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Dundee uni med > week 7- FOM > Flashcards

week 7- FOM Flashcards

1
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Necrosis is pathological cell death, often caused by ischemia, affecting groups of cells with inflammation and swelling.

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of necrosis?

A

Necrosis is always pathological, affects groups of cells, causes cell swelling, and induces an inflammatory reaction.

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3
Q

What are the types of necrosis?

A

Coagulative, Liquefactive, Caseous, Gangrenous necrosis.

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4
Q

What is coagulative necrosis and what causes it?

A

Coagulative necrosis is caused by hypoxia (e.g., myocardial infarction), where cell outlines remain intact but the interior becomes damaged and non-repairable.

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5
Q

What is liquefactive necrosis?

A

Liquefactive necrosis involves complete digestion of cells by hydrolytic enzymes, often in brain injury or infections, leading to a liquid “pus” formation.

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6
Q

What is caseous necrosis and where is it commonly seen?

A

Caseous necrosis has a “cheesy” consistency due to partial cell disintegration, commonly seen in tuberculosis and fungal infections.

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7
Q

What is gangrenous necrosis?

A

Gangrenous necrosis occurs due to severe hypoxic injury, causing tissue to turn black, often associated with infection or blood flow loss.

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8
Q

What is the general pathway of necrosis?

A

The pathway of necrosis includes cell shrinkage (pyknosis), chromatin condensation, nuclear fragmentation, cytoplasmic breakdown, and macrophage cleanup.

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9
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Apoptosis is programmed, energy-dependent cell death in response to specific signals, either physiological or pathological.

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10
Q

What are the types of apoptosis?

A

Physiological (normal processes like tissue development, hormone-regulated cell turnover) and Pathological (triggered by stress, DNA damage, viral infections, or toxins).

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11
Q

What activates the extrinsic pathway in apoptosis?

A

The extrinsic pathway is activated by death receptors like TNF and Fas, triggering caspase activation.

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12
Q

What triggers the intrinsic pathway in apoptosis?

A

The intrinsic pathway is triggered by mitochondrial damage and involves pro-apoptotic proteins (e.g., Bax, Bak) and the release of cytochrome C, activating caspases.

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13
Q

What role does p53 play in apoptosis?

A

p53 is a tumor suppressor that senses DNA damage, halts the cell cycle, and triggers apoptosis if DNA repair is not possible.

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14
Q

What are the consequences of too little or excessive apoptosis?

A

Too little apoptosis can lead to cancer and autoimmune diseases, while excessive apoptosis is linked to neurodegenerative disorders like Alzheimer’s.

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15
Q

What are the causes of cellular ageing?

A

Cellular ageing is caused by oxidative stress and accumulation of metabolic by-products like lipofuscin.

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16
Q

How does calorie restriction influence ageing?

A

Calorie restriction extends lifespan by reducing insulin-like growth factor (IGF) signaling, which helps silence ageing-related genes.

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17
Q

What is the difference between necrosis and apoptosis?

A

Necrosis is uncontrolled, pathological cell death affecting groups of cells with inflammation, while apoptosis is a controlled, programmed cell death that can be physiological or pathological.

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18
Q

What role do receptors play in cell signaling?

A

Receptors are key components for detecting and responding to signaling molecules, essential for coordinating physiological functions such as gene expression.

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19
Q

What are the types of signaling molecules?

A

Autocrine (act on the same cell), Paracrine (act on nearby cells), and Endocrine (travel through the bloodstream to target distant cells).

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20
Q

What is the difference between hydrophobic and hydrophilic ligands?

A

Hydrophobic ligands (e.g., steroid hormones) require carrier proteins to cross the extracellular matrix, while hydrophilic ligands (e.g., peptides) bind to surface receptors as they cannot cross the cell membrane.

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21
Q

What are the three stages of cell signaling?

A

Reception (ligand binding to receptor), Transduction (receptor activates intracellular signaling), Cell Response (cell alters gene expression, enzyme activity, or ion movement).

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22
Q

What is the function of ligand-gated ion channels?

A

They mediate rapid ion flow changes, altering membrane potential and activating the cell, with a response time in milliseconds.

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23
Q

What do G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) do?

A

GPCRs activate G proteins to modulate effector molecules, like enzymes or ion channels, and have a response time of seconds.

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24
Q

What do enzyme-coupled receptors do?

A

They act as enzymes or are associated with enzymes, leading to phosphorylation of proteins, with a response time in hours.

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25
Q

What are nuclear receptors and how do they work?

A

Nuclear receptors are located inside the cell, typically in the nucleus, and regulate gene transcription in response to ligands like steroid hormones.

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26
Q

What are common drug targets in the body?

A

Receptors, enzymes, ion channels, and carrier proteins are common drug targets.

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27
Q

What is pharmacology?

A

Pharmacology is the study of how chemical substances modify bodily functions, including drug interactions.

28
Q

What is the difference between agonists and antagonists?

A

Agonists activate receptors to mimic natural signals, while antagonists bind to receptors without activating them, preventing other signals from activating the receptor.

29
Q

What is EC50?

A

EC50 is the drug concentration required to produce 50% of its maximum effect, with smaller values indicating higher potency.

30
Q

What is the difference between first-order and zero-order kinetics in drug elimination?

A

In first-order kinetics, the fraction eliminated per unit time is constant. In zero-order kinetics, a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time, regardless of plasma concentration.

31
Q

What is half-life in drug elimination?

A

Half-life is the time required for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease by half.

32
Q

What is clearance in drug elimination?

