Week 6 Flashcards

(206 cards)

1
Q

Define immunological memory

A
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2
Q

What is the role of lymph nodes

A

filter & trap pathogens

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3
Q

What is the role of the spleen

A

filter blood
remove damaged RBCs
store platelets

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4
Q

What is the role of tonsils

A

first-line defence against ingested or inhaled pathogens

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5
Q

What is the role of thymus

A

maturation & education of T cells

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6
Q

What is the role of bone marrow

A

site of blood cell production (including lymphocytes)

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7
Q

What is the role of Peyers patches

A

important for gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) & immune response in digestive system

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8
Q

Describe major histocompatibility complex

A

MHC1 presents intracellular antigens to cytotoxic T cells

MHC2 presents extracellular antigens to helper T cells

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9
Q

Explain the roles of cytokines

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10
Q

Explain MHC class 1

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11
Q

Explain MHC class 2

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12
Q

What are the roles of T lymphocytes

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13
Q

What are the roles of B lymphocytes

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14
Q

What is GALT

A

Lymphoid tissue associated with lining of intestinal tract

Located immediately below epithelium of mucosal tissue

Primary lymphoid organ in ruminants (B cell proliferation)

Secondary lymphoid organ in other species

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15
Q

What does GALT contain

A

organized structures such as:
- Peyer’s Patches (PP)
- isolated lymphoid follicles
- Cryptopatches (aggregates of lymphoids)

scattered lymphocytes (intra-epithelial & in lamina propria) in intestinal villi

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16
Q

Where can Peyer’s patches be found

A

Located in jejunum and ileum

They can be visible inside lumen of intestines during inflammation

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17
Q

Describe peyers patches in group 1 species (ruminants, pigs, horses, dogs, humans)

A

Ileum
- 80-90% of Peyer’s Patches
- Form single continuous structure that extends forward from ileocecal junction
- Densely packed lymphoid follicles, contain only B-cells
- Reach maximal size & maturity before birth (prior to encounter of gut microbiota)

Jejunum
- Multiple discrete accumulations of follicles
- Persist throughout life
- Mainly B-cells, up to 30% T-cells

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18
Q

Describe peyers patches in group 2 species (rabbits, rodents)

A

Peyer’s Patches located at random intervals in ileum & jejunum

Development starts 2-4 weeks after birth & persist into old age

Development dependent on gut microbiota

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19
Q

Label the Peyers patches histology

A
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20
Q

Name the immunocytological content of GALT

A

Intestinal villi
- intraepithelial lymphocytes & lymphocytes in lamina propria

Peyers patches

Follicle associated epithelium
- M cells in between villous epithelium

sub-epithelial dome
- dendritic cells, macrophages, neutrophils, B & T cells

interfollicle areas
- T cells

follicle areas with germinal centres
- B cells

Lamina propria
- T cells

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21
Q

Describe M cells (part of GALT)

A

Regular distribution of M cells across follicle associated epithelium

Have apical microfolds with adhesion molecules (so antigens can be transported)

M-cells sample antigens & transport them to basolateral pocket to facilitate contact with immune cells on other side of barrier

They are transporter cells which transport antigens to dendritic cells which can present the antigen to lymphocytes

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22
Q

Compare Peyer’s patches to lymph nodes

A
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23
Q

Describe antigen sampling in GALT

A

Follicle associated epithelium sample soluble antigens

M cells & dendritic cells sample particulate antigens (eg bacteria)

Antigen is captured by dendritic cells & presented to T cells (in local LN if naïve animal)

Antigen specific T cells will be activated by second co-stimulatory signals

Activated Th cells secrete cytokines
- Promote differentiation & proliferation of:
*B cells –> plasma cells
*T cells –> CTL

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24
Q

How do lymphocytes of GALT stay at site of infection if infection is intestinal?
(Activated T & B cells normally recirculate from PP to LN into circulation)

A

During infection, mucosal adhesion molecules are upregulated on local endothelial cells

Activated T cells express mucosal adhesion receptor (done by dendritic cells)

As antigen specific lymphocytes re-circulate through local LN & site of infection, they adhere & remain at local site (& all other mucosal tissue) ie homing

