week 7 prt 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

when does the nursing preoperative interview usually occur?

A

likely occurs on the day of surgery

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2
Q

what is the purpose of the preoperative interview?

A
  • obtain pt health information
  • determine the pts expectations about surgery and anesthesia
  • provide and clarify information about the surgery experience
  • assess the pts emotional state and readiness for surgery
  • provide discharge planning and postoperative teaching for the pt
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3
Q

what should be asked about a pts past health history?

A
  • medical problems
  • past hospitalizations
  • previous surgeries
  • reactions to anesthetics
  • menstrual and obstetrical history (need to know if pregnant)
  • family medical history
  • current medications (nurse should check with an anesthesiologist to ensure which meds should be stopped and which should be taken on day of surgery)
  • allergies (including drugs. chemicals, latex, pollen), pts on blood thinners need to stop before surgery
  • high stress: higher blood sugar
  • always continue insulin for a diabetic pt going through surgery
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4
Q

what does preoperative teaching do for the pt?

A

increases pt satisfaction and may reduce fear, anxiety, stress (the duration of hospitalization), and recovery time following discharge
- tell pt what they will see, hear, smell and feel during the surgery
(OR is cold, so they can ask for a warm blanket. Lights will be bright, and there will be lots of unfamiliar sounds

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5
Q

what should all pts receive instruction about?

A

deep breathing, incentive spirometry, coughing, and moving after surgery

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6
Q

what is informed consent?

A

is an active, shared decision-making process between the provider and the recipient of care
-the process protects the pt, surgeon, and the hospital and its employees

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7
Q

what MUST be disclosed about the surgery?

A
  • disclosure of the diagnosis
  • the purpose of the proposed tx
  • the risks and consequences of the proposed tx
  • the probability of successful outcome and risk of alternative tx
  • the prognosis if tx is not instituted (what happens if they don’t get surgery)
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8
Q

who is ultimately responsible for obtaining consent

A

the physician, the nurse may witness the pts signature

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9
Q

in the immediate post-anaesthetic period, what are the most common causes of airway compromise?

A

includes obstruction, hypoxemia, and hypoventilation

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10
Q

what is the most common cause of airway obstruction from an extremely sleepy pt after surgery?

A

blockage of the airway by a pts tongue

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11
Q

what are the most common causes of respiratory problems for postoperative pts in the clinical unit?

A

are atelectasis and pneumonia especially after abdominal and thoracic surgery

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12
Q

the post operative development of mucus plugs (built up mucus in lungs) and decreased surfactant production are directly related to what?

A
  • related to hypoventilation, constant recombant position, ineffective coughing, and history of smoking
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13
Q

what observations may indicate impaired ventilation?

A

the observation of slowed breathing or diminished chest and abdominal movements during respiratory cycle

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14
Q

regular monitoring of what helps the nurse to recognize early signs of resp complications?

A

regular monitoring of vital signs and use os a pulse oximetry in conjunction with a thorough resp assessment

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15
Q

what bed position maximinzes respirations?

A

supine position with the head of the bed elevated maximizes the expansion of the thorax and decreases the pressure of the abdominal contents of of the diaphram

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16
Q

what does deep breathing facilitate?

A
  • deep breathing facilitates gas exchange, prevents alveolar collapse and move respiratory secretions to larger airway passages
  • pt should be taugh to take in slow, deep breaths, through nose, hold, and then breath through mouth to exhale
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17
Q

how many times should a pt be deep breathing?

A

10 times every hours while awake

-an incentive spirometer is helpful in providing visual feedback of respiratory effort

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18
Q

how often should a pts position be changed to allow full chest expansion and increase perfusion of both lungs?

A

every 1-2 hours

19
Q

what is deep vein thrombosis?

A

somthing that may form in leg veins as a result of inactivity, body position, and pressure, all of which leads to venous statis and decreased perfusion

20
Q

what populations commonly get DVT?

A

-common in older pts, obese or immolilized pts

21
Q

how is DVT a potentially life threatening complication?

