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B1 > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: The number of fat cells is determined perinatally and fixed

A

TRUE - hypercellular obesity is exception

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2
Q

Define induced pluripotent stem cells. What is a main factor in deriving these cells.

A

artificially derived from cell non-pluripotent cell. Myc.

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3
Q

In ________ secretion, cells accumulate secretory product then distingrate to release material (ex: sebum)

A

holocrine

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4
Q

Completion of DNA replication and environmental favorability control the _______ in the cell cycle

A

start of mitosis, G2/M transition

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5
Q

Most of kinetochore and overlap microtubules nucleated by centrosomes are released then held and organized at the poles by _______

A

motor proteins

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6
Q

What catalyzes the rate limiting step of cyclin destruction?

A

ubiquitin lyase

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7
Q

RBCs, granulocytes, macrophages, platelets and lymphocytes are all derived from one population of stem cells in the ____________

A

bone marrow

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8
Q

Which two epithelia are involved in transportation?

A

simple columnar and pseudostratified

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9
Q

Cyclin-cdk complex is activated by addition of phosphate by _____

A

CAK

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10
Q

_______ is a collagenopathy that causes loose skin

A

epidermolysis bullosa

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11
Q

Finding a better way to target and kill _________ may lead to a dramatic reduction in cancer occurrence

A

cancer stem cells

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12
Q

Describe how Ige binding to a receptor on a mast cell triggers cascade of events

A

Activates AC –> activates protein kinase –> release of Ca++ then granular contents and activates phospholipases to convert arachadonic acid in membrane and secrete leukotrienes, thromboxanes, prostaglandins

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13
Q

___________ transplantation or bone marrow transplantation is used in modern cancer therapy

A

hematopoietic stem cell

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14
Q

Describe clonality in cancer

A

Neoplasm derived from a single precursor cell

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15
Q

________ are of fetal origin or differentiated from ES cells and induced PS cells

A

neural stem cells

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16
Q

___________ make up the epidermis of the skin and protect

A

Stratified squamous keratinized

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17
Q

__________ cross link two sister chromatids and thus bind chromosomes together

A

Cohesins

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18
Q

__________ aka reticular fibers are also fibril forming and highly glycosylated. They form the structural framework of lymph tissue, adipose, liver, lung and skin

A

Collagen III

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19
Q

During mitosis, CDC20 activates APC. Describe how APC triggers separation of sister chromatids.

A

APC activation leads to destruction of securin –> activates separase –> separase cleaves cohesin complex –> mitotic spindle pulls sister chromatids apart

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20
Q

True or false: epithelial cells are avascular

A

TRUE - receive nutrition by diffusion through basement membrane

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21
Q

What’s the difference between brown fat in infants and adults?

A

Infants is multilocar, adults are unilocar

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22
Q

_______, cysteine aspartic proteases, are the effectors of apoptosis

A

Caspases

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23
Q

True/False - Cells differ because they contain different genetic information

A

FALSE - they express different sets of genes

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24
Q

_____ normally binds p53 and and ubiquitylates it targeting it for proteasomal degradation

A

mdm

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25
Q

_________ are the primary cell adhesion molecules of the ECM

A

glycoproteins

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26
Q

BCL2 is an anti apoptotic protein that inhibits the caspase cascade and is overexpressed in _________

A

follicular lymphoma

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27
Q

BCl2 family proteins also regulate intrinsic pathway by controlling mitochondrial release of ________ proteins

A

anti-IAP (anti- apoptosis inhibitory proteins)

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28
Q

In _________ (cell type), if part of liver is surgically removed, the remaining cells can proliferate to regenerate

A

epithelial cells

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29
Q

Describe the role of laminin in the basal lamina.

A

Multi-adhesive ECM components that binds cells to collagen IV and integrins, associated with cell differentiation

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30
Q

______ and ______ are elastic fibers that allow tissue to expand and contract. They are abundant in blood vessels, lungs and skin.

A

elastin and fibrillin

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31
Q

True or false: Changing lifestyles is most effective way to prevent cancer

A

True

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32
Q

Chromosomal rearrangement can also cause cancer. In Burkitt’s lymphoma, a nearby regulatory DNA sequence causes NL cell overproduction. In _____ a fusion to actively transcribed gene greatly overproduces fusion protein

A

CML

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33
Q

Describe the key characteristic of each phase of mitosis (6)

A

Prophase (chromosomal condensation), prometaphase (nuclear envelope breakdown), metaphase (chromosomal alignment), anaphase (sister chromatid separation), telophase (daughter chromosome separation), cytokinesis

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34
Q

In _________, vesicular exocytosis ocurs that involves part of the plasma membrane which is returned back to cell and recycled

A

merocrine secretion ** most common type of secretory mechanism

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35
Q

The __________ is used to identify malignant tumors of epithelial origin

A

macula adherens

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36
Q

________ is the first selective inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and is effective against breast cancer and approved for some lung cnacers

A

Iressa

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37
Q

____________ of endothelial cells stimulates differentiated cells to proliferate to repair damaged tissues (i.e. angiogenesis in MI)

A

vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

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38
Q

It is estimated that _____ mutations need to accumulate in a single line of cells to cause cancer

A

10-20

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39
Q

_______ blocks DNA synthesis. When combined with caffeine, the checkpoint that causes block fails and cells proceed into mitosis with incompletely replicated DNA. This results in _________

A

hydroxyurea, suicidal mitosis

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40
Q

________ assemble on centromeres during late prophase. The DNA sequence at the centromere of each sister chromatid specifies their construction.