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25
Describe mucosal B-lymphocytes in GALT
1. B cells are activated by cytokines from Th lymphocytes 2. Differentiate into plasma cells 3. IgM secreted first (but very large & vulnerable to intestinal enzymes) 4. Cytokines stimulate plasma cells to class switch their antibody isotype from IgM to secretory IgA (protected from enzymatic digestion)
26
What are the 2 isotypes of IgA
IgA1 - predominant IgA subclass found in serum IgA2 - predominant IgA subclass found in secretory lymphoid tissues e.g., GALT - Secretory component is added to IgA antibody in lamina propria as it passes through mucosal epithelial cells - --> protected from enzymatic digestion
27
Describe how the secretory component is added to IgA in GALT
Secretory IgA captures antigens in lumen: 1. IgA binds to receptor on basolateral aspect of epithelial cell 2. IgA-receptor complex is internalised into epithelial cell 3. IgA-receptor complex is translocated to apical aspect where secretory component is wrapped around IgA molecule 4. On mucosal surface of cells secretory IgA is either released into lumen or captures antigen directly 5. Secretory IgA interferes with binding of pathogen to receptors on the epithelial cells to prevent pathogen invasion - --> Immune exclusion rather than immune elimination
28
Describe IgG in GALT
Mucosal immunity also stimulates IgG production in circulation which can go into lumen but… Mostly in serum & lamina propria Neutralises bacterial toxins - limit toxic effects Opsonises invading pathogens, enhancing their phagocytosis or complement mediated lysis - reduce numbers or eliminate pathogen - --> Immune elimination
29
Name some parasites that exploit M cells & use them as portals of entry into body
Salmonella Listeria Yersinia Some E. coli Rotavirus Cryptosporidium
30
Define hypersensitivity
when an animals immune response reacts to normally innocuous environmental antigens
31
Define type 1, 2, 3 & 4 hypersensitivity
32
Describe the phases of type 1 hypersensitivity
phase 1: - sensitisation phase (no clinical signs yet) 1. allergen exposure via respiratory or skin 2. antigen presenting cells capture antigens 3. causes naive T cells to differentiate 4. release cytokines causing B cell proliferation 5. class switch for B cells from IgM to IgE 6. IgE binds to mast cells phase 2: 1. same allergen encountered 2. primed IgE coated mast cells bind to antigen of allergen 3. release of cytoplasmic granules 4. immediate hypersensitivity - pruritis, broncho-constriction, oedema
33
Describe anaphylaxis (example of type 1 hypersensitivity)
34
What kind of hypersensitivity is atopic dermatitis in cats
type 1 hypersensitivity
35
Describe type 2 hypersensitivity
1. mediated by IgG antibodies that recognise antigens on cell surface - intrinsic or extrinsic antigens 2. activates classical complement pathway 3. destruction of cells (phagocytosis)
36
How is type 2 hypersensitivity different to type 1
37
Describe Myasthenia Gravis (example of type 2 hypersensitivity)
38
Describe type 3 hypersensitivity
39
Describe equine recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) (example of type 3 hypersensitivity)
40
Describe canine blue eye (example of type 3 hypersensitivity)
41
Describe type 4 hypersensitivity
42
How is TB (type 4 hypersensitivity) diagnosed?
43
What are the 5 main clinical signs of inflammation
44
Describe chronic inflammations
Can occur if there is no return to steady state conditions following acute inflammation Often infectious cause, may be immune mediated - e.g. chronic colitis/inflammatory bowel disease in dogs - --> Constant immune output occurs Granuloma may form --> e.g. enteric granuloma seen commonly in ruminant Johne’s disease (paratuberculosis) Granuloma may take long time to develop & is e.g. of delayed type hypersensitivity (Type IV) response
45
give examples of causes of chronic inflammation
Autoimmune disorders - e.g. diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, IBD Exposure to toxins - e.g. pollution, exposure to chemicals Chronic exposure to irritant or foreign material - e.g. foreign body granuloma Auto-Inflammatory (Hyper-Inflammatory) Syndromes - Hyper-inflammatory Syndrome in Weimaraner Infection - e.g. bacteria: * e.g. gingivitis, Johne’s disease Trauma - e.g. injury
46
Give some examples of both
47
Describe granuloma formation
1. Macrophages (Histiocytes – macrophages in tissues) fail to clear foreign agent & become chronically infected 2. Activated macrophages constantly secrete TNF-α & other proinflammatory cytokines which promote influx of T-cells - Removing TNF-α causes breakdown of granuloma 3. T cells around periphery secrete IFN-γ 4. Stimulated macrophages can further mature into epithelioid cells 5. Epithelioid cells sustain granuloma 6. Prolonged stimulation leads epithelioid cells to fuse together & form multinucleated ‘Giant Cells’ or Langhans cells 7. Giant cells are capable of phagocytosis & cytokine secretion 8. T-cell & macrophages stimulate fibroblasts promoting fibrosis which can lead to organ damage
48
What are the pros and cons of granuloma formation
pros: 1. Granuloma form focal killing point in which micro-organisms may eventually be killed 2. Granuloma prevent dissemination since it ‘walls off’ micro-organisms cons: 1. Break-down of granuloma can have serious effects since bacteria can disseminate 2. Granuloma may cause severe tissue necrosis & hence affect organ function 3. Granuloma can cause fibrosis & tissue thickening impairing organ function
49
What is Chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats
Chronic Diarrhoea (>14 days) Causes: - Idiopathic - Chronic infection - Allergic response (e.g. food) * --> thus, immunosuppressive therapy may be effective - May be a genetic component Although granuloma may not be present, cytokines & immune cell infiltrate & maintain chronic inflammatory state Chronic enteropathy is most common gastrointestinal disorder in older cats, with rising prevalence over past decade Classified into 4 forms
