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B1 > Week 5 > Flashcards

Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Pyrimidine pathway begins with what?

A

glutamine, CO2, 2 ATP

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2
Q

Describe what occurs in Complex III

A

contains cavern, electrons picked up by cytochrome C and taken to IV, pumps 4 protons to intermembrane space

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3
Q

Cytochromes contain _____ cofactors that can be reduced or oxidized

A

heme

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4
Q

How is the X chromosome inactivated?

A

packaged into transcriptionally inactive heterochromatin. Heterochromatin coats inactive X DNA and prevents its transcriptional expression –> forms Barr body. Xist gene encodes RNA responsible for mediating this silencing.

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5
Q

When non-equal concentrations are known, which equation should be used for delta G?

A

Delta G = Delta G naught + RTln[y]/[x]

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6
Q

Purine biosynthesis starts with what molecule?

A

ribose-5-P

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7
Q

Describe the enrgy required to convert oxaloacetate to citrate

A

-9 kcal/mol

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8
Q

In sperm, all imprints are erased and rewritten with _______ pattern; in eggs, rewritten with _______ pattern; even in genes that come from opposite sex parent

A

paternal, maternal

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9
Q

Describe how acetylcholine promotes the synthesis of NO

A

Acetylcholine binds to GPCR on endothelial cell –> IP3 generated –> increases Ca++ –> activates NO synthase –> NO produced from arginine

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10
Q

Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl coA - both steps are promoted by this cofactor

A

Calcium

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11
Q

What is the wobble base on tRNA?

A

3rd position in codon not totally required to match by all tRNAs (sometimes you get an I matching)

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12
Q

In Huntington’s Disease, there is greater expansion in _______ parent transmission than in ______

A

male, female (gametogenesis)

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13
Q

_________ genes are susceptibility targets for numerous human pathologies such as Angelman and Prader WIlli Syndrome

A

imprinted genes

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14
Q

A positive feedback mechanism that results in ______________ would be an NZ that is activated by a signaling molecule but is then further stimulated by products that bind back to the NZ/signal complex and further stimulate it.

A

switchlike behavior

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15
Q

Nucleoside monophosphate kinases convert ATP and NDP to

A

ADP and NDP

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16
Q

What are the three tissues most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation?

A

heart, skeletal muscle, central nervous system

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17
Q

TCA cycle enzymes are found in what part of the mitochondria?

A

Matrix

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18
Q

Describe how the COX2 pathway can result in neoplasia (4 factors)

A

promotes tumor angiogenesis, induces tumor cell growth, inhibits apoptosis, dec immunosurveillance

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19
Q

Describe the four step process of tRNA binding

A

1) aminoacyl tRNA binds to vacant “A” site
2) a new peptide bond is formed at “P” site
3) mRNA moves 3 nucleotide positions through ribosomal subunit to E site
4) spent tRNA is ejected and the ribosome is reset

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20
Q

When a hormone secreted from a cell travels through the blood stream and binds to receptor on target cell, what signaling system is occurring? (encounter lots of cells during travel)

A

endocrine

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21
Q

Describe the age and conflict of the child in the oral stage.

A

birth-1 yr, primary conflict - weaning, fixation can lead to excess reliance and vulnerability to overconsumption of food or alcohol. Frustrations can lead to pessimism, envy and aggression.

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22
Q

__________ is usually the first AUG from 5’ cap site

A

kozak sequence

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23
Q

During pyrimidine synthesis, _____ is added halfway through the cycle to produce orotidine (OMP)

A

PRPP, catalyzed by orotic acid transferase

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24
Q

DNA methyltransferases can be indirectly repressed by _________

A

mir-29b

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25
Q

Modified ________ ensure that a differentiated cell stays differentiated

A

histones

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26
Q

Describe how NO causes rapid relaxation of smooth muscle cell

A

NO binds to guanylyl cyclase and converts GTP to cyclic GMP which causes rapid relaxation

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27
Q

How do ROCK and PKC activation inhibit MLCP activity?

