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Medicine Week 1 NCs > Week 7 Uworld > Flashcards

Week 7 Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

what do you calculate in ascites to determine if from portal HTN or not?

A

SAAG

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2
Q

what is equation for SAAG?

A

serum albumin minus ascites albumin

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3
Q

what numbers signify what for SAAG?

A

> 1.1 means portal HTN

<1.1 means other causes

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4
Q

what is cause of primary MR?

A

myxomatous degeneration or valvular issue

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5
Q

what is cause of secondary MR?

A

often caused by heart failure and volume overload leading to displacement of papillary muscles

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6
Q

cryptococcal meningitis has how many phases of treatment?

A

3 phases

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7
Q

what is first phase of rx for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

amphotericin b and flucytosine

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8
Q

what is second phase of rx for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

high dose fluconazol e

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9
Q

what is third phase of rx for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

low dose fluconazole

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10
Q

if patient has new red skin lesion that dimples when it is pinched, what is it?

A

dermatofibroma

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11
Q

what bugs are associated with ventilator pneumonia?

A

pseudomonas, e coli, klebsiella mrsa and strep

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12
Q

patient with ARDS on ventilator has low oxygen, what should you adjust?

A

increase PEEP

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13
Q

what is a very common side effect of hodkin lymphoma when treated with radiation?

A

often leads to secondary malignancy (30%) of cases

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14
Q

what are chronic symptoms of arsenic poisoning?

A

stocking and glove neuropathy, hypo ad hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis

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15
Q

what are acute sx of arsenic poisoning?

A

nausea, garlic breath, vomiting and diarrhea

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16
Q

what is rx of arsenic poisoning?

A

dimercaprol

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17
Q

repetitive arm motions put baseball players at risk for what finding in their arms?

A

DVTs

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18
Q

what do you monitor to assess treeatment of DKA?

A

anion gap

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19
Q

what does hairy cell leukemia cause in bone marrow?

A

fibrosis leading to cytopenias

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20
Q

what is given for MS flares that are refractory to steroids?

A

plasmapheresis

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21
Q

what are the classic features of klinefelter syndrome?

A

tall, small testes, infertile, gynecomastia, minimal hair growth

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22
Q

which of lambert eaton or MG is associated with lung cancer?

A

lambert eaton

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23
Q

which of lambert eaton or MG is associated with diminished reflexes?

A

lambert eaton

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24
Q

von hippel lindau syndrome is associated with what three things?

A

hemangioblastoma
renal cell carcinoma
pheochromocytoma

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25
Q

does low or high thyroglobulin mean exogenous thyroid intake?

A

low is exogenous, high is thyroiditis

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26
Q

what drugs can cause crystal induced AKI?

A

acyclovir, uric acid, methotrexate

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27
Q

what imaging is used to dignose bronchiectasis?

A

chest CT

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28
Q

brain abscesses are caused by what three bugs?

A

staph a, strep viridans, and anaerobes

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29
Q

what is effect of hyperthyroidism on heart?

A

high cardiac output due to low SVR, tachycardia, can go into a fib too

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30
Q

what endocrine issue can amiodarone cause

A

hypothyroid

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31
Q

what can amiodarone do to the liver?

A

hepatocellular injury

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32
Q

a cherry red spot on macula on eye exam is consistent with what?

A

retinal artery occlusion

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33
Q

what are sx of retinal artery occlusion?

A

sudden loss of vision in one eye, with curtain dropping vertically down

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34
Q

what is first and second line therapy of urge incontinence?

A

kegel exercises then antimuscarinics (oxybutynin)

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35
Q

what happens to levels of FSH/LH in hypothyroid?

A

they decrease

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36
Q

what happens to menstrual cycles in hypothyroidism?

A

can become irregular becasue decreased FSH and LH

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37
Q

what are some lab abnormalities in histoplasmosis?

A

elevated liver enzymes, pancytopenia

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38
Q

what are skin findings in histoplasmosis?

A

papules, nodules and ulcers

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39
Q

what is rx of severe histoplasmosis?

A

amphotericin b, itrconazole if mild

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40
Q

what opiates should be avoided in patients with kidney disease?