50
What are the 4 Forms of chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats
51
Describe lymphocytic plasmocytic enteritis (form of chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats)
Most common form of chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats (commonly middle aged) Characterised by increased lymphocyte & plasma cell infiltrate into lamina propria (Ileum & colon common) In cats it may be difficult to differentiate from small cell lymphoma
52
Describe eosinophilic (gastro)enteritis (form of chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats)
Less common that lymphocytic plasmocytic enteritis No. of different breeds- usually younger animals Infiltrate is predominantly eosinophils Chronic parasitic infections/allergy e.g. food.
53
Describe neutrophilic colitis (form of chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats) & causes
Neutrophil infiltrate Possible causes: - Idiopathic - Response to normal bacterial microbiota - Invasion of Campylobacter spp - Trichomonas foetus infection
54
What is Hypereosinophilic syndrome in cats?
A variant of eosinophilic enteritis Overproduction of eosinophils in bone marrow Widely disseminated eosinophilic infiltration of multiple organs Organs commonly affected include: - Bone marrow - Small intestine - Liver - Spleen - mesenteric & peripheral lymph nodes - Skin lesions Poor prognosis
55
Describe granulomatous colitis (form of chronic enterocolitis in dogs & cats)
Rare - Seen in young Boxer dogs, French bulldogs Thickened, partially obstructed segment of bowel (ileum & colon most commonly) Large foamy, Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) +ve macrophages present in colonic mucosa (pro-inflammatory macrophage type) True granulomas are not present. Caused by E. coli
56
What are the methods of antigen sampling in gut
57
How are lymphocytes recruited to peripheral lymphatic organs such as GALT?
Lymphocytes leave LN, enter blood, then emigrate back from capillaries to intestine Addressins (adhesion molecules) on high endothelial venules interact with homing receptors on lymphocytes to ensure they reach mucosal surface
58
How is bacterial DNA recognised in mammals
Bacterial DNA CpG dinucleotides are un-methylated Most mammalian CpG di-nucleotides are methylated TLR-9 in mammals recognises un-methylated CpG in bacterial DNA & initiates inflammation
59
Describe bacterial chromosomes & plasmids
60
Describe plasmids
Typically circular DsDNA Separate from the chromosomal DNA Some have a suicide gene to ensure maintenance Some are transmissible by conjugation Variable in sizes
61
Describe bacterial replication
Binary fission They have a generation time - Length of time required for single bacterial cell to divide to 2 daughter cells Binary fission leads to clones of bacteria
62
If bacterial replication leads to clones how do bacteria evolve?
Mutation of genes Transfer of genes Rearrange their DNA Delete genes New genes inserted
63
What are the methods of transferring genes between & within bacteria
Introduction of new DNA into and between bacteria: - Transformation - Conjugation - Transduction - Recombination Movement of DNA already in bacteria: - Transposition - Recombination
64
Describe transformation in bacteria
Transformation is the uptake of naked DNA DNA contacts the bacteria and is taken up Some bacteria are… - Naturally competent. They can take up DNA without treatment. Have competence mechanisms - Require treatment to become competent (laboratory competent) Once naked DNA is taken up into cells there are two options: - It is degraded by nucleases - It recombines into the genome
65
Describe conjugation in bacteria
Bacterial conjugation is transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell-to-cell contact (horizontal gene transfer) It's transfer of genetic information from a donor cell to a recipient donor must host conjugative or mobilisable genetic element (plasmid or transposon) Most conjugative plasmids have systems ensuring that recipient cell doesn't already contain similar element
66
Describe transduction by bacteriophages
Viruses that infect bacteria are known as bacteriophage Each virus is specific for a specific species of bacteria They need to bind (specific receptor) Then inject their genome and this infects the bacteria
67
What are the types of bacteriophage & transduction
Lytic and generalised transduction Temperate phage and specialised transduction
68
Describe generalised transduction by lytic bacteriophage
Process by which any bacterial DNA may be transferred to another bacterium via a bacteriophage
69
Describe specialised transduction by lysogenic bacteriophage
Lysogenic (viruses that insert their DNA into bacterial chromosome) Bacterial genes that get transferred depend on where phage genome is inserted on chromosome When prophage excises it may do this imprecisely or package adjacent bacterial DNA These packaged particles can then infect another bacteria with bacterial DNA
70
What happens to DNA that enters bacteria
Degraded – non specific (no recombination general nucleases degrade DNA) Degraded – by specific restriction endonucleases (DNA restriction) It manages to integrates with genome (DNA recombination)
71
Describe Homologous, directed & non-homologous recombination/insertion
Homologous recombination - Where 2 DNA sequences are same they can intercalate their strands. During replication these can get spliced Non homologous – less efficient, DNA doesn't match but can be in random positions Directed - Insertion elements have repeats which lead to homologous/directed insertions in specific sites or enzymes that direct integration at set sites - These have hot spots for insertions & are more effective