A

Clearance refers to the volume of plasma cleared of a drug per unit of time and determines the dosage rate to maintain desired drug concentrations.

33
Q

What happens in Phase I of drug metabolism?

A

Phase I involves oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis to make the drug more water-soluble, primarily through cytochrome P450 enzymes.

34
Q

What happens in Phase II of drug metabolism?

A

Phase II involves conjugation with another compound to make the drug more water-soluble and unable to diffuse back into cells for elimination.

35
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Bioavailability is the fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged, with intravenous drugs having 100% bioavailability.

36
Q

What are the mechanisms of drug absorption?

A

Drugs can be absorbed via passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, or endocytosis.

37
Q

What does the apparent volume of distribution (Vd) represent?

A

Vd represents the hypothetical volume needed to contain the total amount of drug at the same concentration as in the plasma.

38
Q

How does plasma protein binding affect drug distribution?

A

Plasma protein binding reduces the availability of a drug to target tissues, influencing its apparent volume of distribution (Vd).

39
Q

What is clearance in relation to drug elimination?

A

Clearance is the volume of plasma cleared of a drug per unit time and helps determine the required dosage rate for maintaining therapeutic plasma concentrations.

40
Q

What is pathology?

A

Pathology is the study of the causes of diseases, focusing on how diseases develop and manifest in the body.

41
Q

What does the acronym VINDICATE stand for in disease pathology?

A

Vascular, Infectious/Inflammatory, Neoplasia, Drugs/Toxins, Intervention/Iatrogenic, Congenital/Developmental, Autoimmune, Trauma, Endocrine.

42
Q

What additional category is recognized in disease pathology?

A

Psychiatric/Psychological illness is also an important category in disease pathology.

43
Q

What are some methods used in disease pathology?

A

Genetic tests, Immunological tests, Special stains for infections.

44
Q

What are the types of pathology?

A

Gross Pathology, Microscopy, Autopsy Pathology.

45
Q

What does gross pathology involve?

A

Gross pathology involves dissecting resected specimens to study visible changes in the tissues.

46
Q

What is microscopy used for in pathology?

A

Microscopy is a systematic approach to studying tissue samples under a microscope, identifying cellular changes.

47
Q

What does autopsy pathology examine?

A

Autopsy pathology involves post-mortem examination to determine the cause of death and study disease progression.

48
Q

What causes inflammation?

A

Infection, Trauma, Foreign bodies, Immune reactions, Necrosis.

49
Q

What vascular changes occur during inflammation?

A

Vasodilation (heat, redness), increased tissue perfusion, caused by histamine and nitric oxide.

50
Q

What cellular changes happen during inflammation?

A

Stasis, Margination, Rolling & Adhesion, Transendothelial Migration, Chemotaxis.

51
Q

What is phagocytosis in the context of inflammation?

A

Phagocytosis is the process where white blood cells engulf and destroy pathogens using reactive oxygen and nitrogen species.

52
Q

What are the clinical features of inflammation?

A

Rubor (redness), Calor (heat), Tumor (swelling), Dolor (pain), Functio laesa (loss of function).

53
Q

What are the outcomes of acute inflammation?

A

Resolution, Suppuration (abscess formation), Chronic Inflammation, Restitution (Scarring).

54
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic inflammation?

A

Chronic inflammation involves lymphocytes and macrophages, and can result from unresolved acute inflammation or begin as chronic.

55
Q

What are granulomas and where are they commonly seen?

A

Granulomas are aggregates of macrophages that form around pathogens or foreign bodies, commonly seen in tuberculosis, Crohn’s disease, and certain infections.

56
Q

What happens during restitution (scarring)?

A

Scarring occurs when injury is severe or prolonged, leading to fibrous tissue formation and functional impairment.

57
Q

What is homeostasis in the context of cell injury?

A

Homeostasis is the maintenance of stable internal conditions in living systems.

58
Q

What are hyperplasia and hypertrophy?

A

Hyperplasia is the increase in cell number, and hypertrophy is the increase in cell size in response to increased demand.

59
Q

What are the types of hyperplasia?

A

Physiological (e.g., breast tissue growth) and Pathological (e.g., excessive estrogen causing endometrial hyperplasia).

60
Q

What is the mechanism behind hypertrophy?

A

Hypertrophy involves increased protein synthesis due to growth factors, leading to larger cell size.

61
Q

What types of receptors mediate cellular responses to growth signals?

A

Tyrosine kinase receptors, G-protein coupled receptors, Non-tyrosine kinase receptors.

62
Q

What are the key phases of the cell cycle?

A

G1 Phase (growth), S Phase (DNA replication), G2 Phase (checks for DNA errors), M Phase (Mitosis).

63
Q

What is atrophy and when does it occur?

A

Atrophy is the reduction in cell size due to decreased workload or other factors, seen in both physiological and pathological conditions.

64
Q

How does atrophy occur at the cellular level?

A

Atrophy involves reduced protein synthesis and increased degradation of cellular components, such as through lysosomes.

65
Q

What is the summary of cellular adaptations to stress?

A

Cells adapt to stress through mechanisms like hyperplasia, hypertrophy, or atrophy to maintain homeostasis. Chronic or severe stress may lead to pathological changes like atrophy or unchecked growth (e.g., cancer).

66
Q

What role do checkpoints play in the cell cycle?

A

Checkpoints, such as those regulated by cyclins and CDKs, ensure proper cell division and the integrity of DNA during the cell cycle.

Dundee uni med (9 decks)

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