A

ROCK phosphorylates MYPt1 inhibitory protein and PKC phosphorylates CPI-17 inhibitory protein, which leads to inactivation of MLCP

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28
Q

How do macrolides (such as erythromycin) inhibit protein synthesis?

A

prevent the Movement of ribosomes(translocation)

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29
Q

Non-specific NSAIDS also block the inducible COX2 pathway. Normally, the COX2 pathway can lead to ________ and _______ via PGE2. Why are these dangerous?

A

inflammation, neoplasia

causes ulcers

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30
Q

How is phosphate transported to the matrix to provide substrate for ATP synthase?

A

Through the phosphate translocase (symporter), moves protons and phosphate in

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31
Q

In Fragile X, there is ____% penetrance in females with one full mutation and ____% penetrance in males with one full mutation

A

50%, 100%

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32
Q

In addition to thymine degradation, B12 plays an important part in conversion of __________ to methionine (catalyzed by methione synthase)

A

homocysteine

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33
Q

In a group of identical signaling cells, each cell receives a strong ________ signal . (also affects cells in the immediate enviro of the signaling cells)

A

autocrine

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34
Q

In the cytosine uracil degradation pathway, what are the compounds eventually degraded to?

A

acetyl SCoa

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35
Q

Describe miRNA therapy in asthma

A

decreases immune response

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36
Q

Progressive loss of motor control and psychiatric problems including dementia and affective disorder characterize this repeat expansion disorder that usually presents between ages 30 and 50

A

Huntington’s Disease

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37
Q

Describe initiative vs guilt stage of Erikson

A

3-5 years, corresponds with phallic stage, interpersonal skills develop, too much control will lead to sense of guilt and inhibition and tendency to follow

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38
Q

Describe the attachment theory

A

emotional and physical attachment gives greater sense of stability in infants and toddlers, however if primary caretakers are overly anxious and depressed can have profound effect on kids

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39
Q

Pyrimidine pathway is activated by _____ and ATP

A

PRPP

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40
Q

Name 5 mechanisms of desensitization or negative feedback

A
  • receptor sequestration (receptor returned to membrane, LDL is an example)
  • receptor down regulation (receptor degraded, EGF receptor)
  • inactivation of signaling protein (phosphorylation)
  • receptor inactivation (examp GRK)
  • production of inhibitory protein (examp arrestin)
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41
Q

Name two compounds that act in an autocrine manner (FADs of arachadonic acid)

A

eicosanoids

prostaglandins

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42
Q

_________ both inhibit electron transport by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase

A

cyanide, carbon monoxide

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43
Q

The nitrogens in purine biosynthesis come from which compounds

A

Aspartate, Glycine, Amide N of glutamine

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44
Q

What happens in folic acid deficiency?

A

Cannot synthesize THF, slows down step in purine synthesis process

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45
Q

How does ChloramPhenicol inhibit protein synthesis?

A

inhibits Peptide bond formation (via peptidyl transferases)

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46
Q

True or false: A decreased delta G for a reaction makes the reaction proceed faster

A

FALSE

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47
Q

The most common form of inherited neurodevelopmental disorder is _________

A

Fragile X

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48
Q

In thymine degradation, ____ is required to break down methyl malonyl semialdehyde (MMSA) to succinyl sCoA [last step]

A

B12

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49
Q

In an abrupt response, as the number of activator molecules that must be bound simultaneously to effector proteins to activate them increases, the slope of the activation curve _____ as does the ________________

A

activation curve, response start time

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50
Q

Describe the limiting step in the Krebs Cycle

A

Oxaloacetate levels

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51
Q

Describe what occurs in complex IV

A

Contains 3 subunits. Subunit I contains two heme groups and a Cu. Subunit II contains two Cu ions. Electrons get picked up by Cu on subunit II and travel through Subunit I which causes 2 protons to get pumped through

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52
Q

The mRNA transcript associates with ______ at 5’ cap and 3’ poly A tail then mRNA positioned in the small ribosomal subunit

A

eukaryotic initiation factors (eif-2 important)

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53
Q

______ inhibits ATP synthase by inhibiting Fo subunit

A

oligomycin

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54
Q

True or false: Delta G naught depends on substrate and production reactions

A

FALSE DELTA G. Delta G naught is a CONSTANT

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55
Q

What three inputs turn Cak Kinase activity on?

