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Z Phase 1 Others > Week 9 > Flashcards

Week 9 Flashcards

1
Q

How big are the kidneys?

A

Approximately 11cm long

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2
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A

On the posterior abdominal wall, either side of the vertebral column, approximately at level T12 to L3.

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3
Q

Why does the right kidney lie slightly lower than the left?

A

The large right lobe of the liver restricts it superiorly.

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4
Q

What is the shape of the kidney?

A

The lateral margin of each kidney is smoothly convex, while the medial margin is concave, and further indented in the middle at the hilum.

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5
Q

What is the function of the hilum in the kidneys?

A

The renal vessels and the renal pelvis enter and exit the kidney.

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6
Q

What are the three layers of supportive tissue that cover each kidney?

A

The renal capsule, the adipose capsule and the renal fascia

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7
Q

What is the renal capsule?

A

A thin fibrous sac made of dense, irregular connective tissue that adheres closely to the kidney.

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8
Q

What is the function of the renal capsule?

A

It maintains the shape of the kidney and protects it from trauma and infection

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9
Q

What is the adipose capsule?

A

a layer of fat that surrounds the renal capsule of the kidney

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10
Q

What is the function of the adipose capsule?

A

It protects and supports the kidney

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11
Q

What is the renal fascia?

A

A layer of tissue that passes in front of and behind both kidneys. It is made of dense irregular connective tissue and attaches to the renal capsule by strings of fibres.

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12
Q

What is the function of the renal fascia?

A

It provides anchorage of the kidneys to surrounding structures

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13
Q

What is the renal cortex?

A

the outer 1 cm of the kidney that contains the arcuate and interlobular arteries and veins and cortical nephrons (except for parts of the loop of henle and the collecting tubules which descend into the medulla.

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14
Q

What function occurs in the renal cortex?

A

Ultra filtration

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15
Q

What are the renal columns?

A

Extensions of the cortex that project in between the pyramids of the medulla and help anchor the cortex.

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16
Q

What is the renal medulla?

A

The inner section of the kidney that lies deep to the cortex and contains the renal pyramid. The medulla appears striated as it contains the striated as it contains the tubular systems of the juxtamedullary nephrons, as parts of the loop of Henle and collecting tubules of the cortical nephrons

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17
Q

What are the renal calyces?

A

Renal pyramids drain into minor and major calyces which in turn empty into the renal pelvis, and ultimately, the ureter

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18
Q

What are the renal pyramids?

A

Cone shaped structures that terminate medially by protruding into the minor calyces. They appear striated because they are packed with bundles of nephron loops and collecting tubules, plus associated capillaries.

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19
Q

What is the renal papilla?

A

Where the tips of the pyramids protrude into the minor calyces. Here all the urine from the collecting tubules into the minor calyces.

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20
Q

What are minor calyces?

A

Cup like projections that surround the papilla of each pyramid. Several minor calyces converge to for a major calyce.

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21
Q

What are major calyces?

A

There are two or three in each kidney. They join to form the renal pelvis

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22
Q

what is the renal pelvis?

A

A single funnel shaped structure located centrally at the hilum of the kidney. it drains into the ureter

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23
Q

Outline the flow of urine?

A

Renal pyramid—papilla—minor calyces—major calyces—renal pelvis—ureter

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24
Q

What supplies blood to the kidneys?

A

Renal arteries arising directly from the abdominal aorta .

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25
Q

How much of the blood pumped out of the heart do the kidneys receive?

A

Since the kidneys are so important in the regulation of blood composition they receive roughly 20%

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26
Q

Where does the renal artery go?

A

It passes laterally from the abdominal aorta to reach the hilum of the kidney before branching into segmental arteries

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27
Q

Where do the segmental arteries go?

A

They branch from the renal artery and split into interlobar arteries

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28
Q

Where do the interlobar arteries go?

A

Pass through the renal columns

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29
Q

Where do the arcuate arteries go?

A

Leave the interlobar arteries at right angles to branch over the outer surface of the pyramid, forming an arterial anastamosis

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30
Q

How many renal pyramids are there?