A

kinetochore

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41
Q

A ________ is a non-neoplastic overgrowth of normal tissue

A

hamaratoma

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42
Q

The _____ contains the neoplastic component of a tumor whereas the ____ contains the supportive tissue or “desmoplasia”

A

parenchyma, stroma

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43
Q

__ phase includes the highest number of cells

A

G1 phase

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44
Q

What causes cancer?

A

uncontrolled cell growth and apoptosis

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45
Q

_________ include skin, heart valves, fibrous pericardium, and fibrous capsules of organs and of joints

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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46
Q

_______ generally exhibit genetic instability which promotes tumorigenesis

A

p53 mutants

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47
Q

Features in cancer cells include a low N:C ratio, abnormal mitotic figures and ________

A

prominent nucleoli

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48
Q

What is a classic example of a totipotent cell?

A

zygote

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49
Q

Trauma, lack of blood flow, infection, chemicals, inflammation, nutritional imbalances can all cause _______ of cells

A

necrosis

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50
Q

Differences between serosa and mucosa

A

Serosa - mesothelium, CT space with blood vessels. Mucosa - epithelium with or without glands, has basement membrane, lamina propia, muscularis mucosae

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51
Q

Name the three classes of microtubules

A

astral, kinetochore, overlap

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52
Q

An adenocarcinoma signifies what?

A

Glandular epithelial malignant tumor (colon, lung, pancreas, breast, prostate)

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53
Q

A morphogen can be created in two ways. What are they?

A

By localized production of an inducer OR by localized production of an inhibitor , both diffuse away from source

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54
Q

__________ is the name of the ECM of the umbilical cord

A

Wharton’s Jelly

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55
Q

___________ serve as cushioning layers and often associated with adipose tissue

A

loose connective tissue

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56
Q

__________ epithelia are involved in fluid transport, gaseous exchange, lubrication, reduced friction and membrane lining/limiting

A

simple squamous epithelium

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57
Q

Microvilli of ________ border are found in GI tract and gallbladder and may move via pumping action. They are absorptive.

A

Striated

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58
Q

_________ line the conjunctiva of the eye, some large excretory ducts, portions of male urethra and are involved in secretion, absorption, protection

A

stratified columnar

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59
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue fibers?

A

reticular fibers, elastic fibers, collagen fibers

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60
Q

____ and ____ mutations can cause cancer when a small point mutation or deletion causes hyperactive protein to be made in normal amounts

A

Ras, EGF receptor

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61
Q

Describe how S-phase initiation is controlled in animal cells in regards to Rb.

A

G1-CDK activity initiates Rb phosphorylation –> Rb inactivated –> E2F freed to activate S phase genes (G2/S-cyclin and S-cyclin) –> gene activity enhances Rb phosphorylation –> E2f acts back to stimulate transcription of its own gene

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62
Q

The ______ is critical for collecting cells together to form a tissue, a substrate for cell migration in wound healing and embryonic development, and responsible for relay of enviro signals to cell surface

A

extracellular matrix

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63
Q

Cytochrome c triggers assembly of the large, heptameric ______ by binding to APAF1 (apop activating factor 1) which causes it to hydrolyze its ATP followed by replacement by a new ATP.

A

apoptosome

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64
Q

The actin and myosin filaments of the _______ divide the cell in two during M phase

A

Contractile ring

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65
Q

___________ is common in adults and childremn, found in myelogenous cells and grows quickly

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia

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66
Q

Microtubules are nucleated in centrosomes via their _______ ends (anchored at spindle pores) while their _____ ends grow outwards toward the periphery

A

negative, positive

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67
Q

_________ are network forming and found in the basal lamina where they support filtration

A

Collagen IV

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68
Q

Describe fibronectin’s role in wound healing

A

Fibronectin links to fibrin clots where it attracts fibroblasts and endothelial cells that promote healing

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69
Q

Abnormalities in homeostasis result in cancer. These abnormalities can be exploited in _____________ in hopes of replacing damaged tissues.

A

Pluripotent stem cells

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70
Q

True or false - well differentiated cancer cells tend to be more aggressive than poorly differentiated

A

FALSE, backwards

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71
Q

What are the two major components of the basal lamina?

A

Laminin and type IV collagen

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72
Q

The loss of _______ by cancer cells allows them to exfoliate into soft tissue

A

e-cadherin

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73
Q

Chromosomes attach to spindle microtubules via a _______

A

kinetochore

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74
Q

Describe the roles of fibronectin and laminin in ECM

A

glycoproteins that link extracellular fibers to cells

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75
Q

_______ is associated with outer nuclear envelope and pores, marker for connective tissue tumors and is found on fibroblasts, endothelial cells, etc

A

Vimentin

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76
Q

__________ line the urinary passages from renal calyces to the urethra and are involved in protection and distensible

A

transitional epithelium

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77
Q

An osteosarcoma signifiies what?