A

phosphate removed from specific region, phosphate added to another specific region, cyclin is present

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56
Q

SSRI’s are prescribed to treat anxiety disorders, OCD, premature ejaculation, eating disorders and sometimes _____

A

IBS

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57
Q

During _________, each cell contains a population of different mitochondria that are randomly distributed throughout the cell. When the daughter cells form, they randomly inherit a variable number of mitochondria.

A

mitotic segregation

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58
Q

GTP-binding proteins are in active state when _____ is bound and inactive when _____ is bound

A

GTP, GDP

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59
Q

Tetracyclines (TTC) inhibit protein synthesis by ____

A

TRNA Tries but Can’t (prevents aminoacyl tRNA from attaching to A site of ribosomes)

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60
Q

Mitochondrial disorders normally manifest as what three types of disorders?

A

myopathies, neuropathies, encephalopathies (also linked to DM)

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61
Q

________ both prevent electron transfer from FE-S center to ubiquinone

A

Rotenone, Arigtal

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62
Q

Name 4 clinical consequences of B12 deficiency

A

1) pernicious anemia
2) megaloblastic anemia
3) neuro dysfunction
4) folate deficiency

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63
Q

Describe the steps of the Krebs cycle and where energy is produced.

A

Acetyl CoA enters the Krebs cycle.
Citrate –> IsoCitrate –> Alpha-Ketoglutarate –> Succinyl-Coa –> Succinate –> Fumarate –> Malate –> Oxaloacetate. Isocitrate, Alpha-Ketoglutarate, and Malate conversions yield NADH. Succinyl Coa to Succinate yields GTP. Succinate –> Fumarate yields FADH2.

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64
Q

In _______ signaling, a signaling cell releases local mediator to nearby target cells (affects only cells in immediate environment of signaling cell)

A

paracrine

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65
Q

In valine, isoleucine and threonine degradation, B12 is required for conversion of which compound to succinyl CoA?

A

methylmalonyl-CoA (catalyzed by methylmalonyl CoA mutase)

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66
Q

What drug inhibits DHFR and stops cancer cells from synthesizing nucleotides?

A

Methotrexate

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67
Q

How does clindamycin inhibit protein synthesis?

A

makes ribosomes Cling to mRNA (prevents translocation)

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68
Q

_____ and ____ are two flavoproteins that tightly associated with proteins and can accept one or two electrons

A

FADH2 and FMNH2

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69
Q

Describe the age and conflict of child in latency.

A

6-puberty. Ego and super ego develop and sexual impulses are repressed. Struggles can cause impairment in social skills and self confidence

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70
Q

Although SSRIs are just as effective as anticyclic antidepressants, what is a benefit of using them?

A

much higher toxic dose and fewer or milder side effects

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71
Q

When protons are pumped across membrane it creates a proton gradient, a charge gradient, and through mass action a __________ which drives ATP synthesis

A

proton motive force

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72
Q

Describe the energy required to convert malate to oxaloacetate in the Krebs cycle and how this moves forward

A

+7 kcal/mol, high malate concentrations

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73
Q

MELAS, mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes, sometimes only manifests as ____

A

DM

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74
Q

Describe the age and conflict of the child in anal stage.

A

1-3 years, conflict over toilet training, leads to anal retentive (too strict of parents) or repulsive personalities (too lenient)

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75
Q

Where do the nitrogens come from in pyrimidines?

A

glutamine, ribose-5-phosphate (comes from aspartic acid)

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76
Q

How is ATP transferred to the intermembrane space (and eventually cytosol)?

A

Through adenine nucleotide translocase (antiporter, ATP out of matrix, ADP into matrix)

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77
Q

In pyrimidine synthesis, what is required?