A

8-10

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31
Q

What is an arterial anastomosis?

A

A connection between two arteries

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32
Q

Where do the interlobular arteries go?

A

They branch from the arcuate arteries to supply the cortex

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33
Q

What are the interlobular arteries also known as?

A

cortical radiate arteries

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34
Q

Outline the flow of blood into the kidneys?

A

Renal artery—segmental arteries—interlobar arteries—arcuate arteries—interlobular arteries—afferent arterioles

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35
Q

What are the afferent arterioles?

A

Each nephron receives one arteriole,which then divides again to form a plexus of capillaries of capillaries around the nephron

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36
Q

Outline how blood leaves the kidneys?

A

Efferent arterioles—arcuate veins—interlobar veins—renal vein

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37
Q

How big is the prostate?

A

Roughly 3cm in diameter

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38
Q

Where is the prostate situated?

A

Underneath the bladder, and it surrounds the beginning of the urethra

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39
Q

What travels through the prostate?

A

The prostatic urethra and ejaculatory ducts and open into the prostatic urethra

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40
Q

What is the prostate composed of?

A

Tubular alveolar glands supported by stromal connective tissue containing thick sheets of smooth muscle.

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41
Q

What are the functions of prostatic fluid?

A

-to aid sperm mobility
-aiding viability of sperm
-protects sperm against the acidic vaginal secretions

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42
Q

How many nephrons does each kidney have?

A

There is about 1 million in each kidney

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43
Q

What are nephrons?

A

The functional unit of the urinary system

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44
Q

What do nephrons consist of?

A

an intricate system of tubules surrounded by blood vessels.

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45
Q

What are the key functions of the kidneys?

A

Osmoregulation and removal of waste from the blood

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46
Q

What part of the nephron is found in the cortex?

A

The renal corpuscle

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47
Q

What is the renal corpuscle?

A

A tubular capsule wrapped around a tight network of capillaries

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48
Q

What comes after the renal corpuscle?

A

the renal tubule

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49
Q

What is the function of the renal tubule?

A

It connects the tubular capsule of the renal corpuscle to the collecting ducts that are responsible for gathering up the urine from several different nephrons

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50
Q

what are the segments of the renal tubule?

A

-proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
-Loop of Henle
-Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

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51
Q

What are the two types of nephrons?

A

cortical and juxtamedullary. Approximately 85% are cortical and 15% are juxtamedullary

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52
Q

What distinguishes between the two types of nephrons?

A

cortical nephrons have short loops of Henle whereas juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle which extend into the medulla

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53
Q

What is the glomerulus?

A

A compact network of capillaries

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54
Q

What is the glomerular capsule?

A

Also known as bowmans capsule, it surrounds the glomerulus

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55
Q

What happens between the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule?

A

Filtration of the blood

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56
Q

What is produced by the filtration of blood?

A

Glomerular filtrate

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57
Q

Where does the glomerular filtrate move to after its filtered?

A

It then enters the renal tubules for further processing before it can be called urine

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58
Q

What type of cells line the glomerulus?

A

The wall of the glomerulus consists of one layer of specialized epithelial cells which have many holes

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59
Q

What are the holes in the wall of the glomerulus called?

A

fenestrations

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60
Q

What are the two layers of the glomerular capsule?

A

The visceral and parietal layer

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61
Q

What is the visceral layer?

A

the innermost layer composed of highly specialised cells called podocytes

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62
Q

What is the parietal layers?

A

The outermost layer which forms the outer wall of the capsule

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63
Q

What is the gap in between the two layers of the glomerular capsule?

A

The capsular space. Once fluid has exited the glomerulus, it enters this space prior to moving into the PCT

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64
Q

Where does the fluid go after it has left the renal corpuscle?

A

It enters the renal tubule, which is divided into three main sections

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65
Q

What are the three main sections that the renal tubule is divided into?

A

The PCT, the loop of Henle and the SCT

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66
Q

Where is the PCT located?

