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Medicine Week 1 NCs > Week 1 UWorld/MedEd > Flashcards

Week 1 UWorld/MedEd Flashcards

1
Q

if patient has terminal diagnosis and has uncontrolled pain, what can you do?

A

keep adding on more morphine

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2
Q

what is febrile neutropenia?

A

ANC less than 1500 and a fever

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3
Q

what is common cause of febrile neutropenia?

A

patient on chemo with new infection

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4
Q

if patient has febrile neutropenia without known source of infection, what is most likely source?

A

bloodstream infection

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5
Q

what bugs are likely in febrile neutropenia?

A

pseudomonas and gram +s

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6
Q

what abx should be given empirically for a patient with febrile neutropenia of unknown origin?

A

carbapenem/zosyn/cefepime

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7
Q

what is a huge risk factor for stress induced ulcers?

A

ICU admission

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8
Q

what is imaging of choice for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

MRCP

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9
Q

what are two EKG findings of pericarditis?

A

ST elevation, PR depressions

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10
Q

what is rx of viral pericariditis?

A

ibuprofen and colchicine

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11
Q

if a stool osmotic gap is low, what type of diarrhea?

A

secretory

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12
Q

if a stool osmotic gap is high, what kind of diarrhea?

A

osmotic

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13
Q

what are the symptoms of ehrlichiosis?

A

high fever, HA, myalgia, chills and confusion, no RASH

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14
Q

what are lab abnormalities in ehrilichiosis?

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver enzymes

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15
Q

what is rx for ehrlichiosis?

A

doxy

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16
Q

how is ehrlichiosis transmitted?

A

lone star tick

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17
Q

what electrolyte can be elevated with statin myopathy?

A

potassium

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18
Q

what can happen with kidneys with statin myopathy?

A

can look like an AKI with the release of creatine

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19
Q

what is cause of menieres disease?

A

increased endolymph pressure

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20
Q

what is rx for menieres disease?

A

decreased sodium intake

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21
Q

what are GI/urinary symptoms of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

mesenteric ischemia, kidney infarcts

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22
Q

what are two treatment options for salicylate toxicity?

A

activated charcoal and IV sodium bicarb

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23
Q

if patient has 1-2 weeks of fever, night sweats, cough and foul smelling sputum, what should you think might be the cause?

A

anaerobic lung abscess

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24
Q

what is rx of cholinergic toxicity?

A

atropine then pralidoxime

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25
Q

what are manifestations of cholinergic toxicity?

A 
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm/Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
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26
Q

patient with parkinsons keeps getting community acquired pneumonia, what should be done?

A

swallow study

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27
Q

patient with microcytic anemia that doesnt respond to iron should be thought to have what?

A

thalassemia

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28
Q

how long after iron initiation should you see improvement in Hgb?

A

4 weeks

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29
Q

what are three signs of theophyline toxicity?

A

headaches/insomnia
arrythmias
nausea/vomiting

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30
Q

does spinal cord compression lead to upper or lower motor neuron signs?

A

BOTH

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31
Q

what is a cause of spinal cord compression in IV drug users?

A

epidural abscess

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32
Q

what veins cause the majority of DVTs that lead to PEs?

A

proximal leg veins

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33
Q

what is the clinical triad of fat embolism?

A

petechiae
neurologic dysfxn
respiratory distress

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34
Q

what is rx for fat embolism?

A

supportive care only

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35
Q

what drug should be given for hypertensive emergency?

A

nitroprusside

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36
Q

what is risk with nitroprusside?

A

cyanide toxicity

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37
Q

what happens with cyanide toxicity?

A

AMS, seizures, coma

38
Q

what type of metabolic abnormality does laxative use lead to?

A

metabolic alkalosis

39
Q

if patient has diarrhea and is from laxative use, what acid base issue is there?

A

metabolic alkalosis

40
Q

what are symptoms of splenic abscess?

A

LUQ pain, fever, and splenomegaly

41
Q

what should you try to do for patient that is on ventilator as far as feeding goes? ie what route?

A

g tube as quickly as possible as this prevents malnutrition

42
Q

what parasite causes long course of travelers diarrhea?

A

cryptosporidium parvum

43
Q

what is a marine dwelling bug that can cause severe sepsis quickly?

A

vibrio vulnificus

44
Q

who is at risk of getting bad infection from vibrio vulnificus?

A

those with liver disease

45
Q

what is rx of vibrio vulnificus?