A

UMP

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78
Q

True or false: even normal alleles change every generation

A

TRUE - alleles are unstable af

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79
Q

Describe the effect of mi26 on liver cancer in rats

A

suppressed tumorigenesis

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80
Q

Stored nutrients and ingested foods get converted into energy sources via _________ reactions then _________ reactions reactions take that energy and use it to do osmotic work, mechanical work, and other cell work

A

catabolic, anabolic

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81
Q

Regulation of histone modification and heterochromatin formation, DNA methylation, Genomic imprinting, gene silencing and X chromosome inactivation are all examples of _____________

A

epigenetic processes

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82
Q

Conversion of energy from NADH to ATP is about 40% efficiency. Combined reaction free energy has -33 kcal/mol which generates ___ ATP

A

3

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83
Q

The carbons in purine biosynthesis come from which compounds

A

THF, glycine

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84
Q

What types of mutations would resemble mitochondrial disorders?

A

mutations in nuclear genes responsible for either Ox-phos components or for mitochondrial regulation

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85
Q

If enthalpy is greater than 0, reaction can still be spontaneous even if entropy is ______

A

greater than 0

86
Q

Huntington disease results from repeat expansion that creates a _____________ mutation

A

gain of function

87
Q

Probenecid inhibits uric acid ______ while colchine is an inflammatory drug, both used to treat gout

A

excretion

88
Q

Describe the salvage pathway, also known as the degradation pathway of nucleotides.

A

Begins with RNA & DNA –> nuclease NZ breaks down to nucleotides –> phosphatase breaks down to nucleosides –> nucleosides undergo phosphorylation rxns –> bases –> PRPP added via enzyme –> NMP

89
Q

Describe the function of Prozac and Lexapro that allow them to be SSRI

A

Block the reuptake transporters located on the membrane of the transmitting neuron (at synaptic cleft)

90
Q

In repeat expansion disorders, congenital form is seen only in infants of affected _________

A

mothers

91
Q

Describe the mechanism of how insulin receptor (RTK) activates Ras protein

A

It phosphorylates itself once activated, then these phosphorylated tryrosines recruit IRS1 via a PTB domain. IRS1 phosphorylated on tyrosines, which binds SH2 domain on Frb2. Fb2 binds Sos and Sos acts as GEF to activate Ras. Other phosphorylated tyrosines on IRS1 recruit add’l signaling protein that have SH2 domains.

92
Q

Describe miRNA mediated gene silencing

A

Drosha is a dsRNAse that will breakdown pri-miRNA to precursor miRNA. After GTP-dependent export from nucleus, dicer chops miRNA. miRNA then bound to RISC with Argonaut 2. RISC guided to target DNA and degrades if perfect complimentary

93
Q

In myotonic dystrophy, a man who is a premutation carrier for a repeat expansion disorder has a ____ risk of having a severely affected child. This man’s daughters would have a ___ risk of having a severely affected child.

A

low, variable but could be high

94
Q

____________ inhibits thymidylate synthase

A

5-fluorouracil

95
Q

What is required to make purines?

A

IMP

96
Q

True or false: Each individual has same two alleles in all somatic cells but during gametogenesis, each allele varies in every gamete

A

TRUE

97
Q

In mitochondrial disorders, affected females transmit disease to _____ of their children whereas males transmit disease to ____.

A

all, none

98
Q

Adenylosuccinate lyase is involved with converting aspartate to __________

A

fumarate

99
Q

Cortisol, thyroxine, estradiol, testosterone, vitamin d3 and retinoic acid all are _____________

A

steroid hormones

100
Q

____________________ associates with 5’ cap of mRNA and then shorterns the poly A tail in the 3’ to 5’ direction

A

deadenylation nuclease (DAN)

101
Q

Describe the FMR related disorders

A

FXTAS - fragile X associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (late onset), males (and some females) with FMR1 premutation
FMR1-related POI - ovarian insufficiency, 20% of females with FMR1 premutation

102
Q

Molecular switches fall into two categories. In both categories what determines whether protein is inactive or active? What are two classes?

A

gain or loss of phosphate groups

two classes are inactivated/activated by phosphorylation and GTP-binding proteins

103
Q

Why can’t thermogenin be used for weight loss?