A

The renal cortex.

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67
Q

What happens in the PCT?

A

A large proportion of solute and water reabsorption

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68
Q

Where is the Loop of Henle located?

A

Begins in the renal cortex and extends into the renal medulla before turning 180 degrees and re-entering the renal cortex

69
Q

What happens in the Loop of Henle?

A

Water and some solute reabsorption, Active and passive reabsorption of sodium and water, Passive ion reabsorption. Impermeable to water. Significant quantities of Na+, K+, and Cl- are reabsorbed.

70
Q

What does the DCT do?

A

Links the loop of Henle with the collecting ducts

71
Q

What happens in the DCT?

A

Reabsorption of water, Na+, Cl-, and Ca2+ (early) Reabsorption of Na+, HCO3-, urea, and the facultative reabsorption of water. The secretion of K+ and H+. (late)

72
Q

Where does the fluid go after the DCT?

A

The Collecting ducts

73
Q

What are the collecting ducts?

A

Continuous with the DCT and function to drain the renal tubules

74
Q

What happens in glomerular filtration?

A

blood flows from the afferent arteriole into the glomerulus, where pressure forces fluids and specific solutes to leave the blood and enter the glomerular capsule

75
Q

What type of molecules are filtered?

A

Only small molecules travel with the fluid into the glomerular capsule to become part of the glomerular filtrate

76
Q

What happens to molecules that remain in the blood?

A

Cells, and larger molecules with a diameter greater than 7 nm are prevented from entering the glomerular capsule by the filtration membrane, and are thus retained within the circulatory system and subsequently enter the efferent arteriole.

77
Q

What are the two main categories that kidney dysfunction can be divided into?

A

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

78
Q

What is AKI?

A

An abrupt loss of kidney function within a few days

79
Q

What is CKD?

A

A progressive loss of function of more and more nephrons that gradually decrease kidney function

80
Q

What are the main categories of the causes of AKI?

A

Prerenal AKI
Intrarenal AKI
Postrenal AKI

81
Q

What is Prerenal AKI?

A

Results from decreased blood supply to the kidneys. Reflects an abnormality originating outside the kidneys

82
Q

What is Intrarenal AKI?

A

Results from abnormalities within the kidney itself including those that affect the blood vessels, glomeruli, or tubules

83
Q

What is postrenal AKI?

A

results from the obstruction of the urinary collecting system anywhere from the calyces to the outflow of the bladder

84
Q

When do clinical symptoms of CKD usually start?

A

When the number of functioning nephrons falls below 70-75% below normal

85
Q

What are some possible causes of CKD?

A

Metabolic disorders, Hypertension, Renal vascular disorders, Immunological disorders, Infection, Primary tubular disorders, Urinary tract obstruction and congenital disorders

86
Q

What is BPH

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia, or, enlargement of the prostatic gland

87
Q

What symptoms can this cause?

A
  • Frequent or urgent need to urinate
  • Increased frequency f urination at night (nocturia)
  • Difficulty starting urination
  • Weak urine stream or a stream that stops and starts
  • Inability to completely empty the bladder
88
Q

What cells undergo hyperplasia in BPH?

A

Glandular epithelium and the stromal cells (including muscle fibres)

89
Q

What are possible causes of BPH (theories)

A

-Hormonal causes (different proportions of oestrogen to testosterone)
-DHT (dihydrotestosterone) (a male hormone that plays a role in prostate development and growth
-Ageing

90
Q

What are risk factors of BPH?

A

Ageing, Family history, obesity, lack of physical activity and ED

91
Q

What are the conditions for a screening programme?

A

-The condition should be an important problem for the individual and the community
-There should be an accepted treatment for patients with the disease
- Facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be available
- There should be a recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage
- There should be a suitable test or examination
- The test should be acceptable to the population
- The natural history of the condition, including development from latent to declared disease, should be adequately understood
- There should be an agreed policy on whom to treat as patients
-The cost of the case finding programme should be economically balanced in relation to expenditure on medical care as a whole
-Case finding should be a continuing process
- There should be quality assurance, with mechanisms to minimise potential risks of screening.
- The programme should ensure informed choice, confidentiality and respect for autonomy.
- The programme should promote equity and access to screening for the entire target population.
- The overall benefits of screening should outweigh the harm.