A

doxy and ceftriaxone

46
Q

what lab is elevated in upper GI bleed?

A

BUN:creatinine ratio

47
Q

what is the main difference betwene primary and secondary raynauds?

A

primary is symmetric and secondary is asymmetric

48
Q

what should work up consist of in secondary raynauds?

A

CBC, CMP, ANA, complements, ESR

49
Q

what is a neuro finding of AIP?

A

peripheral neuropathy most commonly in upper extremities

50
Q

what is rx for AIP?

A

glucose and hemin

51
Q

what are signs/symptoms of constrictive pericarditis?

A

fatigue, dyspnea, edema, ascites, increased JVP

52
Q

what is a common cause of constrictive pericarditis?

A

radiation therapy from hodgkins lymphome

53
Q

what is rx for CMV esophagitis?

A

ganciclovir

54
Q

what are opioid withdrawal treatment options?

A

methadone, buprenorphine, clonidine

55
Q

Do you have to have hemoptysis to have DAH?

A

NO

56
Q

what does CSF look like in TB meningitis?

A

high cell count, low glucose, high protein and lymphocyte predominance

57
Q

what is most common cause of Cn III palsy?

A

diabetic poor control leading to ischemia to nerve

58
Q

what are signs of CNIII palsy?

A

eye down and out, ptosis

59
Q

what are some common causes of renal vein thrombosis?

A

malignancy, nephrotic syndrome and OCPs

60
Q

what are symptoms of renal vein thrombosis?

A

hematuria, flank pain and enlarged kidney on CT

61
Q

what is in urinalysis with renal vein thrombosis?

A

blood, thats it

62
Q

what is rx for renal vein thrombosis?

A

anticoags or thrombectomy

63
Q

what is imaging to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

MRI

64
Q

what is calcific uremic arteriopathy?

A

when arteriolar and soft tissue calcification occurs

65
Q

what are clinical symptoms of calcific uremic arteriopathy

A

painful nodules and ulcers, soft tissue calcification on imaging

66
Q

what are risk factors for calcific uremic arteriopathy?

A

kidney disease, hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia, hyperparathyroid

67
Q

no P waves and sine wave pattern on EKG are indicative of what?

A

hyperkalemia

68
Q

what should be given in hyperkalemic emergency?

A

calcium gluconate and insulin

69
Q

what is treatment of TTP?

A

plasma exchange, steroids, and rituximab

70
Q

5 findings in TTP

A

renal insufficiency, MAHA, thrombocytopenia, neuro changes and fever

71
Q

what are symptoms of cryptococcus neoformans in those with HIV?

A

headache, nausea, confusion, CN VI palsy and skin papules

72
Q

what is finding on head imaging with cryptococcus neoformans?

A

elevated ICP leading to enlarged ventricle

73
Q

what is test to diagnose cryptococus?

A

LP with india stain

74
Q

what imaging to diagnose epiglottitis?

A

lateral neck radiograph

75
Q

what symptoms can occur in fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

hypertension, CVAs, vision loss

76
Q

what imaging to diagnose fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

CT abdomen or duplex US

77
Q

what are symptoms of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

vascular cutaneous lesion, systemic symptoms, liver involvement

78
Q

what causes bacillary angiomatosis?

A

bartonella

79
Q

who gets bacillary angiomatosis?

A

HIV, from cats and lice

80
Q

what is rx of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

doxycycline or erythromycin

81
Q

what is shape of crystals in fake gout?

A

rhomboid

82
Q

what are symptoms of abdominal stage of trichenellosis?

A

abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea

83
Q

what are symptoms of abdominal stage of trichenellosis?

A

myositis, fever, periorbital edema, subungual splinter hemorrhages

84
Q

what is heme finding with trichinelllosis?

A

eosinophilia

85
Q

if patient has bright red blood per rectum and no hemorrhoids what is likely cause?

A

diverticular hemorrhage

86
Q

postprandial epigastric pain in chronic alcohol user should make you think what?

A

chronic pancreatitis

87
Q

what is rx of mild UC?

A

mesalamine (5-aminosalacyclic)

88
Q

what are sx of mild UC?

A

watery diarrhea less than 4 times a day, no anemia, no imflammatory markers

89
Q

what electrolyte change can trigger hepatic encephalopathy?

A

hypokalemia

90
Q

MALT lymphoma of stomach should make you think about what?

A

H pylori infection

Medicine Week 1 NCs (6 decks)

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