A

Great way to burn energy but energy needs somewhere to go so converts to heat and temperature gets very elevated

104
Q

How are signaling systems defined? (3 characteristics)

A

distances over which they operate, effective concentration of signaling molecule req to elicit a response and affinity of receptor for its ligand

105
Q

Myotonic dystrophy results from a repeat expansion in _____________ RNA that decreases RNA stability (3’ untranslated region)

A

protein kinase

106
Q

What is the equation that relates delta G, H, and S

A

Delta G = Delta H - T* Delta S

107
Q

What is the key regulatory step in pyrimidine synthesis catalyzed by?

A

aspartate transcarbamyolase

108
Q

_________ play an important role in pain, fever and inflammation and thus the synthetic pathways for these compounds play an important role in pain

A

eicosanoids

109
Q

NSAIDs such as ASA and ibuprofen block the first _________ step in catalyzed by _______ and ________ and thus inhibit prostaglandin, prostacycline and thromboxane synthesis

A

oxidation, COX1 and COX2

110
Q

Folate derivatives, THF, are carbon carriers involved in what two things?

A

amino acid metabolism and nucleotide synthesis

111
Q

Protons go around F0 subunit which causes the stalk to turn and conformational changes of alpha beta subunits in F1. This allows ADP and phosphate to bind in one conformation, then when the stalk turns what happens?

A

ATP is synthesized and kicked out

112
Q

On what part of tRNA does amino acid bind

A

3’ end, CCA tail

113
Q

_____ can target heart disease at many different places

A

miR21

114
Q

In endocrine signaling, hormones are greatly diluted in the blood stream so receptors are _________ whereas in synaptic signaling, neurotransmitters are released into the synapse which is only 100 nm wide and receptors are _______

A

high affinity, low affinity

115
Q

In _________ signaling, a membrane bound signal molecule on the signaling cell makes contact with the target cell

A

contact-dependent

116
Q

Folate deficiency decreases purine and dTMP synthesis while arrests cycle in the ________ and results in ___________________

A

S-phase, megaloblastic anemia

117
Q

In MERFF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers), heteroplasmy is seen. Describe heteroplasmy.

A

Mosacisim caused by variable number of mutant mitochondria per cell

118
Q

Describe the industry vs inferiority stage of Erikson

A

5-12 years, corresponds with latency, peers and teachers become more important, self-explanatory

119
Q

Ick, PI3K, PLC-gamma, IP3, Ca++, Src , JAK-STATs and NF-KB all fall under what class of receptors?

A

NZ linked

120
Q

_________ leads to impaired dTMP synthesis, megaloblastic anemia, hyperhomocystenemia with increase risk for CVD, and neutral tube defects in pregnancy

A

Folate deficiency

121
Q

The ________ is method by which NADH moves from cytosol into mitochondrial matrix in the liver, kidney and heart

A

malate-aspartate shuttle (oxaloacetate to malate occurs in cytosol producing NAD+ then reversal of reaction occurs in matrix producing NADH)

122
Q

Arachadonic acid yields ______ and ______

A

COX1 and COX2

123
Q

________ acts as an energy shuttle for phosphorylation of ADP –> ATP

A

creatine phosphate

124
Q

What activates purine biosynthesis? How many ATPs are used?

A

presence of PRPP, 2 ATPs used to begin and then 3 more used later (total 5)

125
Q

True or false: Mitochondria disorders are often progressive or do not manifest until adulthood because function is sufficient at birth but then deteriorates with age and accumulation of add’l mutations

A

TRUE

126
Q

Where do the carbons come from in pyrimidines?

A

aspartate, CO2

127
Q

Angelman Syndrome and Prader-Willi both the same loci on which chromosome?

A

chormosome 15 - q arm of 13th loci

128
Q

True or False: Heme B contained within complex II plays a vital role in electron transport chain

A

FALSE, NOT INVOLVED

129
Q

When delta H is less than 0, reaction is ______ whereas when delta H is greater than 0, reaction is ______

A

exothermic, endothermic

130
Q

Describe the age and conflict of the child in phallic stage.