A

Bone malignant tumor from mesenchymal tissue

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78
Q

A mutation in APC which gives rise to clone cells that act as though Wnt signaling is permanently activated is linked to what type of tumor formation?

A

Colonic Adenoma

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79
Q

What are the two types of signaling pathways needed by cells to proliferate?

A

mitogens and growth factors

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80
Q

Fertilization triggers two types of intracellular movements that determine polarity of embryo. Describe.

A

cortical rotation through 30 degree relative to core (determined by sperm entry); active transport of disheveled protein in wnt pathway which defines dorsoventral polarity

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81
Q

___ fat is found in adults whereas ___ fat is found in infants

A

white, brown

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82
Q

Killer T-lymphocytes with Fas ligand attach to Fas death receptor on target cell which stimulates assembly of _______ and activation/cleavage of Proscaspase 8 or 10 (or both)

A

DISC

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83
Q

_____ looks at the molecular processes of the tumor and is more indicative of how the tumor is going to behave

A

grading

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84
Q

Immobile cilia syndrome is also known as _____________ and results in chronic respiratory difficulty and sterility in males and some females

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

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85
Q

_____ initiate changes of microtubule length by causing phosphorylation of MAPs (microtubule associated proteins) and catastrophins

A

M-cdks

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86
Q

During separation of spindle poles in prophase, when two microtubules from opposite centrosomes interact in an overlap zone, + end directed ______ related motor proteins cross-link the microtubules together and tend to drive them in a direction that pulls apart centrosomes

A

kinesin

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87
Q

Describe the two products of asymmetric division by stem cells

A

(1) one daughter cell that continues proliferating indefinitely, (2) one progenitor cell that further divides and terminally differentiates

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88
Q

Without ______, cdk is inactive and cannot trigger specific cell-cycle events

A

cyclin

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89
Q

The epithelia is separated from underlying tissues by the ___________

A

basement membrane

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90
Q

In BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations what kind of DNA repair is defective?

A

dsDNA break repair

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91
Q

In epithelial cells, the extracellular matrix is described as a __________ in light microscopy and as a ___________ in electron microscopy

A

basement membrane, basal lamina

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92
Q

Therapeutic cloning involves taking a nucleus from adult human cells and transferring it to an enucleated egg from which embryonic stem cells can be extracted from cloned embryo. What are three advantages of this?

A

pluripotency, no tissue rejection by immune system, application combined with gene transfer can correct inherited diseases

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93
Q

Most cells in early embryos are coupled by _________, which involve connexons and are a hydrophilic channel

A

gap junctions

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94
Q

_________ is found in epithelial cells and provides structural support or tension-bearing role, is a marker for tumor of epithelial cell origin

A

Keratin

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95
Q

The gastrula is formed at ______ days and contains 3 germ layers

A

14-16 post fertilization

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96
Q

_____ prevents cells with damaged, unstable DNA from dividing. Mutations in this protein can have a dominant negative effect. The most common mutations in this protein that cause cancer are found in its DNA binding domain.

A

p53

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97
Q

Attachment of all chromosomes to the spindle controls the ______ in the cell cycle

A

metaphase to anaphase transition

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98
Q

___________ are present in greatest numbers in areas of chronic inflammation and where foreign substances and microorganisms have entered tissues.

A

plasma cells

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99
Q

How do cancer cells utilize their fibronectin receptors to metastasize?

A

Malignant cells lack cell surface fibronectin and migrate - their Fn receptors then bind to Fn receptors at distance sites and facilitate metastasis

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100
Q

What are the two subtypes of extracellular matrix. Briefly describe.

A

Interstitial - surrounds cells in tissues, abundant in connective tissue; basement membrane - sheets of fibers that underly the epithelium

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101
Q

_______ are loss of function mutations that are recessive. An example is Rb.

A

tumor suppressor genes

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102
Q

When DNA is damaged, protein kinases phosphorylate p53 and what happens?

A

MDM can no longer bind to it, so p53 concentration in cell increases –> increases transcription of p21 –> p21 binds and inactivates S-cdk and G/S-cdk complexes –> cell arrested in G1 cycle

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103
Q

_______ are found on nuclear lamina of all cells and organize peripheral chromatin and control assembly/disassembly of nuclear envelope

A

lamins

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104
Q

Name three types of proper connective tissue

A

loose, dense, adipose

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105
Q

Define pluripotency

A

Capacity of stem cell to divide into all 3 germ layers

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106
Q

What are the disadvantages of therapeutic cloning?

A

low efficiency of generating embryos, cell culture conditions not fully known, ethical concerns (cloning whole humans, destroying embryos)

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107
Q

There are 5 types of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs). _____ is the main type in connective tissue and forms the “backbone” for assembly of other GAGs. It is also a major component of synovial fluid.

A

Hyaluronan

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108
Q

_____ is caused by a lack of vitamin C which is an important cofactor for proline hydroxylase. Ulceration of gums and hemmorhages are seen

A

Scurvy

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109
Q

Activation of executioner caspases by initiator capases leads to cleavage of?