92
Q

What is screened for in pregnant women?

A

infectious diseases, downs syndrome, pataus syndrome and Edwards syndrome, sickle cell diseases and physical abnormalities

93
Q

What is screened for in new born babies?

A

physical examination, hearing test, blood spot test

94
Q

What are examples of other screening programmes?

A

Diabetic eye screening, Cervical screening, breast screening, bowel cancer screening, AAA screening

95
Q

Is there screening for prostate cancer?

A

No because PSA tests are unreliable and can give fals positive/ false negative results.

96
Q

Describe what is recommended from the “eat well” plate

A

plenty of fruits and vegetables
plenty of starchy foods such as bread, rice, potatoes and pasta
some meat, fish, eggs, beans and other non-dairy sources of protein
some milk and dairy foods
just a small amount of foods or drinks that are high in fat or sugar

97
Q

What is metabolism?

A

the sum of all chemical reactions in which energy is made available and consumed in the body

98
Q

Give some uses of energy in the body

A

Contraction of muscle and hence for all movement
accumulation of ions and other molecules against concentration gradients
biosynthesis and hence for the building of tissues
waste disposal and hence for getting rid of the end products of bodily function
generation of heat and hence maintenance of body temperature

99
Q

Describe ATP

A

It is often stated that ATP is the energy currency of living organisms, since hydrolysis to give ADP and Pi liberates large amounts of energy
In metabolism, ATP is continually made and broken down

100
Q

How is glucose converted into Acetyl CoA?

A

glycolysis

101
Q

How are fatty acids converted into Acetyl CoA?

A

beta oxidation

102
Q

How are amino acids converted into Acetyl CoA?

A

transamination, oxidative deamination

103
Q

What are the major common pathways that are the main producers of ATP?

A

TCA (Krebs) cycle
oxidative phosphorylation

104
Q

Describe glycolysis

A

glucose is turned into 2 pyruvate
occurs in cytosol
ATP investment and ATP generation stages

105
Q

Describe what happens to pyruvate in anaerobic conditions

A

pyruvate is converted into lactate, this regenerates NAD+ to keep glycolysis going
overall glucose + 2ADP +2Pi > 2lactate + 2 ATP

106
Q

Describe what happens to pyruvate in aerobic conditions

A

pyruvate is transported to the mitochondria and converted to acetyl CoA by the action of pyruvate dehydrogenase
NADH produced

107
Q

Describe the breakdown of fatty acids

A

released from triglyceride stores in adipose tissue via the action of lipase enzymes
transported in the blood as a complex with albumin and are taken up by cells for oxidation
They are then attached to CoA, driven by ATP and catalysed by acyl CoA synthase
Acyl groups are joined to carntitine which allows them to translocate into the mitochondria
In each reaction of the cycle the fatty acid is shortened by 2 carbon atoms, with NADH and FADH2 and acetyl CoA being produced.
Acetyl CoA enters the TCA cycle and NADH and FADH2 enter the election transport chain

108
Q

What is the ATP yield from the TCA cycle and electron transport chain?

A

In the TCA cycle 1 GTP, 3NADH and 1FADH2 are produced
NADH yields 2.5 ATP and FADH2 yields 1.5 ATP
Total yield per acetyl CoA is 10ATP

109
Q

How is glycolysis regulated?

A

high levels of citrate and ATP inhibit phosphofructokinase which is an important enzyme in glycolysis

110
Q

Describe protein metabolism

A

9 amino acids are essential and must be obtained from the diet
transamination - 1 amino acid is converted to another
oxidative deamination - the amino acid of an amino acid is lost as ammonia, which can enter the urea cycle

111
Q

Describe energy requirements

A

Basal energy expenditure (BEE) / basal metabolic rate (BMR) represent the energy required to maintain basic functions when a person is lying down, relaxed, in a normal ambient temperature

112
Q

What is BMI?