72
What is DNA restriction in bacteria
It's not good for bacteria to constantly take up DNA so they have restriction system They have Restriction endonuclease(s) Which degrade DNA not made in their own cell These restriction nucleases don't degrade self-DNA as they act on specific sites Bacteria methylates its own DNA where its own restriction nuclease cut so blocking enzyme (They don't chew up their own genome) Works on any DNA including non-self plasmids
73
What are frameshift mutations
Either addition or loss of single base moving reading frame in an out of position Frame shift adds or removes base to change codon position relative to reading frame
74
What is transposition
Transposons are sequences of DNA that can move around to different positions within genome Transposons encode their own transposases Transposase cut out & re-insert the DNA flanked by inverted repeats (IR) The process directed by these enzymes is transposition They pop into (integrate) and out of DNA If they insert into a gene they will disrupt it
75
What are insertion sequences
IS elements are a type of transposon. They are…. - short DNA sequence that acts as simple transposable element - are small relative to other transposable elements - only code for proteins implicated in the transposition activity - are different from transposons, which carry accessory genes
76
What is the clinical relevance of mutations
If a mutations is beneficial to bacteria this will become more fit Alteration of antibiotic binding sites - E.g. mutations ribosomal binding sites can reduce binding of ribosome targeting drugs Avoidance of vaccines - If mutations alters amino acid sequence of epitope that antibodies bind to then this can reduce or abrogate binding Alteration of metabolism - Can be no. of reasons mutations in promotors can upregulate or down regulate critical functions. Making bacteria less or more competitive
77
Define genetic drift
Changes of over time by mutations of genomes
78
What are antimicrobial growth promoters and what is the problem with them
substances added to the feed or water of animals to promote growth and improve feed efficiency Prolonged and large scale use will select for antibiotic resistance Leading to a reservoir of transferable antibiotic resistance Banned in UK and EU
79
Describe bacterial metabolism of xenobiotics (drugs)
Gut flora bacteria can transform (alter) compounds. This can have different effects - Drugs activated - Drugs inactivated - Toxic metabolites (and carcinogens) Different compounds in food can also alter composition of gut flora - Can lead to increased bacteria associated either with ‘improved’ or ‘reduced’ gut health
80
What are methods used to enumerate bacteria
Qualitative - General assessment of level low, med, high Quantitative - Enumeration normally vs. volume or weight Visual examination - microscopy total count or general assessment Culture: - Viable counts where you dilute count colonies & calculate original no. of bacteria Molecular detection - Detecting species by quantitation of their nucleic acid
81
What are methods for assessing presence of bacteria
Slides/smears - May work for some very characteristic spirochetes but rods & cocci can't be distinguished in faeces - Useful in discrete normally body sites/tissues where you would expect sterility or only single common morphologies (you can spot abnormal types or mixed infections) Culture: - For faeces, the most common method is culture.
82
What can impact gut flora
Age Stress Use of drugs Genetics Diet Illness
83
What genes are essential for bacterial colonisation
Surface structures, for adhesion and stop wash out LPS and membrane integrity for tolerance of harmful factors Motility to get to target niches General gene regulation for stress responses to turn on genes required to adapt to GI-environment Specific transporters to take up GI-specific nutrients
84
What is natural competitive exclusion and competitive exclusion products
“Natural” competitive exclusion: Existing bacterial flora present competitive barrier to incoming bacteria so can exclude & prevent colonisation &/or infection Competitive exclusion products: Deliberate use of desired microbial cultures to colonise animals that out-compete pathogens from colonising specific niches (so can exclude & prevent colonisation &/or infection) - Applied commercially
85
Describe competitive exclusion
Presence of one bacteria inhibits other due to it competing & winning in acquisition of growth factors ‘Nutrition’ is NOT free There is Competition (for….) - Space - co factors elements etc.. - Electron acceptors (Humans Oxygen) - Carbon sources Only compete if they require same type of nutrition
86
Describe how antibiotics can disrupt flora
Antimicrobials can remove sensitive organisms from a particular niche Space left is then repopulated by intrinsically resistant bacteria Thus antibiotics can disrupt existing flora or allow over growth of undesirable organisms
87
Name viruses that cause major clinical signs associated with GI tract
88
What are key features of parvoviruses
89
What are parvoviruses of veterinary importance
90
Describe feline parvovirus infection
also known feline infectious enteritis (FIE) or feline panleukopenia faecal-oral transmission infects lymph nodes of naso- & oro-pharynx & then spreads to other tissues - needs rapidly dividing cells to propagate then infects intestinal cells & bone marrow kittens most susceptible
91
Describe parvoviruses pathogenesis | panleukopenia, enteritis & cerebellar hypoplasia
92
What are the clinical signs & treatment of feline parvovirus
93
How is feline parvovirus controlled
94
How is feline parvovirus diagnosed
95
Describe canine parvovirus 2 infection
96
Describe corona viruses
enteric & respiratory pathogens commonly mutate
97