A

cytosolic proteins and nuclear lamin

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110
Q

Macrophages differentiate from monocytes upon _________

A

entry to connective tissue

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111
Q

Caspases posses a _______ residue on their active site and cleave a ______ residue in target peptide

A

cysteine, aspartate

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112
Q

A _________ occurs when gastric carcinoma metastasizes to the ovaries via vascular supply due to loss of e-cadherin

A

Krukenberg tumor

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113
Q

In absence of an apoptotic stimulus, cytosolic _____ proteins bind to and inhibit spontaneously activated caspases.

A

IAP (inhibition of apoptosis proteins)

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114
Q

Glucose uptake by tumor cells ends up producing what two things

A

An abundance of lactate and building blocks

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115
Q

Describe the potency characteristic of stem cells

A

ability to differentiate into any specialized cell

116
Q

TNF death ligands bind to ___ death receptors which directly activate a distinct initiator caspase (8 or 10)

A

Fas

117
Q

Invasion of cancer cells facilitated by laminin attachment, fibronectin, cytokine secretion, angiogenesis and what other two factors?

A

type IV collagenases, loss of intracellular adhesion

118
Q

p21 binds and inactivates _____ and _____ complexes which arrests cell in G1

A

G1/S-cdk and S-cdk

119
Q

The most common metastasis of lungs is to the ___________

A

brain

120
Q

What are the four different cell types in intestinal epithelium that are generated from undifferentiated multipotent stem cells?

A

absorptive cells, goblet cells, enteroendocrine cells, paneth cells

121
Q

During the cell cycle, sensory mechanisms detect unreplicated DNA and block the activation of ______

A

M-CDK

122
Q

_______ targets the r600E mutation in Raf and is present in about 1/2 of all melanomas

A

Zelporaf

123
Q

Composition of _____ determines cell phenotype and behavior

A

ECM

124
Q

The Bcl family is part of the ________ pathway of apoptosis whereas Fas and TNF receptors are part of the _______

A

intrinsic/mitochondrial, extrinsic/death receptor pathway

125
Q

Describe collagen function in ECM

A

rope like fibers that give tissue tensile strength

126
Q

_______ is more important for prognosis and involves looking at the tumor size/location, nodes, and metastases

A

Staging

127
Q

____________ of fibroblasts allows differentiated cells to proliferate to repair a cut or wound

A

platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

128
Q

_______ encompasses cancers that arise form hematopoietic cells and those derived from cells of nervous system

A

Leukemias

129
Q

What are the 4 layers of the intestinal wall?

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

130
Q

True/False : Apoptotic signaling pathways are being used to provide new therapeutic way of treating cancer

A

True

131
Q

Describe how a survival signal binding to RTK leads to inhibition of apoptosis

A

PI3K activated –> PIP2 produced –> PDK1 and PKB recruited to membrane –> PDK1 phosphorylates and activates PKB –> PKB dissociates and phosphorylates BAD –> Bad cannot inactivate death inhibitory protein

132
Q

Lysyl oxidase initiates cross linking in what two compounds?

A

elastin and collagen

133
Q

____ are involved in the control of G1/S phases. Their binding rearranges the structure of the cdk site, rendering it inactive. p27 is an example.

A

CDK inhibitor proteins (CKI)

134
Q

Adult stem cell therapy uses patient’s own stem cells to eliminate potential complications of ________________

A

immune rejection

135
Q

________ are gain of function mutations that have DOMINANT transforming effects. An example is Ras.

A

Oncogenes

136
Q

What are the three criteria in tumor grading?

A

gland formation, nuclear atypical pleomorphism, mitosis

137
Q

___________ results from sensitivity to gluten and is characterized by loss of microvilli on surface of small intestine leading to osmotic diarrhea (decreased absorptive capacity)

A

Celiac sprue

138
Q

__________ are derived in bone marrow and possess granules containinng histamine, heparin and granulate with secondary exposure to antigen/allergens. They are capable of synthesizing primary mediators

A

Mast cells

139
Q

_________ are cancers arising from epithelial cells wheras ________ are cancers arising from connective tissue or muscle cells

A

carcinomas, sarcomas

140
Q

The typical salivary exocrine gland is the compound _______

A

tubuloalveolar

141
Q

Mechanical junctions include zonula adherins which anchor to _______, desmosomes which anchor to ______ and hemidesmosomes which anchor to _________

A

actin microfilaments, keratin, basement membrane

142
Q

The arterial form of __________ is characterized by rupture of vessels, colon rupture, joint and skin and is caused by defects in type IV collagen

A

Ehlers-Danlos Type II

143
Q

Sister chromatids attach to kinetochore microtubules which bind by their ____ ends. Each kinetochore forms a ______ on the surface of the centromere.

A

positive, plaque

144
Q

___________ can develop aggressively in AIDs patient and involve the skin, lungs, GI tract and other organs

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

145
Q

Fibronectin is a glycosylated multi-adhesive protein found in connective tissues and plasma that is associated with what?

A

cell proliferation and migration

146
Q

Mixed tumors are usually benign and contain _________, where as teratomas have components derived from ________

A

2 germ layers, all 3

147
Q

During _________, chromosomes move poleward, away from the metaphase plate with the retraction of the microtubule. In the second phase, __________, the mitotic poles marked by the centrosomes themselves separate.