A

Body mass index
weight/height squared

113
Q

What are the ranges for BMI?

A

30 obese

114
Q

Describe anorexia

A

self induced weight loss
low body weight
body image distortion
endocrine disorder

115
Q

Describe the psychological presentations of anorexia

A

overvalued idea re weight
dysphoria
abnormal behaviours - food fads, odd eating, drink in excess or too little, secretiveness, avoidance of social eating

116
Q

Describe some compensatory behaviours in anorexia

A

excess exercise to burn energy
use laxatives, induce vomiting

117
Q

Describe some of the personality traits involved in anorexia

A

premorbid perfectionism
introversion
poor peer relationships
low self esteem
“perfect” child becomes angry, deceptive, manipulative, withdrawn

118
Q

Describe the treatment for anorexia

A

inpatient / outpatient
psychological intervention
physical monitoring
diet plan
SSRIs when clear obsessional component

119
Q

Describe bulimia

A

cravings
binge eating
counteractive behaviour
body image symptoms
physical effects to purging
also malnourished
can be overweight

120
Q

Describe the management of bulimia

A

outpatient based
self help resources
CBT - 16-20 sessions
high dose SSRI
periodic biochemistry monitoring

121
Q

Describe the 2 groups of organs in the alimentary system

A

digestive tract
accessory organs - salivary glands, gallbladder, liver, pancreas

122
Q

Describe the structure of the GI system

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis propria
adventitia

123
Q

What is in the mucosa?

A

epithelium, lamina propria, mucularis mucosae

124
Q

What is in the muscularis mucosa?

A

inner circular, outer longitudinal

125
Q

Describe the pharynx

A

muscular tube
conducts air
muscles direct food to oesophagus
3 parts - nasopharynx, oropharynx and larynnopharynx

126
Q

Describe the oesophagus

A

muscular tube - pharynx to stomach
lies in neck, thorax and abdomen
posterior to the trachea and heart
pierces diaphragm
sphincters

127
Q

Describe the stomach

A

found ion the left hypochondriac / epigastric region
endocrine cells produce gastrin
parietal cells produce HCl and intrinsic factor
chief cells produce pepsinogen

128
Q

Describe the small intestine

A

Comprises duodenum, jejunum and ileum
primary site for digestion and absorption

129
Q

describe the deodenum

A

receives chyme
short length
contains Brunner’s glands - alkaline secretion
receives common bile duct (sphincter of Oddi)
major duodenal papilla
bile
pancreatic “juice”
Ends a deodenojejunal junction

130
Q

deserve the pancreas

A

Dual purpose
exocrine gland - 99%
endocrine gland - islets of Langerhans

131
Q

What does the exocrine portion of the pancreas produce?

A

many digestive enzyme
bicarbonate ions

132
Q

What does the endocrine portion of the pancreas produce?

A

hormones - insulin, glucagon, somatostatin

133
Q

Describe the liver

A

metabolism - storage of glycogen and release of glucose
protein synthesis
inactivation of hormones, drugs
excretion of waste
produces bile

134
Q

Describe the large intestine

A

Caecum - appendix
Colon - ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid
rectum

135
Q

What is the blood supply to the GI tract?

A

3 vessels all arising from the abdominal aorta
coeliac trunk
superior mesenteric artery
inferior mesenteric artery

136
Q

Describe the divisions of the abdomen

A

Right and left hypochondriac, epigastric
right and left lumbar, umbilical
Right and left iliac, suprapubic

137
Q

What nervous system influences digestive processes?

A

enteric

138
Q

What does the myenteric plexus do?

A

GI motility

139
Q

What does the submucous plexus do?

A

sensing environment in the lumen
regulating GI blood flow
controlling epithelial cell function

140
Q

Describe the mouth, pharynx and salivary glands

A

start digestion by physically chewing food and breaking it down with saliva

141
Q

What are the functions of saliva?

