Week 2 Infection and the Immune Response Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different shapes of bacteria?

A

Spherical - cocci
Cylindrical - bacilli or rods
Helical - spirochaetes

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2
Q

What does the arrangement of bacteria depend on?

A

The plane of successive cell divisions

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3
Q

What are examples of bacteria arrangements?

A

Chains, Clusters, pairs, angled pairs or palisades

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4
Q

What does gram stain divide bacteria into?

A

Gram positive and gram negative

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5
Q

In which type of bacteria does the peptidoglycan form a thick layer external to the cell membrane?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

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6
Q

In which type of bacteria does the peptidoglycan form a thin layer with an overlying outer membrane?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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7
Q

What are the principal molecules of the outer membrane?

A

Lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins

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8
Q

What causes the peptidoglycan to be highly polar?

A

The polysaccharides and the charged amino acids

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9
Q

What is a function of the highly polar peptidoglycan membrane?

A

to form a thick hydrophilic surface

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10
Q

What does the property of hydrophilia allow?

A

It allows gram - positive organisms to resist the bile in the gut

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11
Q

Are gram negative bacteria hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

The outer membrane is hydrophilic but the lipid components give hydrophobic properties as well

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12
Q

what are the three main types of bacteria?

A

Bacillus (rod), Coccus (sphere), and spirallus (spiral)

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13
Q

What are pili?

A

Another form of bacterial surface protection. pili are more rigid than flagella`

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14
Q

What is the function of pilli?

A

Attachment either to other bacteria (sex pili) orto host cells (common pili)

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15
Q

What does bacterial growth rate depend on?

A

The environment they are in

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16
Q

What is the lag phase?

A

The initial period of adjustment

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17
Q

What is the log/exponential phase?

A

The period where the population doubles at a constant rate (generation time)

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18
Q

What is the death phase?

A

As nutrients are depleted and toxic products accumulate cell growth slows to a stop and cells eventually begin to die

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19
Q

What is the structure of the bacterial genome?

A

Circular

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20
Q

What is the origin of replication (OriC)?

A

The singular point on the circular bacterial genome where replication begins

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21
Q

Which enzymes are used to unwind and separate the two DNA strands?

A

helicases and topoisomerases

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22
Q

What do the separated DNA strands serve as?

A

Templates for DNA polymerase

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23
Q

What do the two copies of the genome consist of?

A

One parent strand and one daughter strand

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24
Q

What does the process of cell division involve?

A

-segregation of replicated genomes
-formation of a septum in the middle of the cell
-separation of the two cells

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25
Q

How is the septum formed?

A

An invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane and ingrowth of the cell wall

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26
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

The mechanism by which specific gene transcription is activated in response to bacterial concentration.

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27
Q

What happens when quorum sensing bacteria reach appropriate numbers?

A

The signalling compounds they produce are at a sufficient concentration to activate the transcription of specific genes

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28
Q

What are endospores?

A

Highly resistant spores within bacterial cells

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29
Q

What are the functions of endospores?

A

To enable the bacteria to survive adverse conditions

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30
Q

When are endospores formed?

A

When the cells are unable to grow e.g. when the environment changes or when nutrients are exhausted but never by actively growing cells.

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31
Q

What is the structure of the bacterial spore?

A

A complex multi-layered coat surrounding a new bacterial cell

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32
Q

What gives the bacteria their extreme resistance to heat and chemicals?

A

The presence of Dipicolinic acid and high calcium content

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33
Q

How long do endospores remain dormant?

A

many years

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34
Q

When do endospores return to a normal bacterial state?

A

When the conditions improve a new bacterial cell emerges and resumes normal life

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35
Q

Why are viruses not considered to be alive?

A

They require a host cell to reproduce

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36
Q

How much smaller than bacteria are viruses roughly?

A

10x

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37
Q

What does the general structure of viruses include?

A

Nucleic acid, protein subunits, cell membrane and a vural envelope

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38
Q

What is most viral genetic material made of?

A

RNA but some do have DNA

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39
Q

What genetic material do retroviruses have?

A

Genetic material that swaps between RNA and DNA

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40
Q

What is the virus envelope?

A

A liquid bilayer that surrounds the virus.

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41
Q

What does the virus envelope contain?

A

virus proteins that are important for infecting other cells

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42
Q

How is the virus envelope formed?

A

When the virus buds from the surface of cells they acquire this extra layer.

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43
Q

What extra enzyme do viruses with RNA have?

A

They always have their own replicase as humans dont have enzymes to replicate RNA

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44
Q

What do viruses need in order to replicate?

A

A host cell to make copies of its genetic material and the proteins and enzymes it requires to replicate

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45
Q

What is the cellular process that all viral cells require?

A

Protein translation on the ribosomes

46
Q

Where does replication of DNA/RNA take place?

A

In most cases the nucleus but for some viruses in the cytoplasm

47
Q

What is the final stage of viral replication?

A

the assembly and release of the new virus

48
Q

Where is the nucleocapsid formed?

A

Either the nucleus or cytoplasm of the host cell

49
Q

How are viruses released?

A

-Budding through the cell membrane
-Cell lysis
-Cell death

50
Q

What is cell lysis?

A

When a cell bursts

51
Q

Why do viruses with RNA have a lot of mutations?

A

RNA polymerase makes a lot of mistakes

52
Q

What is a lytic infection?

A

When the virus causes the host cells to burst when the virus replicates

53
Q

What is a persistent infection?

A

When the virus is released slowly and consistently by the cell.
In these infections people can be symptomless for a long time but still carry and spread the virus

54
Q

What is a latent infection?

A

The virus’ genetic material may be dormant in the host cells cytoplasm or even incorporated in its genome until it is triggered

55
Q

What is malignant transformation?

A

When viruses cause ‘normal’ host cells to turn into tumour or cancer cells

56
Q

Do cancer inducing viruses have DNA or RNA?

A

They can have either DNA or RNA

57
Q

What is Hepatitis A?

A

A virus that can impair liver function. It is most common in countries with poor sanitation

58
Q

How can Hep A be prevented?

A

Travellers are advised to be vaccinated. Generally the illness doesn’t present severe symptoms

59
Q

What is Cholera?

A

Caused by a bacteria that leads to an acute gastrointestinal infection.
It is spread through un-sanitary water and food due to poor sanitation

60
Q

How can Cholera be prevented?

A

Travellers are advised to be vaccinated as cholera can be very severe and sometimes even be fatal

61
Q

What is Typhoid?

A

Can be caused by some strains of salmonella and is prevalent in india,S/SE Asia, some parts of Africa and Central America

62
Q

How can typhoid be prevented?

A

Travellers should be vaccinated

63
Q

What is Shigellosis?

A

Caused by a bacteria this causes symptoms like nausea,diarrheoa and abdominal cramps.
This is mostly in countries with poor sanitation but has been know to occur in the UK

64
Q

How can illnesses that are caused by poor sanitation be avoided?

A

-Using bottled water
-Don’t have ice in your drink
-Only eat salad/fruit if you prepared it yourself
-Avoid eating unpasteurised dairy products

65
Q

What is Zika virus?

A

An infection transmitted by an infected female mosquito. It is common in Brazil and other American countries.
The symptoms are not severe unless pregnant, it can then have a severe effect on the baby

66
Q

What is Malaria?

A

Transmitted through the bite of a parasite. Mainly found in Africa, some parts of Asia and South America. The effects of malaria are more severe in pregnant women, children, and the elderly

67
Q

How can Malaria be prevented?

A

Anti-malarial medication should be taken

68
Q

What is Dengue fever?

A

Caused by a viral infection that is spread by mosquitos. It is mainly found in S/SE Asia, Africa and the Carribean. It causes flu-like symptoms.

69
Q

How can mosquito transmitted illnesses be prevented?

A

-Stay indoors between dusk and dawn
- Use products containing DEET as a repellent
-Wear loose fitting clothes
-sleep under a net
-try not to go to highly infested areas

70
Q

What are neutrophils?

A

The most common WBC, they make up 50-60% of WBCs

71
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

They phagocytose pathogens and infected cells and play a big part in inflammation

72
Q

What is the function of Lymphocytes?

A

Lymphocytes are divided into T&B lymphocytes. They produce antibodies which play a big part in the bodies defence against infection. They can also recognise antigens and destroy them

73
Q

What are monocytes?

A

When the monocytes are in tissue they are known as macrophages.
They are formed in the bone marrow and then are released into the blood and tissue

74
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

Phagocytose pathogens

75
Q

What are eosinophils?

A

They are usually found in tissue.

76
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Combat parasitic infection and to phagocytose antibody-antigen complexes

77
Q

Describe the structure of bacteria

A

Single-celled prokaryotes with characteristic cellular organisation

78
Q

Describe gram-positive bacteria

A

has peptidoglycan ;ayers on the outside of the cell wall
stains purple

79
Q

Describe gram-negative bacteria

A

has one layer of peptidoglycan between the two membranes
stains pink

80
Q

Describe natural flora in the gut

A

normal flora is acquired soon after birth and changes with age. Benefits - competition and bi-products inhibit establishment of infection
vitamins (K&B) in the gut are produced by bacteria
the rate at which bacteria grow and divide depends on the nutritional state of the environment.

81
Q

How does bacteria replicate?

A

The genomic DNA replicates from the origin of replication and must be accurate
formation of a septum in the middle of a cell
division of the cell to give separate daughter cell

82
Q

How do bacteria cause virulence in the body?

A

they colonise, invade and release toxins

83
Q

describe some examples of other microbial defences of bacteria

A

antigenic mimicry, antigenic masking, encapsulation, invasion of the host’s immune response

84
Q

How does bacteria enter the body?

A

coughs, sneezes, vomit, bites from infected animals, exposure to infected body fluids through sexual intercourse or from sharing hypodermic needles

85
Q

What are viruses?

A

obligate intercellular parasites

86
Q

why do some viruses have an envelope?

A

they acquire a lipid bilayer as they bud from the surface of the cell

87
Q

What is the genetic material of a virus contained in?

A

A coat or capsid, made up from a number of protein molecules.

88
Q

How do viruses invade?

A

via inhaled water droplets
food or water
direct transfer from other infected host
from bites of vector arthropod

89
Q

Describe the life cycle of a virus

A

virus attaches to cell
virus penetrates the cell membrane and injects nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) into the cell
viral nucleic acid replicates itself using host cell machinery
new viral nucleic acids are packaged into viral particles and released from the cell. The host cell may be destroyed in the process

90
Q

what is the most common type of WBC?

A

phagocytes

91
Q

how do phagocytes kill pathogens in extravascular tissue?

A

enter the extravascular tissue, ingest microbes then die within hours

92
Q

where are macrophages found?

A

healthy macrophages are found in all tissues and organs

93
Q

what are macrophages?

A

differentiated monocytes found in tissue that can survive for long periods of time

94
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

they initiate and regulate inflammation, ingest microbes, clear dead tissue and initiate tissue repair

95
Q

What are dendritic cells?

A

Link between the innate and adaptive immunity
antigen presenting cells
they also produce cytokines for inflammation and stimulate adaptive immune responses

96
Q

What are mast cells?

A

found in the skin in the mucosal epithelium
both innate and adaptive
cytoplasmic granules - vasoactive amines e.g. histamines cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
proteolytic enzymes kill bacteria or inactivate toxins
synthesise lipid mediators and cytokines

97
Q

What are natural killer cells?

A

secrete cytokines that activate macrophages
contain granules which are released into the extracellular space at the point of contact with the infected cell and bring about apoptosis
usually kills viral cell

98
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

many functions - inflammatory processes, trapping substances, killing cells, mainly anti-parasitic functions
allergy

99
Q

Describe the function of lymphocytes

A

each lymphocyte binds to a specific antigen
once activated, lymphocytes multiply to produce clones
some B lymphocytes differentiate to plasma cells which produce antibodies
helper t cells produce cytokines which stimulate antibody production
cytoxic t cells bind to and kill infected cells and cancer cells
memory b cells
B cells also display antigens and secrete cytokines

100
Q

What are lymph nodes for?

A

the site of immune response activation

101
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

blood-borne antigens are captured by antigen-presenting cells in the spleen

102
Q

What are the three outcomes from the complement cascade?

A

recruitment of inflammatory cells
opsonisation of pathogens
killing of pathogens

103
Q

what are the three complement cascade pathways?

A

classical pathway
MB-lectin pathway
alternate pathway

104
Q

What activates the classical pathway?

A

antigen:antibody complexes

105
Q

what activates the MB-lectin pathway?

A

lectin binding to pathogen surfaces

106
Q

What activates the alternate pathway

A

pathogen surfaces

107
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

bone marrow
thymus

108
Q

what are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

lymph nodes, spleen

109
Q

What is the role of the thymus?

A

maturation of T lymphocytes - CD4+ “helper” and CD8+ “killer”
selection of auto reactive cells for removal to prevent autoimmunity
Export a repertoire of T cells for life

110
Q

What are the 5 types of antibody?

A

IgM (5), IgA (2), IgD (1) ,IgG (1) , IgE (1)

111
Q

From the afferent lymph vessels to the efferent vessels, in what order does the lymph pass immune cells?

A

B cells
T cells
Plasma cells and macrophages