Describe transmissible gastroenteritis virus (TGEV) (porcine corona virus)
98
Describe porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus (PED) (porcine corona virus)
99
Describe Porcine delta coronavirus (PDCoV) (porcine corona virus)
100
Describe swine acute diarrhoea syndrome coronavirus (SADS-CoV) (porcine corona virus)
101
Describe betacoronaviruses (bovine corona virus)
102
Describe canine coronavirus
103
Describe feline coronavirus
104
What are the 2 main forms of feline infectious peritonitis
wet FIP - effusions dry FIP - pyogranulomatous lesions
105
What might lead you to suspect a case of wet FIP (feline infectious peritonitis)
106
What are the features of pestiviruses
107
Describe bovine viral diarrhoea virus (pestivirus)
Causes: - diarrhoea - decreased fertility/milk yield - abortion/congenital defects - immunosuppression - mucosal disease 2 genotypes: - BVDV 1 - classical form of disease - BVDV 2 - haemorrhagic syndrome (severe acute BVD)
108
Describe epidemiology of mucosal disease (BVDV)
BVDV can cross placenta infection during pregnancy may have various effects on foetus - if infected before development of foetal immunocompetance calf aborted or PI calf - if infected after calf aborted or born with congenital defects mucosal disease only develops in PI (infected in utero) animals around 2 years of age - invariably fatal
109
How is BVD (bovine viral diarrhoea) controlled
110
Describe the structre of paramyxoviridae
111
describe rinderpest virus (Morbillivirus) & its clinical signs
cattle plague highly infectious respiratory & alimentary tract disease high mortality clinical signs: - nasal discharge - pyrexia - oral & nasal erosions & ulcerations - diarrhoea with mucus, blood & debris - dehydration
112
describe canine distemper (morbilillivirus)
young dogs transmitted by direct contact replicates in urinary tract spreads to tonsils & lymph nodes & then CNS clinical signs: - pyrexia - depression - ocular & nnasal discharge - vomiting - diarrhoea - hyperkeratosis of nose/pads - neurological signs if poor immune response
113
Describe Newcastle disease
114
What are some strains of Newcastle disease
115
What are viral membrane glycoproteins
116
Compare lentogenic & mesogenic strains of Newcastle virus
117
How is Newcastle disease diagnosed
1. egg inoculation 2. harvesting allantoic fluid after 7 days 3. Haemagglutination test to detect viruses in allantoic fluid
118
How is Newcastle disease controlled
119
acid-fast staining
120
Describe method of staining Mycobacteria (acid-fast staining)
121
How long do Mycobacteria take to grow & what problem does this pose for diagnosis?
slow (2-16 weeks) takes very long to culture so disease can spread while waiting
122
what is Johne's disease
123
What are the clinical signs of Johnes disease?
124
What are the clinical characteristics/pathogenesis of Johne's disease?
1. MAP colonises in intestinal epithelial cells by attaching to surface receptors 2. body forms granulomas to attempt to contain infection 3. causes disruption of normal digestive functions & leads to malabsorption 4. intestinal mucosa becomes damaged which leads to diarrhoea 5. contributes to weight loss
125
126
Describe oesophageal infections
Relatively uncommon due to rapid passage of material through oesophagus & tough stratified epithelium Some viral infections can cause ulcers Most notable infections: - BVDV (Bovine viral Diarrhoea virus) & mucosal disease (Ovine Herpes virus 2) - Newcastle disease in poultry
127
How can infections spread from GIT to other body systems
Liver & spleen, GI Tract is a route for infection 1. Portal vein 2. Hepatic artery (billiary system) 3. Contagious spread from adjacent system
128
Describe Campylobacter jejuni
Zoonotic Associated with diarrhoea in dogs Gram negative Flagellated and Motile Microaerophilic Optimum growth temperature for C. jejuni is 42ºC. Grown on nutrient media or isolation using Campylobacter selective medium Can be seen as commensals in intestinal tract of warm-blooded animals The genera contains a number of species - C. jejuni, C. coli, C. lari Important because it is a common contaminant of meat
129
How can GI tract diseases enter food chain
130
How can campylobacter be identified (sample collection)
Samples depending on stage of production On farm: - Environmental samples - Faecal swabs - Boot swabs At abattoir: - Gut contents - Neck Swabs from birds - Skin samples At retail: - Swabs - Juice from meat packages - Whole meat samples
131
What is Multi Locus Sequence Typing (MLST)
MLST looks at single base pair changes Done by sequencing 7 housekeeping (essential) genes & clustering strains based on differences These clusters are called clades Researchers have collected lots of strains from different sources & compared their MLS So if clinical isolate clusters in MLST clade it indicates potential source of infection MSLT systems exists for range of bacteria They get developed where there is clinical need to understand sources of infection
132
Describe campylobacter in birds
Mainly infects lower intestinal tract There is an inflammatory response during initial colonisation A correlation with Campylobacter colonisation and - reduced weight gain - Hock burn (which is associated with wet bedding i..e more watery faeces)
133
Are campylobacter sp. Clear pathogen in dogs?
Diarrhoeas in dogs & other domesticated animals has been associated with Campylobacter However, Campylobacter is often found in healthy animals so what does this mean? Presence of large number of Campylobacter may indicate infection In older dogs evidence is unclear for campylobacter causing diarrhoea but there is some evidence in puppies It may be that disease is associated more with young or debilitated animals which are often increased at risk
134
How can brachyspira (spirochete that causes disease in pigs & poultry) be diagnosed
