

52
Q

Why are nursing care plans important?

A

learning activity that promotes critical thinking, processing nursing knowledge and is the plan of care to be provided

53
Q

What is the primary source of data for the evaluation phase of the nursing process?

A

client

54
Q

Where does sputum come from?

A

Lungs, bronchi, trachea

55
Q

When do you collect a sputum specimen?

A

In the morning or during postural drainage.

56
Q

Expectorate

A

Cough up

57
Q

Steps in obtaining sputum culture

A

Oral care, breathe deeply, expectorate 1-2 tsp sputum into specimen container, mouthwash, label, transport specimen or refrigerate, document

58
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Blood in sputum

59
Q

What should be documented c a sputum specimen?

A

Amount, color, consistency, hemoptysis, odor, measures needed to obtain specimen, patient response/discomfort

60
Q

If a client could not cough, how would you obtain a sputum specimen?

A

Pharyngeal suctioning

61
Q

What are important considerations when obtaining a sputum specimen?

A

Gloves, PPE, special precautions for acid-fast bacillus (TB), do not let sputum touch outside of container

62
Q

When should a sputum specimen be sent to the lab after collection?

A

Stat

63
Q

Where is a throat culture sample collected from?

A

Mucosa of the oropharynx and tonsillar regions using a culture swab

64
Q

Who should perform a throat culture?

A

the nurse or physician

65
Q

What are the steps in performing a throat culture?

A

clean gloves, insert a swab into the oropharynx and then run the swab along the tonsils and areas on the pharynx that are reddened or contain exudate

66
Q

How should a patient be positioned for a throat culture?

A

sitting upright

67
Q

How can you decrease or avoid the gag reflex in a patient when performing a throat culture?

A

sit upright, open mouth, extend tongue and say “ah,” take specimen quickly

68
Q

What is the rationale behind having a client sit upright, open mouth, extend tongue and say “ah” during a throat culture?

A

The sitting position and extension of the tongue exposes the pharynx. Saying “ah” relaxes the throat muscles and helps minimize contraction of the constrictor muscle of the pharynx

69
Q

What is the term for an inadequate amount of oxygen that leads to cell death?

A

hypoxia

70
Q

Who is oxygen prescribed by?

A

primary care physician orders

71
Q

When is a time when a nurse can administer oxygen therapy before contacting the PCP?

A

In an emergency, a nurse may initiate 1st and call PCP after for an order

72
Q

What are the reasons that someone would require oxygen therapy?

A

hypoxemia, hyperventilation, substantial loss of lung tissue, severe anemia, blood loss, condition there is inadequate numbers of RBCs or hemoglobin to carry oxygen

73
Q

Hypoxemia

A

abnormally low concentration of oxygen in the blood

74
Q

Hypoxia

A

inadequate amount of oxygen in the tissues

75
Q

Hyperventilation

A

an increase in depth and rate of breathing great than demanded by the body needs

76
Q

What is the problem with too much oxygen therapy?

A

pulmonary oxygen toxicity, absorption atelectasis, or hypercapnia

77
Q

Hypercapnia/Hypercarbia

A

abnormally high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood

78
Q

When can oxygen toxicity develop?

A

From breathing 60% oxygen for 24 hours

79
Q

What does oxygen do to the mucous membranes?

A

oxygen drys mucous membranes out

80
Q

What are the two ways oxygen is contained for oxygen therapy?

A

cylinders/tanks or wall outlets

81
Q

What administration devices are used to deliver low-flow oxygen therapy?

A

nasal cannulas, face masks, oxygen tents, and transtracheal catheters

82
Q

What administration devices are used to deliver high-flow oxygen therapy?

A

Venturi Mask with large-bore tubing

83
Q

What type of oxygen delivery system is this woman using?

A

nasal cannula (nasal prongs)

84
Q

What are limitations to the nasal cannula?

A

It can be drying and irritatiing to the mucous membranes and it does not have the ability to deliver higher concentrations of oxygen

85
Q

What type of oxygen delivery system is this woman using?

A

A simple fask mask

86
Q

What are the differences between the patiral rebreather mask and the non-rebreather mask?

A

There are one way valves on the NRM that prevent the room air and the client’s exhaled air from entering the bag so only the oxygen in the bag is inspired. NRM delivers 95-100% concentration at liter flows of 10-15L/minute and the PRM delivers oxygen concentrations of 40-60% at 6-10L/minute.

87
Q

What type of oxygen delivery system is this woman using?

A

venturi mask

88
Q

What are the purposes of the nasal cannula?

A

to deliver a relatively low concentration of oxygen when only minimal O2 support is required, to allow uninterrupted delivery of oxygen while the client ingests food or fluids

89
Q

What are the purposes of a face mask?

A

to provide mod. O2 support and higher concentration of oxygen and/or humidity than is provided by cannula

90
Q

What position is ideal for oxygen therapy?

A

semi-fowler’s position as the position permts easier chest expansion and therefore easier breathing

91
Q

What should be checked frequently during oxygen therapy VIA a face mask?

A

Skin. Look for dampness of chafing and dry and treat prn

92
Q

What are the purposes of oropharynxgeal suctioning?

A

to remove secretions that obstruct the airway, to facilitate ventilation, to obtain secretions for diagnositc purposes, to prevent infection that ma result from accumulated secretions

93
Q

What are the signs that oropharynxgeal suctioning may be required?

A

restlessness. anxiety. noisy respirations. adventitious breath sounds when the client’s chest is auscultated.

94
Q

What should the care provider do before suctioning with Yankauer catheter?

A

Moisten to tip of the Yankauer with sterile water or saline to reduce fristion and ease insertion

95
Q

What is the purpose of administering an intradermal injection?

A

To provide a medication that the client requires for allergy testing and TB screening

96
Q

What would you assess for before giving an intradermal injection?

A

appearance of injection site, specific drug action and expected response, client’s knowledge of drug action and response, agency protocol about sites to use for skin tests

97
Q

Which hand and side of hand should you use for a Z-Track IM injection?

A

ulnar side of the non-dominant hand

98
Q

What are the IM injection sites?

A

deltoid, dorsal gluteal, vastas lateralis, ventral gluteal

99
Q

RD

A

right deltoid

100
Q

RDG

A

right dorsal gluteal

101
Q

RVL

A

right vastas lateralis

102
Q

RVG

A

right ventral gluteal

103
Q

LD

A

left deltoid

104
Q

LDG

A

left dorsal gluteal

105
Q

LVL

A

left vastus lateralis

106
Q

LVG

A

left ventral gluteal

107
Q

What angle should a intradermal injection be administered?

A

5-15 degrees

108
Q

Z-Track IM injections should only be administered where?

A

upper outer quadrant of buttox

109
Q

How far should you pull the skin to the side for a Z-Track IM injection?

A

1 inch

110
Q

Why do we put an air lock on IM injections?

A

To makes sure that all of the medication in the needle goes into the syringe before the needle is changed to the needle you will inject the patient with. The air will also be the last to leave the syringe, therefore making an air barrier so that the medication is better absorped.

111
Q

How much of an air lock for Z-Track IM injections?

A

0.2-0.3 mL of air aspirated after drawing up correct dose and before changing needles