A

anaphase A, anaphase B

148
Q

Stem cells can replicate indefinitely whereas __________ can divide only a limited number of times

A

progenitor cells

149
Q

TNF and other cell death receptor ligands consist of 3 ____________ so their binding to cell death receptors induces receptor _______

A

polypeptide chains, trimerization

150
Q

What are elastic fibers composed of? Name examples.

A

Elastin core and microfibrils. Fibrillin

151
Q

Microvilli of _______ border are found in proximal convoluted kidneys, choroid plexus, placenta and are absorptive.

A

microvilli

152
Q

Describe the steps of collagen synthesis

A

Procollagen synth in ER –> hydroxylation of prolines and lysines –> glycosylated on hydrolysines and asparagines –> disulfide bonds between 3 alpha chains –> procollagen secreted from cell –> ECM proteases cleave ends –> tropocollagen fiber –> crosslink to form collagen

153
Q

__________ is common in adults and grows slowly in myeloid cells

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

154
Q

___________ are found in the epididymis, ductus deferens, internal ear and have no mobility . They are absorptive and may be secretive.

A

stereocilia

155
Q

_____________ is the most common form of collagen and is found in bone, skin, tendons, dentin and fibrocartilage

A

Collagen I

156
Q

____________ and ______ protein kinases phosphorylate and activate p53 tumor suppressor protein and the resulting increase in p53 leads to transcriptional activation of target genes which include cdk inhibitor p21 and BH3-only proteins PUMA and Noxa

A

ATM (ataxia telangiectasia mutated) and CHK2

157
Q

The ________ is the principal microtubule organizing center. Before a cell divides, it must duplicate this structure to provide one for each daughter cell.

A

centrosome

158
Q

As cells differentiate, their rate of proliferation usually decreases and most cells in adult animals are arrested in _____ stage of cell cycle

A

G0

159
Q

________ is common in kids and found in lymphoid cells, exhibiting quick growth

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

160
Q

What are the two pathways in apoptosis?

A

intrinsic (mitochondrial) and extrinsic (death receptor initiated)

161
Q

_____ and ____ activity results in cdk inactivation during G1. Once the cell is ready for another cell cycle, the increase in G1/CDK and G1/S CDK activities inhibit these proteins, allowing S-cdk activity to increase.

A

Hct1 and Sic1

162
Q

Describe the Pi3K/Akt/mTOR pathway briefly

A

Growth factor binds RTK –> RTK activated –> Pi3K activated –> PIP2 converted to PIP3 –> Akt recruited to membrane and activated –> activates mTOR and Acl. mTOR increases protein synthesis and inc glycolysis leads to more citrate production. Acl converts citrate to acetyl coa needed for membrane biosynthesis in cell growth.

163
Q

Activation of PUMA and NOXA leads to activation of ____________ (2 proteins) which leads to mitochondrial release of cytochrome C (activates apoptosis)

A

Bax and Bak

164
Q

A _______ or ______ is a non-neoplastic normal tissue in an abnormal location

A

heterotopia, ectopia

165
Q

Name the four agents known to cause cancer

A

UV radiation, ionizing radiation, viruses (15%), smoking

166
Q

Epithelial cells are polarized and attached to each other via _________ to form a sheet with little or no intercellular space between cells

A

junctional complexes

167
Q

__________ in epidermis and _________ or Kupffer cells in the liver represent different types of macrophages

A

Langerhans, Perisinusoidal

168
Q

_____ and ____ signaling control the production of differentiated cells from stem cells in the intestine

A

Wnt and Notch

169
Q

The zonula occludens or ____________ prevent lateral migration of specifialized membrane proteins

A

tight junctions

170
Q

What three things compose connective tissue?

A

ground substance (GS), fibers, cells

171
Q

Describe the “starry sky” phenomenon seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

Tumor rapidly dividing –> unregulated cell division –> high turnover –> high rates of apoptosis –> phagocytes make holes

172
Q

_______ are found on neurons and provide support for axons and dendrites

A

Neurofilaments

173
Q

Which of the following is not a major location of collagen?

a) tendon
b) lungs
c) artery
d) kidney
e) liver

A

d)

174
Q

__________ are less differentiated and present in most adult tissues

A

self renewing cells

175
Q

Abrupt changes in the biochemical state occurs from ________ to ______

A

metaphase, anaphase

176
Q

_________ is fibril forming and found in hyaline and elastic cartilage and vitreous humor

A

Collagen II

177
Q

Which is of the following is NOT a type of simple epithelium?

a) squamous
b) cuboidal
c) columnar
d) transitional
e) pseudotratified

A

d) transitional - that is stratified

178
Q

The apoptosome recruits ______ through a caspase recruitment domain (CARD) on each protein which then cleave and activate downstream executioner procaspases, turning on caspase cascade

A

procaspase 9

179
Q

What are the three types of self-renewing cells in medicine?

A

embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells, and induced pluripotent stem cells

180
Q

______ and _______ are cell surface receptors that mediate adhesions to ECM and neighboring cells

A

dystroglycan complex and integrins

181
Q

___________ are the most pluripotent types of stem cells, but there are ethical concerns with using these types of cells

A

Embryonic

182
Q

What is the role of GAGs and proteoglycans in the cell?