A

3-6 years old, primary conflict - Oedipal. Fixation leads to self-centered and narcissistic personality, commitment issues. Freud thought that this may cause homosexuality.

131
Q

Name 5 factors that can induce the COX2 pathway

A

mitogens, growth factors, oncogenes, carcinogens, cytokines

132
Q

What activates deoxy synthesis?

A

ATP presence

133
Q

Describe the irreversible steps in the Krebs cycle

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-Coa, and oxaloacetate to citrate

134
Q

Protein phosphatase _________ while protein kinase __________

A

dephosphorylates, phosphorylates

135
Q

Huntington’s Disease is a ______ penetrant _____ disease: normally results in death within 15 years of diagnosis

A

100%, protracted disease

136
Q

Describe the generativity vs stagnation stage of Erikson

A

40-65 years, “big picture” and our place in it, giving back to society, failure would lead to feeling stuck, midlife crisis

137
Q

What is delta G naught equal to at equilibrium (Delta G equal 0)

A

-RTlnKeq or -RT*ln[y]/ln[x] @ equilibrium

138
Q

How do aminoglycosides (streptomycin) inhibit protein synthesiS?

A

A is first letter, thus aminoglycosides inhibit initiation (first step of translation) by preventing formation of initiation complex

139
Q

Describe the autonomy vs shame and doubt stage of Erikson

A

18m-3 years, corresponds with anal stage, toilet training, this is where children develop independence

140
Q

Describe sx of Angelman syndrome

A

speech difficulties, speech problems, seizures, jerky movements, and an unusually happy disposition

141
Q

Nucleotide diphosphate kinases convert ATP and NDP unto

A

ADP and NTP

142
Q

Describe equation for delta G including Reduction potential (deltaE)

A

Delta G = -nF*deltaE; n is number of e-s transferred, F is Faraday’s constant

143
Q

The ___________ synthesis pathway is targeted by several different cancer drugs, involves dUMP

A

thymidylate

144
Q

The ________ is method by which NADH from cytosol gets into the mitochondria matrix in the skeletal muscle and brain

A

Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle

145
Q

What causes Angelman Syndrome?

A

individuals missing gene activity that normally comes from mom - mom’s copy either defective or missing OR there are two paternal copies

146
Q

In myotonic dystrophy, when does expansion occur and in which sex?

A

gametogenesis in females

147
Q

Thermogenin is found in brown fat. What is its action?

A

It uncouples phosphorylation from electron transfer (ox phosphorylation)

148
Q

Under chromatin remodeling, miRNAs can affect positioning of ________ by promoters

A

nucleosomes

149
Q

What do patients with pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency exhibit?

A

High serum levels of lactate –> acidotic

150
Q

Describe acetylcholine’s action on

a) heart pacemaker
b) salivary gland
c) skeletal muscle cell

A

a) decreased rate of firing (GPCR)
b) inc secretion (GPCR)
c) contraction (ion channel)

151
Q

Elongation factors help enhance translation and control accuracy by _________

A

proofreading, incorrectly based paired tRNA preferentially dissociate

152
Q

Adenylate kinase converts ATP and AMP into

A

2 ADP

153
Q

When delta G is less than 0, reaction is ______ whereas when delta G is greater than 0, reaction is ______

A

exergonic, endergonic

154
Q

Describe identity vs role confusion stage of Erikson

A

12-18 years, struggle to find place and identity, failure may lead to experimentation

155
Q

Fragile X mental retardation results from an expansion on FMR1 ____________ (5’ untranslated region) which inhibits transcription due to hypermethylation

A

RNA binding protein

156
Q

Allopurinol inhibits uric acid formation by inhibiting the enzyme that forms it ___________

A

xanthine oxidase

157
Q

What are the four “canonical” features of MERFF?

A

myoclonus, generalized epilepsy, ataxia, ragged-red-fibers in muscle biopsy

158
Q

In ATP Synthase, ___ is a transmembrane protein and ___ contains a stalk that turns

A

F0, F1

159
Q

Skeletal muscle deterioration (starting with the face), cardiac and smooth muscle defects, an inability to relax muscles, cataracts and mild mental retardation are all seen in _______________. (Which are “subclinical?”)

