Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Z Phase 1 Others > Week 3 > Flashcards

Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is blood?

A

A suspension of cells in a solute of water, water-soluble proteins and electrolytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is plasma?

A

Anticoagulated blood from which the cellular components (RBCs,WBCs and platelets) have been removed by centrifugation.
It contains the coagulation proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is serum?

A

The liquid in blood that has been collected without an anticoagulant.
The coagulation proteins have clotted and formed a precipitate along with the cellular components of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is plasma?

A

The liquid component of blood. It is made up of about 90% water with the rest being ions, proteins, nutrients and dissolved gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of Plasma?

A

Responsible for maintaining blood pH and osmotic balance. Lipids, such as cholesterol, are also carried in plasma but must travel with escort proteins as they are not water soluble.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are RBCs?

A

Red Blood Cells, also known as erythrocytes are specialised cells. They don’t have a nucleus or mitochondria and have a biconcave structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of RBCs?

A

To travel throughout the body and deliver oxygen/CO2 to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are platetlets?

A

Aslo known as thrombocytes, platelets are cell fragments which are produced when large cells called megakaryocytes break into pieces, each ones making 2000-3000 platelets as it breaks apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the structure of platelets?

A

Platelets are roughly disc shaped about 2-4 micrometers in diameter. Their cytoplasm contains granules with substances such as fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

They have a large role in blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are WBCs?

A

White Blood Cells, also known as leukocytes are larger than RBCs and contain a normal nucleus and and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of WBCs?

A

WBCs are primarily involved in immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is endomitotic synchronous replication?

A

Megakaryocytes grow and grow until eventually fragments come off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens after damage to a blood vessel?

A

Immediate vasocontriction to slow blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is extanguination?

A

The action of draining a person, animal, or organ completely of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens after breakage of the endothelial cell barrier?

A

Recruitment of platelets from the circulation to form a plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is platelet adhesion?

A

When platelets interact with other cells. This is caused by collagen exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is platelet aggregation?

A

When platelets interact with each other, forming clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does platelet adhesion lead to?

A

The activation of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does platelet activation follow?

A

stimulation by agonists such as ADP and thromboxane A2 interacting with surface repceptors or by direct interaction with the subendothelial matrix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What change occurs in platelets (change in shape etc.)

A

platelets convert from a compact disc to an irregular sphere shape, their surface receptors become activated, and granules in the cytoplasm secrete their contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is the loose plug formed?

A

Other circulating platelets adhere to the initial layer of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is coagulation?

A

The mechanism that directly leads to the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen to the insoluble rigid polymer fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the clotting (or coagulation) cascade?

A

The mechanism by which fibrinogen is converted into fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are most activated coagulation factors?

A

Proteolytic enzymes which in the presence of cofactors cleave other factors in an ordered sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is the intrinsic pathway activated?

A

Exposed collagen and other negatively charged components of the subendothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does activation of factor XII lead to?

A

The sequential activation of factors XI, IX,VIII(cofactor),X and prothrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What leads to the activation of the extrinsic pathway?

A

Tissue factor complexes with factor VII leading to sequential activation of factors VII, X and prothrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do both pathways result in?

A

The final common pathway, where activated factor X, in association with the cofactor Va in the presence of phospholipid and calcium, converts prothrombin into thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is fibrinogen converted into fibrin?

A

Thrombin splits the fibrinogen molecule and creates a polymer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is prothrombin time?

A

A measure of the function of the extrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the activated partial thromboplastin time?

A

A measure of the function of the intrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is blood coagulation modulated?

A

Anti-thrombin, Proteins C and S and TFPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does anti-thrombin modulate blood coagulation?

A

Inhibits the terminal proteins of the cascade, particularly factor Xa and thrombin. Its activity is increased by interaction of heparin in the microvasculature nad on the surface of endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do proteins C and S modulate blood coagulation?

A

Protein C is a vitamin K dependent plasma protein which inactivates the cofactors Va and VIIIa and stimulates fibrinolysis. Protein C is converted to its active form by interaction with thrombin.
Protein S acts as a cofactor for protein C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does TFBI modulate blood coagulation?

A

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor inactivates factor Xa and then the TFBI/Xa complex inhibits factor VIIa within the VIIa/ tissue factor complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When does fibrinolysis occur?

A

When damaged epithelium is repaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why must the fibrin thrombus be removed?

A

To restore blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What facilitates thrombus removal?

A

A fibrin-splitting protease, plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What leads to the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin?

A

Release of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does Release of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) lead to?

A

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin and then clod breakdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is circulating plasmin inactivated by?

A

α2- antiplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the function of red blood cells?

A

To carry respiratory gases to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where does oxygen go after the lungs?

A

Tissue where it is exchanged for CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens to RBCs before they leave the bone marrow?

A

They shed their nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the advantage of the loss of RBCs nuclei?

A

Reduced weight and transformation into a biconcave disc shape with increased manoeuvrability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

The production of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What regulates erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is RBCs function dependent on?

A

The specialised protein haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the normal adult haemoglobin molecule consist of?