A

its potentially life threatening because it may lead to pulmonary embolism

22
Q

what pts should be suspected for pulmonary embolism?

A

in pts complaining of tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycarida, chest pain, hypotension, hemoptysis, dyrhythmias, or heart failure

23
Q

what should be taken during a postoperative period?

A

an accurate intake and output record and laboratory findings (electroyltes, hemocrit) should be monitored

24
Q

what is a prophylactic (prevention) measure for venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism?

A

the use of unfractionated heparin or low- molecular weight heparin

25
Q

what are the advantages of low-molecular-weight heparin over unfractionated heparin?

A
  • less major bleeding
  • decreased incidence of thrombocytopenia
  • better absorption
  • longer duration of action
  • no laboratory monitoring
26
Q

What is PTT?

A

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a blood test that looks at how long it takes for blood to clot. It can help tell if you have a bleeding problem or if your blood does not clot properly.

27
Q

what is postoperative pain?

A
  • caused by the interaction of a number of physiological and psychological factors
  • skin and underlying tissues have been traumatized by incision and retraction during surgery
  • most severe within the first 48 hours and subsides therfore
  • pts should be obsereved for indications of pain (eg, restlessness) and questioned about the degree and characteristcs of the pain
28
Q

administration of what medicine is completely on the nurse?

A

postoperative pain is a nursing responsibility because the surgeon’s orders for analgesic medication and other comfort measures are usually written on an as-needed basis

29
Q

during the first 48 hours, what is required to relieve pain?

A

narcotic alalgesics (eg, morphine)

30
Q

after the first 48 hours, what is used to treat post operative pain?

A

non-analgesics, such as NSAIDs may be sufficient as pain intensity decreases

31
Q

what is essential for wound healing?

A

an adequate diet

32
Q

incidence of wound sepsis (infection) is higher in what kind of pts?

A

pts who are malnourished

  • immunosupressed
  • older
  • have has a prolonges hospital stay or lengthy surgical procedure lasting longer than 3 hours
33
Q

when do surgical site infections occur? how are they characterized?

A
  • within 30 days after surgery or within 1 year of implant surgery
  • they are characterized by a combination of purulent discharge, the isolation of organisms, most commonly straphlococcus aureus
34
Q

what will a nurse assess about a wound?

A
  • apperance: color of wound, aprox of incision
  • size: size and shaper
  • drainage: check dressing for color, odour, and amount
  • Edema: excessive swelling may indicate complications
  • Pain: moderate incisional pain is expected for up to 5 days, sudden onset of severe pain my indicate hemorrhage
  • Drains; note the placement anf secureity of drain or tube
35
Q

what is common from any type of wound?

A

small amount of serous drainage

36
Q

what does purulent drainage indicate?

A

indicates surgical site infection

37
Q

what is dehiscence?

A
  • seperation and disruption of prev joined wound edges

- may be preceded by sudden discharge of brown, pink, or clear drainage

38
Q

what is evisceration?

A
  • protrusion of the visceral organs through a woung opening
  • can occur after surgery and is considered a medical emergancy
  • if it occurs, place sterile saline-soaked towels over any extruding tissue, observe pt for signs and symptoms of shock, and call teh surgeon immediately
39
Q

what is postoperative oliguria?

A

Refers to a decrease in urine output (less than 500 ml) in the first 24 hours after a major operation regardless of fluid intake

40
Q

what is anuria?

A

pts that cant produce urine: renal failure pts

-caused by stress of surgery, fluid restriction before surgery, loss of fluids during surgery, drainage, and diaphoresis

41
Q

what are normal levels of urine?

A

0.5 - 1 ml /kg / hrs (60 ml /hr)

42
Q

what can persistant oliguria indicate?

A

inadequate renal perfusion and pending renal failure

43
Q

what should a nurse do if no void occurs?

A

the abdominal contour should be inspected and the bladder palpated and percussed for distention, check for obstruction