A

Maintaining healthy oral tissues - contain thiocyanate ions, proteolytic enzymes and antibodies
starts digestion of carbohydrates
contributes to digestion of fats
its absence provides the urge to drink
provides mucous
keeps mouth moist for speech, oral comfort, chewing and swallowing

142
Q

Describe salivary amylase

A

produced by acini glands
pH optimum 6.9
activity continues for 15-30 minutes in mouth and stomach
breaks down alpha 1,4 glucosidic bonds
starch, glycogen > maltose, maltotriose and alpha limit dextrins

143
Q

Describe the functions of the stomach

A

storage of food
churn and mix with gastric secretions
acid and pepsin secretions
slow emptying of digestive contents into small intestine

144
Q

What are the gastric secretions?

A

mucous secreting cells
acid secretion
chief cells produce pepsinogen
intrinsic factor

145
Q

Why is mucous important in the stomach?

A

protects stomach from damage by gastric acids

146
Q

What do acid secretions in the stomach do?

A

breakdown of connective tissue, activates pepsin, solubilises calcium and iron, acts as a barrier to microbes

147
Q

What does pepsinogen do?

A

converted into pepsin, digests proteins

148
Q

What is intrinsic factor important for?

A

absorption of vitamin B12

149
Q

Describe pancreatic juice

A

made of aqueous and enzymatic component
alkali - contains bicarbonate
buffers acidic secretion of stomach
protects mucosa
enters small intestine
provides right pH for proteolytic enzymes

150
Q

What are the two types of pancreatic secretions?

A

proteolytic and non-proteolytic

151
Q

Give examples of proteolytic enzymes

A

trypsin
yhromotrypsin
carboxypeptidase
elastase
phospholipase
secreted by acinar cells as zymogens

152
Q

Give examples of non-proteolytic enzymes

A

amylase
lipase
ribonuclease
deoxyribonuclease
released in active form

153
Q

Describe pancreatic amylase

A

endoamylase, similar to salivary
digests alpha 1-4 glucose bonds
digests starch and glycogen to maltose maltotriose and dextrins

154
Q

Describe pancreatic lipase

A

acts of water insoluble triglycerides
releases fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides

155
Q

Describe liver bile

A

synthesised in the hepatocyte
stored in the gall bladder
released into duodenum after meal

156
Q

What is bile composed of?

A

bile acids
phospholipid
cholesterol
bilirubin
electrolytes
detoxified drugs

157
Q

What are the functions of bile?

A

emulsification of fat particles
helps in absorption of fats by forming complexes called micelles

158
Q

What is the function of the duodenum?

A

mixing secretions from pancreas, liver and its own with food, neutralising the acid, further digestion, absorption

159
Q

What is the function of the jejunum?

A

completing breakdown, nutrient absorption

160
Q

What is the function of the ileum?

A

nutrient absorption

161
Q

What is chylomicron formation?

A

if a fatty acid has more than 12 carbons, then triglyceride reformed in a cell coated protein, phospholipid and cholesterol enclosed in vesicles

162
Q

What do the absorptive cells of the small intestine release?

A

digestive enzymes

163
Q

What do goblet cells in the small intestine produce?

A

mucous

164
Q

What do granular cells in the small intestine produce?

A

enzymes

165
Q

what do endocrine cells in the small intestine produce?

A

hormones

166
Q

Give examples of brush border enzymes

A

peptidases
lactase
lucrase
maltase

167
Q

Describe protein digesition

A

starts in the stomach - pepsin
continues in small intestine - trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase
continues at brush border amino peptidases
amino acids and peptides absorbed by active transport vis 7 sodium linked carriers

168
Q

Describe the digestion of fats

A

pancreatic lipase, collapse
mixed with emulsified fat and bile acid
triglyceride > 2-monoglyceride and fatty acids

169
Q

Describe fatty acid absorption

A

at brush border lower pH at mucosa reduces solubility of lipid in micelles
fatty acids are absorbed by micelles

Z Phase 1 Others (11 decks)

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