A

four polypeptide chains- 2 α chains and two β chains. often notated as α2β2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is combined with each of the polypeptide chains in haemoglobin?

A

A ‘haem’ molecule which contains ferrous iron (Fe2+) and protoporphyrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What forms the oxygen carrying part of the molecule?

A

The iron combines irreversibly with oxygen and thus haem forms the oxygen carrying part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin like?

A

In the lungs haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen.
In the tissue haemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen in the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The development of haematopoietic elements, the cells and other formed elements of the blood known as?

A

Haematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Haematopoiesis?

A

The development of haematopoietic elements, the cells and other formed elements of the blood

56
Q

What happens to bone marrow as people age?

A

The bone marrow in the peripheral bones becomes gradually replaced by fat.

57
Q

Where are haematopoietic cells found?

A

Packed between fat spaces and bony trabeculae, or surrounding the vascular sinuses, meaning the mature cells can be released into the blood

58
Q

How are different lineages of haematopoietic cells found?

A

Compartmentalised. E.g. Lymphocytes tend to surround small radial arteries while erythrocytes form islands around the sinus walls

59
Q

Where is Erythropoietin synthesised?

A

Mainly by endothelial cells in the kidney

60
Q

What is production of RBCs (erythrocytes) triggered by?

A

Tissue hypoxia

61
Q

What is the role of the triage nurse?

A

To assess patients and determine an order of severity/urgency of the patients. They ensure that patients that need care first/most urgently receive this

62
Q

What are the primary aims in treating a wound with severe bleeding?

A

to control bleeding
prevent/minimise the effects of shock
minimise the risk of infection

63
Q

How should a wound with severe bleeding be treated?

A

A sterile dressing or a non-fluffy clean pad. If there is an object in the wound pressure should be applied on either side. A dressing that is tight enough to maintain pressure (but not restrict circulation) should be applied

64
Q

Where are most growth factors produced?

A

Bone marrow

65
Q

What is GMCSF?

A

A growth factor for general stimulation of hemopoietic stem cells

66
Q

What are the three layers formed from using a centrifuge of the blood?

A

The haematocrit = 45%
the buffy coat
the plasma = 55%

67
Q

what is contained within the plasma?

A

proteins
enzymes
nutrients
waste
hormones
gases

68
Q

What are the functions of proteins in the plasma?

A

reserve supply of amino acids for cell nutrition - can be broken down by macrophages
carriers for other molecules
act as weak acids to maintain slightly basic pH
involved in the coagulation cascade
distribution of fluid between blood and tissue fluid- colloid osmotic pressure

69
Q

What is the most abundant electrolyte in the plasma?

A

sodium ions which amount for most of the blood’s osmolarity

70
Q

What is another name for white blood cells?

A

leukocytes

71
Q

What are platelets made from?

A

small fragments of bone marrow

72
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A

secrete vasoconstrictors
form temporary platelet plugs to stop bleeding
secrete procoagulants
dissolve blood clots when they are no longer needed
digest and destroy bacteria
secrete cytokines

73
Q

What are the main functions of red blood cells?

A

to pick up oxygen from the lungs and deliver them to tissues elsewhere
to pick up CO2 from the tissues and unload it in the lungs

74
Q

What is another name for red blood cells?

A

eryhtrocytes

75
Q

What is the structure of red blood cells?

A

disk shaped cell with thick rim and sunken centre
plasma membrane has glycoproteins and glycolipids that determine blood type
spectin and actin proteins give membrane resilience and durability

76
Q

What are the advantages of the structure of RBCs?

A

they can stretch, bend and fold as they squeeze through small blood vessels and spring back to shape

77
Q

Why are RBCs incapable of aerobic respiration?

A

They don’t contain mitochodria

78
Q

What is the advantage of RBCs not containing mitochondria?

A

They can’t consume the oxygen that they are transporting

79
Q

What is the advantage of the biconcave disk shape?

A

Greater ratio of surface area to volume to allow gases to diffuse quickly

80
Q

What proportion of an RBC is haemoglobin?

A

33%

81
Q

why can RBCs not repair themselves?

A

they don’t contain ribosomes

82
Q

How long do circulating RBCs live for/

A

120 days

83
Q

what is haematopoiesis?

A

the production of the formed elements of the blood

84
Q

What are haematopoietic tissues?

A

The tissues where blood is produced

85
Q

What is the earliest haematopoietic tissue?

A

the yolk sac

86
Q

What is another name for a multipotent haematopoietic stem cell?

A

haemocytoblast

87
Q

What do common myeloid progenitor cells differentiate into?

A

megakarycytes
erythrocytes
mast cells
myoblasts

88
Q

What do megakaryocytes differentiate into?

A

thrombocytes (platelets)

89
Q

What do myoblasts differentiate into?

A

basophils
neutrophils
eosinophils
monocytes

90
Q

what do monocytes differentiate into?

A

dendritic cells
macrophages

91
Q

What do common lymphoid progenitor cells differentiate into?

A

natural killer cels
small lymphocytes

92
Q

what do small lymphocytes differentiate into?