A

myotonic dystrophy, cataracts and abnormal electromyogram

160
Q

Describe the ego integrity vs despair stage of Erikson

A

65+, success leads to sense of closure, don’t fear death. Seeing lives as unproductive and being haunted by past mistakes leads to despair.

161
Q

What are the three sites on ribosomes?

A

P (peptidyl) site, A (amino acyl tRNA site), E (exit)

also mRNA binding site

162
Q

What is RT*lnKeq equal to in cal/mol?

A

-1364*logKeq cal/mol

163
Q

When active, what does MLCP do?

A

cause relaxation of muscle

164
Q

______, referred to as coenzyme Q or just Q, can accept one or two electrons

A

ubiquinone

165
Q

What is needed for purine biosynthesis that is not needed for pyrimidine biosynthesis?

A

THF and Glycine

166
Q

What causes Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

syndromic obesity, learning difficulties, short stature, compulsive eating (missing dad’s copy or there are two maternal copies)

167
Q

GMP and AMP degradation produces _______as a by-product. A build up in this chemical causes ______

A

uric acid, gout

168
Q

Non-specific NSAIDs block the constitutive pathway of COX1. Normally, COX1 produces _________ that promote the production of mucus lining protecting the inner stomach and _______ which induces platelet aggregation

A

prostaglandins, thromboxane 2

169
Q

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, a self-mutilation disease, is caused by a defect in the ________________ step of the salvage pathway

A

G/HX-PRT

170
Q

In Fragile X syndrome, repeats are located ______ of _____ site, and expansion causes hypermethylation which _____________

A

upstream, AUG start, inhibition of transcription

171
Q 
List the following in order of delta G naught from least negative to most negative:
Anhydrides (ATP)
Guanidium Phosphate (CEP)
Enoyl Phosphate (PED)
Esters (Amides)
Thiolesters (acetyl Coa)
A

esters (amide), thiol esters (acetyl Coa), anhydrides (ATP), guanidium phosphate (CEP), enoyl phosphate (PED)

172
Q

Class V PDE inhibitors include Levitra, Cialis, Viagra and Sildenafil. How do these increase relaxation of smooth muscle?

A

PDE breaks down cGMP normally, if inhibited no breakdown of cGMP –> more relaxation
(arteries dilated but veins constricted)

173
Q

Describe the age and conflict of a child in the genital stage

A

puberty-death, previous struggles may lead to more repression and add’l defenses against conscious sexuality

174
Q

Name 4 common SSRI’s

A

Lexapro, Prozac, Paxil, Zoloft

175
Q

Name four sources of folate

A

yeast, liver, fruits, green veggies

176
Q

Electron carriers NADH and FADH2 both have oxidation energies equal to delta G naught =

A

-15 kcal/mol

177
Q

In smooth muscles, when Ca++ increases, ______ is activated which causes phosphorylation of LC50 and increase in contraction

A

MLCK

178
Q

Describe the trust vs mistrust stage of Erikson

A

B-18 months, corresponds to oral phase of Freud, if consistent and stable caregiver than child will have hope and self confidence

179
Q

Summarize the differences between purine and pyrimidine synthesis

A

Purine starts with PRPP then built around it; pyrimidine has PRPP added to NMP (in salvage pathway) or added to orotate (in UMP synthesis)

180
Q

True or false : Highly methylated areas tend to be more transcriptional active

A

FALSE, less active, DNA methylation patterns are faithfully inherited

181
Q

True or false: A decreased delta G for a reaction lowers Ea barrier

A

FALSE

182
Q

Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is involved in converting glutamine + PRPP to ___________

A

glutamate

183
Q

Describe the intimacy vs isolation stage of Erikson

A

18-40 years, love and work compete, avoiding intimacy can lead to isolation, loneliness and depression

184
Q

Describe anticipation

A

Some dominant disorders manifest at an early age of onset and with increased severity in successive generations. Due to repeat expansion mutation.