A

morphine, tramadol, codeine

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41
Q

when does a pericardial knock occur?

A

with constrictive pericarditis, it is mid diastolic

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42
Q

what is found on imaging in constrictive pericarditis?

A

calcifications of pheart

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43
Q

what is severe SE of trastuzamab?

A

cardiac toxicity,get echo before starting

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44
Q

if patient has bilateral nystagmus, where is issue in eye?

A

medial longitudinal fasciculus

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45
Q

bilateral internuclear opthalmoplegia is associted with what?

A

MS

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46
Q

/what is internuclear opthmoplegia

A

nystagmus of both eyes when looking laterally

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47
Q

when do you start therapy for hyperkalemia?

A

6.5m g

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48
Q

if patient with ongoing stemi has flash pulmonary edema, what should be given?

A

lasix…even if before reperfusion completed

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49
Q

what is rx of sporotrichosis?

A

itraconazole

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50
Q

aside from arterioocclusive symptoms, what other symptoms can be seen in takaysu arteritis?

A

blood pressure discrepancies, fever, fatigue, arthralgias

51
Q

what is rx of takayasu arteritis?

A

systemic roids

52
Q

what is imaging to diagnose takayasu?

A

CT angio

53
Q

what are two heme complications of EBV that are pretty rare??

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia

54
Q

aside from cardiac tamponade, what else can cause pulsus paradoxus?

A

asthma and COPD

55
Q

two types of meningitis that cause low glucose?

A

fungal and bacterial

56
Q

two types of meningitis that cause high lymphocytes?

A

viral and fungal

57
Q

can bicuspid aortic valve cause aortic stenosis?

A

you bet

58
Q

what lung cancer causes hypercalcemia? how?

A

squamous cell via PTHrp

59
Q

what is imaging finding in acute cholangitis?

A

dilated bile ducts

60
Q

what is rx of acute cholangitis?

A

abx and drainage of biliary tree

61
Q

what is MoA of statin?

A

HMG coa reductase inhibitor

62
Q

what are characteristics of tularemia?

A

single rapidly progressive ulcer with supporative lymphadenitis

63
Q

what are sx of anterior uveitis?

A

painful red eye with photophobia and loss of visual acuity

64
Q

what is first line therapy of chemotherapy induced nausea dn vomiting?

A

ondansetron

65
Q

what is rash of leprosy?

A

macular hypopigmented skin lesions with raised borders

66
Q

what can happen to nerves in leprosy?

A

painful nerves with loss of sensation

67
Q

how do you diagnose leprosy?

A

full thickness biopsy

68
Q

what is rx of leprosy?

A

dapsone and rifampin

69
Q

what lab can be elevated in non hodgkin lymphoma?

A

LDH

70
Q

what is the most common cause of pancytopenia

A

idiopathic

71
Q

what are some known causes of pancytopenia?

A

infection, autoimmune, drugs and toxins

72
Q

what is necrolytic migratory erythema?

A

erythematous papules that coalesce to form large plaques with central clearing

73
Q

what is necrolytic migratory erythema associated with?

A

glucagonoma

74
Q

what are sx of glucagonoma?

A

diarrhea, diabetes, weight loss, necrolytic migratory erythema

75
Q

do blockers cause hyper or hypokalemia?

A

hyperkalemia

76
Q

what abx causes hyperkalemia?

A

bactrim

77
Q

what kidney stone is radiolucent?

A

uric acid stones

78
Q

what is rx of uric acid kidney stone?

A

potassium citrate

79
Q

name three common side effects of tacrolimus

A

nephrotoxicity, tremor and glucose intolerance

80
Q

what are common SEs of azathioprine?

A

hepatotoxicity and bone marrow suppression

81
Q

what is prodrome of vasovagal syncope?

A

warmth and nausea

82
Q

how do vagal maneuvers stop AVNRTs?

A

slow AV nodal firing

83
Q

what is cor pulmonale?

A

right heart failure due to pulm Htn

84
Q

what are signs of cor pulmonale?