A

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

93
Q

What can B lymphocytes differentiate into

A

plasma cells

94
Q

In what order are RBCs formed? (in terms of stem cells)

A

haemocytoblast
pro erythroblast
erythroblast
normoblast
reticulocyte
erythrocyte

95
Q

which cells have receptors for erythropoietin?

A

proerythroblasts

96
Q

how many RBCs are produced each day?

A

10 to the power of 12

97
Q

how many RBCs are produced from a single proebrythroblst ?

A

16

98
Q

where is EPO produced?

A

90% kidney
10% liver

99
Q

What induces the production of EPO?

A

hypoxia

100
Q

How is haemostasis achieved after wounding?

A

Immediate vasoconstriction to slow blood flow and reduce exsanguation
break in the epithelial barrier leads to recruitment of platelets to form an occlusive plug
platelets release serotonin which is a vasoconstrictor
platelets are activated by the sub endothelial matrix and each other

101
Q

What is the receptor on platelets for collagen?

A

Glycoprotein Ia/IIa complex

102
Q

What is the receptor on platelets for von Willebrand’s factor and thrombin?

A

Glycoproteun Ib/IX complex

103
Q

What is the receptor for fibrinogen and vWF?

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex

104
Q

What happens when platelets are activated?

A

Convert from compact to disk to a sphere
surface receptors become activated
cytoplasmic granules secrete their contents

105
Q

What is the result of the activation of platelets?

A

mediation and reinforcement of aggregation and adhesion, promotion of further activation

106
Q

What activates the intrinsic pathway?

A

Activated platelets

107
Q

What activates the extrinsic pathway?

A

Exposed subendotheial tissue

108
Q

What happens in the intrinsic pathway?

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII, X

109
Q

What happens in the extrinsic pathway?

A

Tissue factor is required to convert VII to VIIa, which then activates X

110
Q

What happens in the final common pathway?

A

Xa and Va cause the activation of prothrombin (II) to thrombin (IIa). This causes fibrinogen (I) to become fibrin (Ia)
XIIIa in the presence of fibrin leads to a cross-linked clot being formed

111
Q

At what stages are calcium ions needed in the coagulation cascade?

A

Conversion of IX to IXa
Conversion of VII to VIIa

112
Q

At what stages is vitamin K important?

A

Prothrombin, VII, IX, and X

113
Q

What substances are involved in the regulation of the coagulation cascade?

A

Anti-thrombin, proteins C and S, and tissue factor pathway inhibitor

114
Q

What causes fibrinolysis?

A

When the clot is no longer needed tissue plasminogen factor is released from the endothelial cells and causes plasminogen to be converted into the active plasmin.

115
Q

what is a stem cell?

A

a stem cell can renew itself and differentiate into many types of cell

116
Q

What is differentiation?

A

The process by which relatively unspecialised cells acquire specialised structural and / or functional features that characterise the cells, tissues or organs of the organism

117
Q

What is the definition of stem cell potency?

A

The number of possible biological fates open to the cell

118
Q

What does totipotent mean?

A

all fates possible (zygote)

119
Q

what does multi / pluripotent mean?

A

many fates possible (embryonic / adult tissue stem cell)

120
Q

What does bi / unipotent mean?

A

one or two fates open to the cell (adult tissue)

121
Q

describe embryonic stem cells

A

pluripotent
able to become more than 220 types of cell in the body

122
Q

Describe adult stem cells

A

multipotent or single type
able to become specialised cells within the residing tissue or specific cell type of the tissue

123
Q

Give examples of different types of wounds

A

abrasion
degloving
insides
laceration
bites

124
Q

What is the first aid for a wound?

A

elevate the area
direct pressure
indirect pressure
control bleeding
replace lost blood
history of bleeding problems

125
Q

What is shock?

A

a clinical syndrome where tissue perfusion, and hence oxygenation, is inadequate to maintain normal metabolic function

126
Q

What are the different types of shock?

A

hypovolaemic
cardiogenic
septic
spinal / neuro
anaphylactic

127
Q

What causes hypovolaemic shock?

A

haemorrhage, burns, GI, sweat, dehydration

128
Q

What causes cariogenic shock?

A

pump failure

129
Q

What causes spinal / near shock?

A

altered / loss of vascular tone

130
Q

What % of total blood volumes are involved in the classification of hypovolaemic shock?

A

40

131
Q

What blood loss in ml relates to each classification of shock?

A

2000

132
Q

What are the pulse rates of the different classifications of shock?

A

100, >120, >140

133
Q

At what classification of shock does BP start to decrease?

A

class III

134
Q

How does the mental status of a patient change through the classes of shock?

A

normal, mild anxiety, anxious, confused

135
Q

What is the emergency treatment of hypovolaemic shock?

A

Airway with C-spine control
Breathing with oxygenation
Circulation with haemorrhage control
Disability
Exposure

136
Q

Give examples of one standard safety protocols

A

Hand hygiene at the “5 moments” as described by WHO
care in the use and disposal of sharps
the correct use of PPE for contact with all blood, body fluids, secretions and excretions
providing care in a suitably clean environment with adequately decontaminated equipment
safe waste disposal
safe management of linen

Z Phase 1 Others (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions