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Neuro Part 2 > Week 7.1 > Flashcards

Week 7.1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three embryonic sources for eye development?

A
  • surface ectoderm
  • neuroectoderm
  • mesenchyme
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2
Q

How does the lens placode form?

A

induction of the surface ectoderm by the underlying optic vesicle (neuroectoderm of forebrain)

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3
Q

What is anophthalmia?

A

the absence of an eye

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4
Q

Which genes play significant roles in anophthalmia and microphthalmia?

A

PAX6 and SOX2

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5
Q

What are hyaloid vessels?

A

those that supply blood to the developing retina and lens, ultimately giving rise to the central artery and vein of the retina

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6
Q

What is coloboma?

A

failure of the choroid fissure to close, leaving a key hole deformity in which the iris isn’t fully formed

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7
Q

What gene is implicated in those with coloboma?

A

PAX2

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8
Q

How does the optic lens form?

A

proliferation of cells on the posterior wall of the surface ectoderm-derived lens placode

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9
Q

What causes congenital cataracts?

A

failure of the lens to clear out properly

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10
Q

The external layer of the eye includes what?

A

the sclera and cornea

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11
Q

The middle layer of the eye includes what?

A

the choroid, ciliary body, and iris

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12
Q

How does the sclera develop?

A

from mesenchyme surrounding the optic cup

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13
Q

What is the iridopupillary membrane?

A

the anterior 1/5 of the choroid that separates the anterior and posterior chambers during development but should degenerate

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14
Q

A child presents with a sort of web like structure covering the pupil. What’s a likely diagnosis?

A

persistence of the iridopupillary membrane

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15
Q

What are the two layers of the developing retina?

A

pigment epithelium and neuroepithelium

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16
Q

The dilator and sphincter muscles of the pupils are derived from what embryonic tissue?

A

neuroectoderm of the optic cup

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17
Q

What is aniridia?

A

absence of the iris

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18
Q

The external ear develops from what?

A

the first and second bronchial arches

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19
Q

The external auditory meatus develops from what?

A

the first branchial cleft

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20
Q

The middle ear auricles develops from what?

A
  • malleus and incus: 1st branchial arch

- stapes: 2nd branchial arch

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21
Q

The inner ear develops from what?

A

the otic vesicle from the surface ectoderm near the hindbrain

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22
Q

What part of the ear develops from the first branchial pouch?

A

the lining of the tympanic cavity

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23
Q

Auricular abnormalities are often due to what?

A

problems with neural crest migration (i.e. branchial arch syndromes)

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24
Q

The otic vesicle has what two portions?

A

the utricular and saccular portions

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25
Q

The saccular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to what?

A

the saccule and cochlear duct

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26
Q

How do the semicircular canals form?

A

the utriclar portion of the otic vesicle flattens and then selective PCD leaves three rings

27
Q

How does the perilymphatic space of the inner ear form?

A

from vacuolization of the cartilaginous otic capsule

28
Q

The utricular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to what?

A
  • utricle
  • semicircular canals
  • endolymphatic duct and sac
29
Q

The saccular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to what?

A
  • saccule

- cochlear duct

30
Q

What is the danger of a cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy?

A

congenital deafness

31
Q

What is the danger of a rubella infection during pregnancy?

A

congenital deafness

32
Q

The pinna is formed from what earlier structures?

A

the six hillocks of his

33
Q

The 1st, 2nd, and 3rd hillocks of his give rise to what portions fo the pinna?

A
  • 1st: tragus
  • 2nd: crus of helix
  • 3rd: helix
34
Q

The external auditory meatus has what two segments?

A
  • inner 2/3 are bony

- outer 1/3 is cartilagenous

35
Q

What part of the external auditory meatus forms wax?

A

the outer 1/3

36
Q

How does the tympanic membrane form?

A
  • inner mucosal layer from endoderm (pouch)
  • middle fibers layer from mesoderm (arch)
  • outer epithelial layer form ectoderm (groove)
37
Q

What is the pars tensa?

A

the majority of the tympanic membrane and constituted by three layers

38
Q

What is the pars flaccida?

A

a minor region of the tympanic membrane formed by just two layers

39
Q

Where is the pars flaccida?

A

the most superior portion of the tympanic membrane

40
Q

What is a pneumatic otoscope used for?

A

to apply negative or positive pressure to the external auditory meatus in order to asses the flexibility of the tympanic membrane

41
Q

What is a pre-auricular pit?

A

a cyst or sinus formed in front of the ear because the epithelium between two hillocks of his failed to resorb

42
Q

What is microtia?

A

the most common dysmorphology of the outer ear

43
Q

What is atresia?

A

the absence of an external auditory meatus

44
Q

What is otitis external?

A
  • aka swimmers ear

- inflammation of the ear due to constant wetness

45
Q

How does the eustachian tube affect pathology of the middle ear?

A

it is responsible for ventilating and draining the middle ear, so failure can cause problems

46
Q

What is serous otitis?

A

fluid behind the tympanic membrane

47
Q

What is acute otitis?

A

a middle ear infection

48
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

an accumulation of epithelium within the middle ear caused by atelectasis that will eventually erode the ossicles

49
Q

What is treacher collins?

A

a first arch anomaly characterized by mid face and mandibular hypoplasia, cleft palate, microtia, and atresia

50
Q

What are the features of Pierre Robin Sequence?

A
  • micrognathia
  • glossoptosis
  • cleft palat
51
Q

How are first arch anomalies treated?

A

initially just maintain breathing and feeding

52
Q

What is mandibular distraction?

A

a treatment for pierre robin sequence in which the jaw is pulled and stretched forward

53
Q

What is hemifacial microsomia?

A

a first and second arch anomaly characterized by malformed auricle, ossicular malformations, facial muscle asymmetry, and hyoid malformation

54
Q

What is a double aortic arch anomaly?

A

a fourth arch anomaly in which the right dorsal aorta fails to regress

55
Q

What are the symptoms of a double aortic arch?

A
  • cyanosis
  • wheezing
  • stridor
  • repeat lower airway infections
56
Q

What is a pulmonary artery sling?

A

a sixth branchial arch anomaly characterized by respiratory and feeding difficulties

57
Q

How will a first pouch anomaly likely present?

A

with recurrent ear infections due to eustachian tube dysfunction

58
Q

What is a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

a midline cyst caused by 3rd or 4th pouch anomalies

59
Q

A lingual thyroid is an anomaly of what earlier structure?

A

the third or fourth pouch

60
Q

What are two possible third or fourth pouch anomalies?

A
  • thryglossal duct cyst

- lingual thyroid

61
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

deficiency of thyroid, thymus, and parathyroid glands

62
Q

What are the features of DiGeorge syndrome?

A
  • cardiac anomalies
  • abnormal facies
  • thymic aplasia
  • cleft palatee
  • hypocalcemia
63
Q

What are type 1 and type 2 branchial cleft anomalies?

A
  • type 1: sinus or cyst anterior to ear canal that is lateral to CN VII
  • type 2: sinus or cyst at the angle of the mandible that ends in the ear canal and can be lateral or medial to CN VII
64
Q

What is the most common branchial anomaly?

A

a second branchial cleft anomaly that presents as a painless cyst in the anterior triangle of the neck

Neuro Part 2 (18 decks)

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