185
Q

What enzyme is required to form dNDP from NDP? (deoxy form)

A

ribonucleotide reductase, disulfide bond has to be reduced after dNDP is synthesized

186
Q

In _______________, rapid loss of central vision due to death of the optic nerve occurs due to 1 of three missense mutations in a mitochondrial protein

A

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)

187
Q

In the salvage pathway, adenine can be synthesized from bases + PRPP using the enzyme ___________

A

adenine phospho ribosyl transferase (A-PRT)

188
Q

In the salvage pathway, guanine/hypoxanthine can be synthesized from bases + PRPP using the enzyme ________________

A

guanine/hypoxanthine phospho ribosyl transferase (G/HX-PRT)

189
Q

______ can act as acceptors or donors in electron transfer. Contains at least 8 iron sulfur proteins.

A

Iron Sulfur Centers

190
Q

In repeat expansion disorders, what are premutations?

A

Repeat expansions that are unstable and have dynamic increase in # of repeats in succeeding generations (eventually result in full mutation)

191
Q

___________ inhibits phospholipase A2, which is the __________ in eicosanoid synthesis, an is widely used clinically to treat noninfectious inflammatory diseases

A

cortisone, first step

192
Q

AMP is synthesized from IMP using _____ wheras GMP synthesized from IMP using ______ (later also produces NADH)

A

GTP, ATP

193
Q

____________ is essential for proper embryonic development, imprinting, and X inactivation

A

DNA methyltransferases

194
Q

What are three factors that play a role in targeting mRNA for degradation?

A

length of poly A tail, binding sites, and types of proteins that bind to it

195
Q

Through ATP synthase, protons are delivered from the ______________ to the ___________ in a process that creates water

A

intermembrane space, matrix

196
Q

In hydrolytic editing, when an incorrect AA binds to _______ site on tRNA synthetase, the tRNA detects its incorrect and removes it

A

editing

197
Q

Cytidylate synthetase converts UTP to

A

CTP

198
Q

Describe what occurs in Complex I of the Electron Transport Chain AKA NADH Dehydrogenase

A

NADH –> NAD+, 4 H+s are pumped to intermembrane space, FMN serve as electron carriers that transfer e- to Fe-S then Q

199
Q

Describe pernicious anemia

A

Autoimmune disease that destroys parietal cells

200
Q

What causes Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

syndromic obesity, learning difficulties, short stature, compulsive eating

201
Q

Describe what occurs in Complex II AKA succinate dehydrogenase

A

Bound to inner mitochondria membrane, converts succinate to fumarate, produces FADH2, contains binding site for ubiquinone, heme B

202
Q

How is NADH converted to ATP?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

203
Q

Pyruvate dehydrogenase catalyzes the formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvate and produces NADH. What are the cofactors of this enzyme?

A

thymine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, FAD

204
Q

dUMP requires _______ to convert to dTMP and produces DHF as a product. DHF is resynthesized to methylene THF using __________________

A

methylene THF, dihydrofolate reductase

205
Q

In Fragile X, an unstable trinucleotide repeat ______ will expand only in _______

A

CGG, mother

206
Q

In the salvage pathway, pyrimidines are synthesized from bases + PRPP using the enzyme _______________

A

orotic acid transferase

207
Q

Steroid hormones act as ______________ by causing inhibitory proteins on inactive receptors to dissociate thus activating receptors

A

transcription factors

208
Q

What happens when histones are methylated?

A

bound very tight, you have silencing or repression

209
Q

What can be used to analyze the severity of disease in repeat expansion disorders (correlates with number of repeats)?

A

Southern Blot analysis

210
Q

Celebrex is a COX-2 inhibitor used for arthritis pain and inflammation. What is an issue with celebrex?

A

increase in major vascular events such as nonfatal MI, nonfatal stroke or death from a blood vessel related cause. Upper GI complications such as bleeding, obstructions, perforations

211
Q

True or false: Delta G, Delta H, and/or Delta S give determine reaction rates

A

FALSE - high activation barrier dictates reaction rates

B1 (18 decks)

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