A

provide flexible mechanical support to tissues, slow diffusion of proteins and movement of cells, act as lubricant in joints, bind and sequester soluble ECM proteins

183
Q

Name the three components of junctional complexes

A

Zonula occludens (ZO), zonula adherens (ZA), macula adherens (MA)

184
Q

Name 6 major components of ECM

A

collagen, fibronectin, laminin, elastin/fibrillin, GAGs, proteoglycans

185
Q

____ and _____ mutations that lead to gene amplification can cause cancer when a normal protein is made but greatly overproduced

A

src, myc

186
Q

_____ and _____ are oncogenic. When mutated, can cause Bad to lose ability to inactivate death inhibitory proteins.

A

PDK1 and PKB

187
Q

Chondroitin sulfate, dermatoin sulfate, keratin sulfate, and heparin sulfate are types of GAGs that do what?

A

attach through core and link proteins to hyaluronic acid backbone

188
Q

The __________ are a type of mechanical junction that mediate folding of epithelial sheets in embryo

A

zonula adherens

189
Q

__________ are a class of about 300 genes that have been identified that are repeatedly altered in different cancers

A

Cancer critical genes

190
Q

Describe the functions of ground substance

A

traps & holds water, acts as a charge and size barrier, contributes to physiological properties of connective tissue, facilitates cell migration

191
Q

In almost all CML cases, leukemic WBCs can be distinguished from normal cells by ________________ which is created by translocation between long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22

A

philadelphia chromosome

192
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of stratified epithelium?

a) squamous
b) cuboidal
c) columnar
d) transitional
e) pseudostrafied

A

e - pseudostratified

193
Q

Which simple epithelia are involved in lubrication?

A

simple squamous and pseudostratified

194
Q

The ectoderm leads to ________ tissue in the head region while the _______ leads to this type of tissue everywhere else

A

connective, mesoderm

195
Q

Constitutive secretion occurs via the ________________ in epithelium. This membrane also involved in signal reception and transduction and generation of ion gradients.

A

basal lateral membrane

196
Q

__________ is characterized by skin hyperextensibility, abnormal wound healing and hypermobility and can be caused by defects in collagen I or II

A

Ehlers-Danlos-Type I

197
Q

Describe elastin and fibrillin function in ECM

A

thin fibers that give tissue elasticity

198
Q

About 90% of human cancers are ________

A

carcinomas - digestive organs, resp system, reprod tract and breast are most common

199
Q

All exocrine glands are derived from the _________

A

epithelium

200
Q

Caspases 2,8,9,10 are ________ while 3,6,7 are _______

A

initiators, executioners

201
Q

Ground substance is composed of what two things?

A

GAGs and proteoglycan

202
Q

Bone marrow cells are mobilized and recovered for ___________ for applications in disease such as cancer and stroke

A

autologous transplantation

203
Q

Most GAGs are complexed to core proteins forming ________

A

proteoglycans, exception HA

204
Q

What type of collagen makes up the basal lamina?

A

IV

205
Q

The cell cycle is also controlled by cyclin proteolysis which is _________ dependent

A

ubiquitin

206
Q

_______ is found on astrocytes and provides structural support, marker for glial tumors

A

Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)

207
Q

Activation of ____ promotes protein synthesis, partly through activation of EIF4E and S6 kinase

A

PI3K

208
Q

In the reticular lamina, reticular fibers embedded in ______ link basal lamina with underlying connective tissue.

A

ground substance

209
Q

In the basement membrane, the ________ is a product of epithelium and includes the glycoproteins laminin and fibronectin, GAG proteins, and type IV collagens

A

basal lamina

210
Q

Describe the phenomenon of contact inhibition in cell culture

A

Normal cells stop proliferating once they have covered petri dish with one layer, cancer cells don’t cuz THEY DONT GIVE A FUUUCK

211
Q

_______ is the most common form of interaction in development. Signals are usually limited to time and place.

A

Inductive signaling

212
Q

Describe characteristics of collagen I

A

Majority is lysine and proline, each alpha chain turned into L handed helix, 3 alpha chains assemble in R helix

213
Q

_______ is a cancer drug that is a competitive inhibitor of Ras binding protein (binds to galactin which is part of signaling complex that brings Ras to GEFs like Sos)

A

Salirasib

214
Q

________ cleaves and activates effector caspases and the extrinsic pathway. It also cleaves and activates Bid which activates the intrinsic pathway and later __________

A

caspase 8, caspase 9

215
Q

____________ are caused by the inability to degrade GAGs

A

lysosomal storage diseases

216
Q

Prostate cancer to vertebral column metastases are commonly seen. Is this osteoblastic or osteoclastic?

A

osteoblastic - bone formation

217
Q

Name the four fundamental tissues

A

epithelium, connective tissue, muscular and nervous

218
Q

True or False: Sensory Bcl proteins contain BH2 domain only

A

FALSE, BH3

219
Q

Tumor cells can consume up to 100X more glucose than normal cells due to a shift from oxidative phosphorylation to __________ to yield more ATP

A

aerobic glycolysis.

