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Medicine Week 1 NCs > Week 4 Uworld > Flashcards

Week 4 Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

what abx for meningitis in immunocompromised?

A

ampicillin, vancomycin and cefepime

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2
Q

what abx for meningitis in someone 50+?

A

ampicillin vancomycin and 3rd gen cephalosporin

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3
Q

what murmur is common in aortic dissection?

A

aortic regurgitation

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4
Q

what can happen to kidneys in aortic dissection, why?

A

if it involves the renal arteries can have kidney injury…creatinine bump

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5
Q

multiple long nodules with cavitation at periphery of lungs should make you think what?

A

septic emboli from infective endocarditis

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6
Q

what are the sx of GVHD?

A

diarrhea, liver inflammation and maculopapular rash

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7
Q

when does someone develop GVHD?

A

within 100 days of transplant

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8
Q

what is rx of GVHD?

A

steroids

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9
Q

what is pathogenecity of GVHD?

A

Cd8 cells from transplant against host

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10
Q

is radioiodine uptake increased or decreased in graves disease?

A

increased

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11
Q

is radioiodine uptake increased or decreased in painless thyroiditis?

A

decreased

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12
Q

what are two reversal agents of warfarin

A

vit K and prothrombin complex concentrate

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13
Q

what electrolyte conributes to hypocalcemia?

A

hypomagnesemia

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14
Q

what is murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

crescendo decrescendo at LUSB

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15
Q

what is murmur of bicuspid aortic valve?

A

aortic regurg, diastolic decrescendo at LUSB

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16
Q

what are the symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A

nausea anorexia weakness fatigue and confusion

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17
Q

what medication often interacts with digoxin and causes toxicity?

A

amiodarone

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18
Q

what common medication can cause interstitial nephritis?

A

analgesic nephropathy (pain pills)

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19
Q

what should be given for anaerobic pneumonia as outpatient?

A

amox-clav

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20
Q

if you have steroid induced adrenal insufficiency, what are levels of ACTH, cortisol and aldosterone?

A

low acth and cortisol, normal aldosterone

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21
Q

if you have primary adrenal insufficiency, what are levels of ACTH, aldo and cortisol?

A

all low

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22
Q

3 findings in wernicke encephalopathy

A

ataxia, encephalopathy and nystagmus

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23
Q

two ppl that get wernickes encephalopathy?

A

alcoholics and severely malnourished

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24
Q

rx of wernickes?

A

thiamine then glucose

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25
Q

what rhythm agents are used in a fib initially?

A

diltiazem and verapamil

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26
Q

aside from lifestyle changes, what else can help patients with chronic pancreatitis?

A

pancreatic enzyme supplementation (included lipase)

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27
Q

what are signs of kidney transplant rejection?

A

proteinuria and worsening creatinine

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28
Q

when does kidney transplant rejection occur?

A

within 6 months of transplant

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29
Q

what is rx for kidney transplant rejection?

A

high dose IV steroids

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30
Q

what are ecg findings of hypokalemia?

A

flat T waves and U waves

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31
Q

what are symptoms of hypokalemia?

A

weakness, cramps, hyporeflexia, rhabdomyolysis

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32
Q

what are some causes of hypokalemia

A

diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea, hypomagnesemia, and loads of beta agonists

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33
Q

what is the main difference between a case control and cohort study?

A

in a cohort study, you take people with and without a risk factor and compare incidence of disease while in a case control you take cases of disease and controls without disease and compare if they had certain risk factors

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34
Q

isoniazid can cause what kind of anemia? how?

A

microcytic anemia…through pyrodoxine deficiency

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35
Q

is hemodynamic instability common in acute transplant rejection?

A

no, should make you think of bacterial infection

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36
Q

what abx for syphilis if you cannot give penicillin?

A

doxy

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37
Q

what will central venous pressure and capillary wedge pressure be in a PE?

A

CVP will be elevated and capillary wedge pressure will be normal or low

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38
Q

what blood cancer is associated with DIC?

A

APML

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39
Q

what is the A wave of JVP?

A

right atrial contraction

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40
Q

what is the C wave of JVP?

A

RV contraction against closed tricuspid

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41
Q

what is the V wave in JVP?

A

peak of right atrial filling

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42
Q

what can cause prominent A waves or cannon A waves?

A

atrioventricular disassociation leading to atrium contracting against closed ventricle

43
Q

what is best malaria prophylaxis?

A

mefloquine for 2 weeks before and 4 weeks after

44
Q

are bone infections from diabetic ulcers mono or polymicrobial?

A

usually polymicrobial

45
Q

what is a pulmonary side effect of amiodarone?

A

chronic interstitial pneumonitis

46
Q

renal vein thrombosis is most common with which nephrotic syndrome?

A

membranous nephropathy

47
Q

if there is a concern for ACS but no diagnosis yet, what should patient be given right away/

A

aspirin

48
Q

what can you give to diurese cirrhotic patient?

A

furosemide and spironolactone together

49
Q

what is triad of gonnococemia?

A

dermatitis, tenosynovitis and polyarthralgia

50
Q

straight lines looking wavy to someone is an early sign of what?