A

elevated JVP, ascites, liver enlargement, edema

85
Q

what heart murmur may be found in cor pulmonale?

A

tricuspid regurgitation

86
Q

how do you diagnose CLL?

A

flow cytometry

87
Q

how does CLL present?

A

can be asymptomatic, but will have lymphocytosis with anemia and thrombocytopenia

88
Q

what is post exposure prophylaxis for rabies?

A

vaccines and IVIG

89
Q

if patient is bitten by a pet, but not sure about rabies, what do you do?

A

observe animal for 10 days and treat patient if animal shows signs. If you cannot observe animal then treat patient

90
Q

if patient bitten by wild animal and unknown if animal has rabies, what do you do?

A

give post exposure prophylaxis

91
Q

what two meds should be started for patient with peripheral arterial disease?

A

aspirin and statin

92
Q

superior vena cava syndrome causes what to happen?

A

impeded venous return to heart from head neck and arms…so swelling there

93
Q

what is mc cause of superior ven cava syndrome?

A

malignancy

94
Q

what is imaging for superior vena cava syndrome?

A

cxr

95
Q

what medication is used to treat hypertriglyceridemia from 100-999?

A

statins only

96
Q

what medications for hypertriglyceridemia above 1000?

A

statin and fenofibrate

97
Q

what else should patient with hypertriglyceridemia do to help lower aside from medication therapy?

A

weught loss, limit saturated fat and sugar, limit alcohol

98
Q

what are two mainstay medications for acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

inhaled bronchodilators and oral steroids

99
Q

what are two test options for PJP?

A

sputum culture or bronchial lavage

100
Q

increased stroke volume and cardiac output in sepsis can lead to what physical exam finding?

A

bounding pulses

101
Q

inferior MI is what vessel?

A

RCA

102
Q

what is treatment of spinsal cord compression from cancer?

A

steroids

103
Q

erysipelas is commonly caused by what bug?

A

strep a pyogenes

104
Q

what does erysipelas look like?

A

erythematous rash with well demarcated raised borders

105
Q

what are other symptoms of erysipelas?

A

early onset of fevers and regional lymphadenitis

106
Q

what is common abx for eryisipelas?

A

ceftriaxone or ampicillin

107
Q

what is therapy for urethreal chlamydia infection of man?

A

single dose of azithromycin

108
Q

what are the two main lights criteria?

A

fluid/serum protein >0.5

fluid/serum LDH >0.6

109
Q

what are sx of RMSF?

A

headache, fatigue, arthralgias fever

110
Q

what labs can be abnormal in RMSF?

A

hyponatremia, elevated liver enzymes and thrombocytopeni a

111
Q

what is 1st line rx of renal artery stenosis due to non occlusive atherosclerosis?

A

ACE inhibitor

112
Q

what blood cancer commonly causes white counts above 100000?

A

CML

113
Q

what does luekocyte alk phos help differentiate?

A

leukocyte reaction versus CML

114
Q

what is leukocyte alk phos in reaction vs CML?

A

low in CML high in reaction

115
Q

patient with hiv has single ring enhancing lesion and EBV noted in CSF, what is cause?

A

CNS lymphoma

116
Q

EBV causes increased risk for what two cancers in HIV patients?

A

non hodgkin lymphoma and CNS lymphoma

117
Q

what is a very common MSK side effect of hemodialysis? does it improve or worsen with dialysis?

A

carpal tunnel syndrome…worsens

118
Q

when can odds ratio be considered the same thing as relative risk?

A

if disease is very rare

119
Q

what are calcium, phosphate and PTH levels in osteomlacia?

A

low ca and phos, high PTH

120
Q

what is initial therapy for BPH?

A

tamsulosin or prazosin

121
Q

what is moa of tamsulosin?

A

alpha adrenergic antagonist

122
Q

amyloidosis is associated with what class of diseases?

A

autoimmun e

123
Q

medullary echogenicity is consistent with what on renal US?

A

papillary necrosis

124
Q

what happens to PCWP and central venous pressure in obstrictive shock?

A

PCWP normal and CVP high

Medicine Week 1 NCs (6 decks)

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