220
Q

__________ include tendons, aponeuroses, and ligaments

A

dense regular connective tissue

221
Q

Flipped out _________ acts as an “eat me” signal for phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies and is restricted to inner leaflet of PM

A

Phosphatidylserine

222
Q

__________ line the ducts of sweat glands and are involved in absorption and secretion

A

Stratified cuboidal

223
Q

Ethical concerns are a disadvantage of embryonic stem cell usage. What is another disadvantage?

A

cell culture conditions to obtain differentiated cell types are not yet characterized

224
Q 
Name two proteins from each Bcl family class
a) regulator (inhibitor), b) effector (channel), c) sensor
A

a) Bcl2, Bcl-XL; b) Bax, Bak; c) Bad, Bim, Bid, Puma, Noxa

225
Q

_______ bind chromosomes together in DNA coiling

A

condensins

226
Q

_______ are found in spermatozoa and are the largest cell surface modifications

A

flagella

227
Q

True or false: The half-life of microtubules in prophase is 20X shorter than half-life in interphase

A

FALSE - METAPHASE not prophase

228
Q

_____ control regulation of cell growth and division, proliferation of cells, survival, migration, physical function of cells

A

growth factors

229
Q

“Little people” aka __________ are caused by collagen defects

A

chondrodysplasias

230
Q

The main driving force of cell movements during gastrulation is __________

A

convergent extension

231
Q

Lynch syndrome is often associated with colon cancer. In this syndrome, whatt ype of DNA repair is defective?

A

mismatch

232
Q

During anaphase A, what are the 2 major forces that separate daughter chromosomes?

A

Motor proteins operating at kinetochores and depolymerization of kinetochore microtubules (shortening)

233
Q

An active cyclin-cdk complex is turned off when phosphorylated by ________. This can be reversed by ________

A

wee1 kinase, cdc25 phosphatase

234
Q

What is responsible for ubiquitlyation and destruction of cyclins in S/G1 phase? M phase?

A

S/GI phase= SCF; M phase=AMP (anaphase promoting complex)

235
Q

__________ is found in lymphoid cells, grows slowly, and is common in adults

A

chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

236
Q

______ are found in the resp system, oviduct, uterus, ependyma and are anchored by basal bodies and move surface mucus and particulate matter via a beating rhythm

A

cilia

237
Q

Ionizing radiations or XRs generally cause _________ (Types of mutations)

A

chromosomal breaks and translocations

238
Q

________ are pluripotent stem cells derived from ICM of a blastocyst that can be grown indefinitely as pure stem cell population and have potential in treatment Parkinson’s, Alzheimer’s, DM, and spinal cord injuries

A

embryonic stem cells

239
Q

The ______________ is involved in cell contact and adhesion and cell communication and contains junctional complexes

A

cell contact and adhesion, cell communication

240
Q

Describe proteoglycan function in ECM

A

gel like slimy mucus that hydrates space between cells

241
Q

_______ is a common tumor suppressor gene because the enzyme that is codes for _______ normally suppresses the Pi3k/Akt/mTOR pathway that is exploited by tumor cells to cause excessive glycolysis

A

PTEN, PTEN phosphatase

242
Q

________ is a procedure of animal cloning in which the nuclei of an adult somatic cell is transferred to an enucleated egg

A

somatic cell nuclear transfer

243
Q

In _________, some cytoplasm is pinched off with contained secretion

A

apocrine

244
Q

___________ are derived from a non-pluripotent cell by inducing a forced expression of specific genes. A disadvantage of this method is that these cells have been found to be tumorigenic

A

induced pluripotent stem (IPS) cells

245
Q

_____ secretions tend to be protein rich and carb poor while _______ from goblet cells tend to be carb rich and protein poor

A

serous, mucous

246
Q

_____ stimulate cell division via Ras MAPK cascade which produces the gene regulatory protein _____ that sitmulates production of G1-cdk and G1/S-cdk

A

mitogens, myc

247
Q

Describe pathway that leads to active M-cdk in cell cycle and thus entry into mitosis

A

M-cyclin levels rise and cdk associates –> phosphorylated by CAK and Wee1 (latter inhibitory –> CDC25 then dephosphorylates the inhibitory P –> active M-CDK. Active M-CDK then inhibits Wee1 and promotes dephosphorylation by CDC25.

248
Q

“Eat me” signals for phagocytosis include thrombospondin, an adhesive glycoprotein, soluble factors and natural antibodies and proteins of complement system, notably ____

A

Clq

249
Q

In xeroderma pigmentosum, what kind of DNA repair is defective?

A

nucleotide excision repair

250
Q

True or false - Differentiated cells are no longer able to proliferate

A

FALSE, some can still proliferate (but most can’t)

251
Q

Which of these diseases is NOT caused by insufficient apoptosis? (more than one)

a) lupus
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) cancer
d) type I diabetes
e) stroke

A

d+e - both caused by xs apoptosis

252
Q

______________ are recovered from placenta and umbilical cord

A

allogenic stem cells

253
Q

______ is found in skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle and forms a framework linking myofibrils, myofilaments, and is a marker for tumors of muscle origin

A

Desmin

254
Q

_______ was the first targeted cancer drug developed for CML. It is a TK inhibitor that binds to ABL1 ATP site and inhibits its hyperactive activity.