Selective media - Blood agar plus selective antibiotics Stained faecal smear for spirochaetes Silver stain faecal smear PCR tests
135
What is Lawsonia and how can it be diagnosed
Curved Gram-negative rod Obligate intracellular pathogen Microaerophilic In piglets & foals Diagnosis: - Clinical signs - Demonstration in mucosa or faeces by immunofluorescence or PCR - Staining of tissue sections - Serological tests
136
Describe Lawsonia intracellularis
Invades enterocytes Causes lack of differentiation Undeveloped cells do not shed Leads to pseudo-stratified epithelium - Thickening of gut & thus poor absorption
137
What are enterobacteriaceae
Gram negative rods which are oxidase negative, facultative anaerobes & grow on MacConkey Major enteric pathogens - Escherichia coli (also commensal) - Salmonella enterica - Yersinia species Opportunistic pathogens
138
How can you differentiate between different enterobacteriaceae
Differentiation by growth characteristics and biochemistry - Motility Test - Citrate utilization Test - Indole Test - Methyl Red (MR) Test - Voges–Proskauer (VP) Test - Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) Agar Test - Urease Test More common now for molecular tests to confirm species by: - PCR of unique genes - Whole genome sequence (WGS) - Ribosomal genome sequence - Mass Spectrophotomerty
139
Describe E. coli
Most members of this genus are low virulence They may cause opportunistic infections Pathogenic strains possess virulence factors which allow them to cause disease Basic genomes of E. coli are same but they will have gained some very specific properties. 3 main criteria - Adhesion factors *Presence or absence of LEE island - Type of enterotoxin present - Species associated with
140
What factors can lead to pathogenic E. coli in young farm animals
Poor colostrum immunity ETEC receptors present Build-up of pathogenic E. coli Stress and environment
141
What are the 2 species of Salmonella
S. bongori S. enterica
142
What are the sources of Salmonella infection
Organisms found in: - Contaminated water sources - Carrier animals - Faecal contaminated environment Foodborne - Eggs (from infected birds) GI content contaminated food: - Raw Meat - Offal - Animal Feed - Plant material (Faecal contamination and uptake)
143
What are clinical signs of Enteric Salmonella
Profuse foul-smelling diarrhoea Fever Depression Anorexia Severely affected animals may become recumbent
144
Describe Salmonella invasion
1. TTSS-1 injects effector proteins into host enterocyte 2. Triggers actin changes that leads to engulfment of bacteria into vacuole 3. There are multiple TTSS-1 effectors but overall effect of different effector proteins is to - Trigger invasion by actin and tubulin remodelling - Trigger cytokine response - trigger Enteropathogenic response (fluid secretion) 4. Once bacteria is internalised in vacuole, host will try & attack bacteria moving antimicrobial vacuoles to form phagolysozome out of Salmonella containing vacuole. 5. These fusion is inhibited by TTSS-2
145
Describe Salmonella intracellular survival (in vacuole)
1. TTSS-2 injects SPI-2 effectors 2. These jam up in cytoskeletal movements in cell so cell can't mature vacuoles 3. This means Salmonella is in protected space 4. Salmonella replicates in controlled vacuole 5. In this space it's safe from adaptive responses as antibodies only survey outside cells
146
Describe Septicaemic salmonellosis
Common to specific host serotype combinations Host may vary in susceptibility with age Sudden high fever, depression, recumbence, rapid death Mucosa is route to deeper tissues Salmonella can spread in blood & lymph inside macrophages Organisms can spread to other organs liver & spleen (oviduct in birds)
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Describe Salmonella in eggs
Carrier state observed after recovery from enteric infection of - S. Enteritidis - S. Gallinarum Bacteria found in macrophages These reach oviducts and contaminate eggs Biosecurity & vaccination have reduced infection & egg contamination FSA guidance is that Lion Brand Eggs (or equivalent) in UK are now considered Salmonella ‘free’
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Describe phylum firmicutes
The ‘majority’ Gram positive Found in various environments The group includes commensals and pathogens BUT exceptions - Mycoplasmas lack cell walls (e.g. of genetic reduction) Some Gram positive genera: - Produce endospores - Have porous pseudo-outer-membrane that causes them to stain Gram-negative
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Give examples of Firmicutes
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Describe phylum bacteroidetes + e.g.
Gram negative Wide distribution in the environment, (soil, water GI tracts) Rarely pathogenic examples: - Bacteroides (abundant in the faeces) - Porphyromonas, (oral cavity)
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Describe phylum proteobacteria
All Gram Negative A major Phylum (with subgroups) - Alphaproteobacteria - Betaproteobacteria - Gammaproteobacteria - Deltaproteobacteria - Epsilonproteobacteria Includes commensals and pathogens Members can be facultative/obligate anaerobes or even microaerophilic Notable Genera clinically relevant to GI tract: - Escherichia, Salmonella, Vibrio (in humans), Helicobacter, Campylobacter
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Name an important family of gammaproteobacteria
Pseudomonas found in lots of environments & can cause ear infections, burn infections, wool/skin in sheep infections It's good at forming biofilms in infections as it often produces exopolysaccharides (slime made form sugars) These films can make it more intransigent to treatment
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Name important epsilonproteobacteria
Both are microaerophilic Helicobacter is important in stomach infections Campylobacter causes GI infection in humans & is foodborne zoonotic as its carried by number of large animals