A

macular degeneration

51
Q

what TB drug is associated with hepatitis?

A

Isoniazid

52
Q

what should you do if patient wiht Tb has mild liver enzyme elevation while on isoniazid?

A

continue treatment

53
Q

how does dobutamine help decompensated heart failure?

A

beta agonist and leads to decrease in end systolic LV volum e

54
Q

does heart failure cause respiratory alkalosis or acidosis?

A

alkalosis

55
Q

does COPD cause respiratory alkalosis or acidosis?

A

acidosis

56
Q

what coag test can be abnormal in VWD?

A

PTT

57
Q

what is rx of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

amphotericin B

58
Q

what are CSF signs of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

high opening pressure, low glucose, high protein and low WBCs

59
Q

what is cause of AKI in cardiorenal syndrome?

A

increase in central venous pressure

60
Q

what is post exposure prophylaxis for HIV?

A

immediate test and start triple therapy

61
Q

does IgA nephropathy have to have significant amount of protein in urine?

A

NO will be blood and protein mixed

62
Q

what is test for ITP?

A

there isnt one…test for causes of ITP like autoimmune diseases

63
Q

what are three requirements for acute liver failure diagnosis?

A

high liver enzymes, poor fxn and hepatic encephalopathy

64
Q

can lupus cause seizures?

A

YEs

65
Q

what is first line therapy of BPH?

A

alpha antagonists

66
Q

what is first line therapy of patient with torsades?

A

magnesium

67
Q

ring enhancing lesions on brain MRI are suggestive of what in HIV patient?

A

toxoplasmosis

68
Q

what CD4 count makes you worried about toxo? what is ppx?

A

bactrim at <100 cells

69
Q

what are three meds to use for dementia?

A

rivastigmine, donepezil and galantamine

70
Q

what med is used for a fib in patient with wolf parkinson white?

A

procainamide

71
Q

why should you not give beta blockers or caclcium channel blockers to patients in afib who have WPW?

A

can promote conduction across accessory pathways

72
Q

what are two lung volume changes in pregnancy

A

decreased residual volume and FRC and increased minute ventilation

73
Q

why will patient with OSA have low chloride?

A

because of metabolic alkalosis compensation leading to high bicarb and low Cl

74
Q

heroin use and HIV put you at risk for what kidney disease?

A

FSGS

75
Q

if worried about acromegaly, what is first lab to check?

A

insulin like growth factor

76
Q

what are signs and symptoms of acromegaly?

A

skin tags, enlarged facial features, enlarged hands, arthralgia, carpal tunnel,

77
Q

patients with nephrotic syndrome have increased risk of what two things with blood vessels?

A

hypercoagulation and hyperlipidemia

78
Q

what do ppl usually pick up histoplasma from?

A

bat/bird droppings

79
Q

what imaging to diagnose budd chiari?

A

US of abdomen

80
Q

how soon after MI does papillary muscle rupture occur?

A

3-5 days

81
Q

how soon after MI does free wall rupture happen?

A

5 days to weeks

82
Q

how soon after MI does ventricular aneurysm develop?

A

weeks to months

83
Q

what is imaging for chronic mesenteric ischemia?

A

Ct angio

84
Q

what is mononeuritis multiplex?

A

neuropathy of more than 3 non contiguous nerves

85
Q

what is mononeuritis multiplex a feature of?

A

polyarteritis nodosa

86
Q

what are systemic sx of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

fever, weight loss and fatigue

87
Q

what are renal sx of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

HTN and renal insufficiency

88
Q

what are skin findings in polyarteritis nodosa?

A

nodules and livedo reticularis

89
Q

what is GI sx in polyarteritis nodosa?

A

mesenteric ischemia

90
Q

what are neuro sx ofpolyarteritis nodosa?

A

headache, seizure and mononeuritis multiplex

91
Q

pt with suicide attempt has oral ulcers and drooling and is in severe pain, what did they do?

A

caustic ingestion

92
Q

what LVEF supports mitral valve repair in MR? why?

A

30-60% and because it actually isnt this high bc part of cardiac output going into right atrium

93
Q

what are two types of mitral regurg? which one gets surgery?

A

primary and secondary (primary gets operated on)

94
Q

what is a common cause of secondary MR?

A

MI

95
Q

what is most common cause of primary MR?

A

myxomatous degeneration of valve

96
Q

what is difference between SJS and TEN?

A

TEN is more of body involved like greater than 30%

97
Q

what happens to cardiac output, SVR and BP in hypovolemic shock?

A

CO down due to loss, BP down and SVR up due to those being down

98
Q

what are some signs of RCC?

A

hematuria, flank pain, varicoceles

99
Q

what can happen to RBCs and platelets in RCC?

A

can have anemia or erythrocytosis and thrombocytosis

100
Q

what are levels of alk phos, calcium and phosphate in paget disease?

A

alk phos up, other normal

101
Q

what is rx of paget disease?

A

bisphosphonate s

102
Q

hammer and claw toes are classic findings of what?

A

T2DM neuropathy

103
Q

what causes BPPV?

A

often due to debris in canals

Medicine Week 1 NCs (6 decks)

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