A

Gleevec

255
Q

__________ is a group of inherited diseases caused by accumulation of GAGs in lysosomes

A

mucopolysaccharoidoses

256
Q

What are the three issues with adult stem cell therapy?

A

technical problems exist with modern stem cell culture methods, stem cells have not been ID’d in certain types of adult tissues and they lack PLURIPOTENCY

257
Q

During initiation of DNA replication, origin recognition complex (ORC) remains associated with a replication origin throughout the cell cycle. In G1, ____ protein associates with the ORC. This aids the assembly of the _____ on the adjacent DNA strand, which results in formation of the pre-replicative complex

A

CDC6, MCM ring

258
Q

Interphase is made up of G1, S, and G2. G1 is the gap between ________ and G2 is the gap between _____

A

M–> S, S–> M

259
Q

MAPs and catastrophins have opposite effects on microtubule polymerization. Describe the effects.

A

MAPs regulate stability, catastrophins cause destablization

260
Q

_____________ are found lining the mouth, epiglottis and vagina and are involved in protection and secretion

A

stratified squamous nonkeratinized

261
Q

In the basement membrane, the ________ is a product of the underlying CT and anchors plaque and fibrils with type IV and type VII collagen

A

reticular lamina

262
Q

Fibrocytes, fibroblasts, adipose, mast cells, macrophages, and pencytes compose the _____________ of connective tissue

A

fixed (resident) cells

263
Q

Name the three types of colon surface epithelium

A

absorptive epithelial cells and two types of secretory cells - goblet cells and enteroendocrine cells

264
Q

The regulated secretory pathway occurs via the ____________ in epithelium. This membrane is also involved in regulation of nutrient/H2O uptake and protection.

A

apical plasma membrane

265
Q

Defects in elastin play a causative role in _______ and cause Williams-Pseuren syndrome

A

aortic stenosis

266
Q

_________ are an example of selective permeability in epithelia

A

Tight Junctions

267
Q

Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in what ECM protein?

A

fibrillin

268
Q

The ________ are major producers of fibers and ground substance in connective tissue and are the most common cells in connective tissue proper

A

fibroblasts

269
Q

Members of the Bcl2 family regulate the intrinsic pathway by controlling mitochondrial release of _________. Release of this molecule triggers caspase activation.

A

cytochrome c

270
Q

Physiological conditions, such as tissue sculpting and shedding of endometrium in menstrual cycle, along with pathological conditions, such as Alzheimer’s and DNA damage, can cause ______ of cells

A

apoptosis

271
Q

A benign tumor of mesenchymal tissue (mesodermal origin) would be known as a

A

leiomyoma

272
Q

_______ is the process by which tumor cell exfoliate into body cavity

A

seeding

273
Q

Which of these is a type of cell that has a short life span and must be continually replaced?

a) cardiac stem cell
b) neural stem cell
c) skeletal muscle
d) lining of digestive tract
e) liver
f) all of the above

A

all of the above

274
Q

During prophase, negative end associated _____ motors help separate centrosomes by pulling on two sets of astral microtubules

A

dyenin

275
Q

HPV can cause cervical cancers because of rare occasion there is an accident that causes what?

A

the plasmid chromosome to fragment and integrate into the host causing unregulated production of viral proteins which interferes with control of cell division in the basal cell

276
Q

When an apoptotic stimulus activates the intrinsic pathway, _______ proteins are released from mitochondria and through activated BH123 proteins, bind to and block inhibition of caspases

A

anti-IAP

277
Q

During anaphase B, what are the two major forces involved? What motor proteins are involved with these forces

A

elongation and sliding of overlap microtubules (by cross linking of positive end motor proteins) and outward forces exerted by astral microtubules (by binding of negative end motor proteins)

278
Q

Environmental favorability controls the _______ in the cell cycle

A

start transition

279
Q

Plasma cells, lymphocytes, granulocytes and macrophages comprise the ___________ of connective tissue

A

free (transient) cells

280
Q

Following injury, differentiated cells are replaced by _________

A

stem cells

281
Q

S-cdk blocks re-replication during S phase by doing what?

A

Causes dissociation of CDC6 by phosphorylating it (leading to its ubiquitylation by TCF); phosphorylates MCM proteins that are taken outside nucleus.
Causes breakdown of pre-replicative complex.

282
Q

Chemical carcinogens generally cause _______ mutations in a DNA sequence

A

point

283
Q

Intestinal epithelium is renewed via __________, a population of cells derived from stem cells that proliferate for 3-4 divisions and then differentiate into 3 types of colon surface epithelium

A

transit amplifying cells

284
Q

What is the most common unicellular exocrine gland?

A

Goblet cell

285
Q

Cleavage occurs at what two parts of mitotic spindle to form four daughter cells?

A

between centrosomes linked by mitotic spindles, between two centrosomes that are adjacent

286
Q

In necrosis, the nucleus _____ whereas in apoptosis the nucleus ________ into apoptotic bodies

A

dissolves, fragments

B1 (18 decks)

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