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Give examples from phyla actinomycetota
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Describe Bifidobacterium
Gram Positive, Anaerobes Can be branched Common commensal bacterium Niche gastrointestinal tract of mammals A major constituents of probiotic food supplements
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Describe Genus bacteroides
A major component of mammalian gastrointestinal flora Gram negative, bacilli (morphology as in rod), anaerobes Non-endospore-forming Variable motility between species Will use simple sugars when available, but main source of energy is polysaccharides from plant sources
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Describe Genus Lactobacillus
Gram Positive Facultative anaerobic / microaerophilic bacteria Major part of group can convert lactose & other sugars to lactic acid Common and benign Present on mucosa of reproductive and GI tract Production of lactic acid makes its environment acidic which inhibits growth of some harmful bacteria This ‘MAY’ help protect the gut against less pH tolerant bacteria
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Describe Genus streptococci
Gram Positive, Coccoid, facultative-anaerobes Members of phylum Firmicutes Cellular division on a single axis so they grow in chains or pairs Found in many body sites as commensals Can cause opportunistic disease
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Describe Enterococcus sp. (faecalis & faecium)
Gram Positive, Facultative anaerobe Commensal bacterium Niche gastrointestinal tracts mammals A major constituents of some probiotic food supplements Can cause opportunistic infections One of the ESKAPE pathogens
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What are ESKAPE pathogens
6 nosocomial pathogens that exhibit multidrug resistance & virulence Enterococcus faecium, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterobacter Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa & spp.
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Describe genus Clostridia
Gram Positive, Endospore forming, Rod shape, obligate anaerobes
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What is genome
Genetic material of animals, plants & bacteria consists of DNA Genome includes both genes (coding regions) & noncoding DNA In viruses genome can be double stranded or single stranded RNA or DNA
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Describe mitochondrial DNA (eukaryotes)
In animals mitochondrial genome is typically single circular chromosome that is approx. 16-kb long & has 37 genes Not all proteins necessary for mitochondrial function are encoded by mitochondrial genome Mitochondria divide by binary fission similar to bacterial cell division Mitochondria & thus mitochondrial DNA, usually comes from egg only Sperm's mitochondria enter egg but don't contribute genetic information to embryo – Maternal inheritance
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define microbiome
Combined genetic material of microorganisms in particular environment – population level
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What is metagenomics
study of structure & function of entire nucleotide sequences in bulk sample
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Describe the intestinal microbiome
Gut composed of widely divergent microbial lineages whose genomes contain functionally similar sets of genes that would give rise to coordinated single metabolic outcome Diversity & abundance level of microbes, genes, proteins & metabolites will influence energy balance, gut motility, inflammatory tone, mucosal integrity, appetite & signalling Gut key player (i.e., pathogens) may also negatively influence gut barrier - --> promoting inflammation Good flora can produce good products & also exclude detrimental bacteria Detrimental bacteria may produce toxins or interact with cells stimulating unwanted responses in gut mucosa
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Describe Influence of Microbiota gut brain axis (MGBA) on behaviour
via cell structural components (ie LPS) & with release of microbial metabolites which act on intestinal epithelium, then released into bloodstream & cross blood-brain barrier production of pro-inflammatory cytokines by immune cells stimulate enteric nervous system & its sensory neurons or induce secretion of neuropeptides by entero-endocrine cells Affects: - anxiety-like behaviour - memory capacities - social behaviour - feeding behaviour
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What are coding regions of a gene
portion of gene's DNA or RNA that is composed of exons
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What are Long interspersed nuclear elements & short interspersed nuclear elements
Long interspersed nuclear elements (LINEs): - expressed as RNA & encode reverse transcriptase that creates DsDNA copy that can then insert Short interspersed nuclear element (SINE) sequences: - Widely distributed in eukaryotic genomes & have crucial roles in genome organization, genome evolution & modulating gene expression
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What are the Applications of PCR & qPCR in veterinary medicine
pathogen detection quanitification of gene expression detection of gene mutations
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Why might diarrhoea occur more commonly in younger animals
not very developed immune system GI tract not fully developed Incomplete gut flora lack of exposure exploring environment with mouth
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How might an animal ingest viruses shed within faeces
Viruses shed in diarrhoea can create aerosols foodstuffs, drinking water & fomites can be contaminated & spread disease poor disinfection of environment
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Define fomite
objects or materials which are likely to carry infection
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Describe common features of enteric virus infections
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How can enteric virus infections cause malabsorption
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What are the 4 main mechanisms of viral diarrhoea
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What are the main viruses that affect GIT
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Describe rotaviruses
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What is important about viruses with a segmented genome?
have their genetic material divided into separate segments (each encoding for different genes) allows for genetic diversity (each segment can undergo reassortment to create new viral variants) increases adaptability to survive in different conditions some have antigenic variation (encode for proteins that undergo frequent changes to avoid immune system)
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Where do rotaviruses infect & effect
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What is the importance of rotavirus
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How is rotavirus diagnosed
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How is rotavirus controlled
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What are the steps of PCR
1. reaction mix is heated to 95 degrees 2. hydrogen bonds of DNA nucleotides are broken down 3. double stranded DNA will be denatured 4. reaction mix is cooled down to annealing temperature 5. primers align with complementary sequence of target DNA 6. primers form hydrogen bonds with target DNA 7. reaction mix is heated to reach optimum temperature for DNA polymerase 8. heat stable DNA polymerase extends primers in 5'->3' direction 9. temperature raised to 95 degrees again to start next cycle
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Compare microbial culture to PCR
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Compare PCR to immunodiagnostics (ELISAs & snap tests). 1. What do they detect? 2. How quick are they? 3. How accurate are they?
1. PCR detects pathogen DNA & immunodiagnostics detect Ab that animal produced when in contact with pathogen 2. snap tests immediate. PCR & ELISA 24-72h 3. PCR more accurate
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Define silent or synonymous mutation
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define missense mutation
nucleotide substitution that leads to change of an amino acid Impact can vary: - new amino acid might have similar properties to the old one or the substitution is in a part of the protein that does not affect its structure or function and has no impact - It can cause a major change in the protein
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Define nonsense mutation
A point mutation that changes a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon and causes the premature termination of translation. If that happens close the 3' end of the strand than that might not have much impact on the proteins. Most non-sense mutations lead to non-functional proteins.
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Which organism causes Johne's disease
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How is canine coronavirus transmitted
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Define diarrhoea
Increase in frequency, fluidity, volume & water content of faeces
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What factors can cause disease
Secretion of exotoxin Invasion of target cells leading to cell death Invasion of host cells & lymphatic's leading to systemic disease
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What is hypersecretion (pathogenic mechanism)
A functional disturbance of the intestinal epithelial cells Increased out flow or decrease re-absorption of water crypt cells can pump chloride ions (Cl-) into the crypt space Cl- ions attract sodium ions (Na+) into crypt space, increasing local osmotic pressure As osmotic pressure increases, water is pulled into intestine Some enterotoxins can trigger & lock ON chloride secretion leading to hypersecretory diarrhoea Done by activating adenylate cyclase Example cause: - ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)
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What are examples of pathogenic mechanisms
Hypersecretion Villous atrophy Infiltrative and proliferative distortion of mucosa Mucosal necrosis
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What is villus atrophy (pathogenic mechanism) + example pathogens
Destruction of the epithelial cells on villi or in the crypts Villi become often stunted or fused Example pathogens: - Attaching and effacing E. coli (EHEC, VTEC) - Rotavirus (mild villous atrophy) - Canine parvovirus (severe villous atrophy)
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What is infiltrative & proliferative distortion of mucosa (pathogenic mechanism)
Recruitment of large numbers of Macrophage & T-lymphocytes in lamina propria & sub-mucosa Leading to crypt compression and villous distortion Therefore reduce absorptive capacity Example Paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)
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What is mucosal necrosis (pathogenic mechanism)
Infection leads to cell death Severity and extent depend on virulence of pathogen Majority of Diarrhoea from reduced absorption Example pathogens: - Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
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What are the advantages & disadvantages of preventative vaccination