Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Zygote

A

The cell formed by the fusion of two gametes

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2
Q

Morula

A

More than 32 cells, undifferentiated, still in ball form

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3
Q

Where do the first few cell divisions occur?

A

In the oviduct

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4
Q

What is the significance of the inner and outer cells in the morula?

A

Inner cells form the embryo, outer cells form the placenta

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5
Q

What is compaction?

A

Tight junctions and gap junctions form between adjacent blastomeres, and the cells flatten together to form a tight ball in a process called compaction. Cadherins appear to play important roles in compaction, because interfering with cadherins prevents this process. During compaction, the cells also become polarized, with a well- defined apical and basal surface. A fluid-filled space, the blastocoel, appears in the embryo, which is now called a blastocyst.

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6
Q

When and where does implantation usually occur?

What happens to the zona pellucida prior to implantation?

A

At 6 to 7 days after fertilization, the blastocyst reaches the uterus and implants. Before the embryo can attach to the uterine epithelium, however, it must get rid of the zona pellucida, which still envelopes the embryo. Hydrolytic enzymes are released by the embryo that degrade the wall of the zona, allowing the blastocyst to squeeze out, or “hatch” out of the zona. It is thought that the presence of the zona prior to hatching helps prevent ectopic implantation.

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7
Q

What is placenta previa?



A

Implantation close to the mouth of the cervix results in the placenta partially covering the cervical canal, a condition known as placenta previa. Placenta previa can cause hemorrhage during pregnancy and can threaten the survival of the fetus and mother.

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8
Q

How does the bilaminar disc form?

A

On about day 7 after fertilization, at about the time of implantation, a number of changes occur at the animal pole (the inner cell mass) of the embryo. A fluid space appears between the inner cell mass and the adjacent trophectoderm cells; this space will become the amniotic cavity. This process, called delamination, isolates the inner cell mass as a separate entity from the trophoblast. The inner cell mass flattens and forms a roughly circular disc, composed of two layers of cells. The cells closest to the forming amniotic cavity are tall columnar cells, and collectively are called the epiblast. The underlying cells are more cuboidal and form the hypoblast. The epiblast will eventually give rise to the embryo, as well as some extraembryonic structures, while the hypoblast will form extraembryonic structures only. The formation of epiblast and hypoblast is sometimes referred to as the delamination of the inner cell mass. The epiblast side of the disc identifies the dorsal direction. By about day 9, cells of the hypoblast have proliferated and extend below the embryonic disc to enclose a space called the primary yolk sac. A number of these cells break free from the wall of the primary yolk sac to fill the space between the yolk sac and the trophoblast and are subsequently called extraembryonic mesoderm cells. A dense cluster of extraembryonic mesoderm cells connect the bilaminar disc to the trophoblast; this connection will become the umbilical cord. Meanwhile, a distinct cellular layer, apparently derived from the cytotrophoblast, begins to form a roof (the amniotic membrane) over the amniotic cavity.

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9
Q

What are the epiblast and hypoblast? From what layer does the embryo proper arise?

A

The cells closest to the forming amniotic cavity are tall columnar cells, and collectively are called the epiblast. The underlying cells are more cuboidal and form the hypoblast. The epiblast will eventually give rise to the embryo, as well as some extraembryonic structures, while the hypoblast will form extraembryonic structures only. The formation of epiblast and hypoblast is sometimes referred to as the delamination of the inner cell mass.

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10
Q

When does gastrulation occur?

A

Gastrulation takes place after cleavage and the formation of the blastula and primitive streak.

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11
Q

What is the primitive streak?

A

The first sign of gastrulation is a
migration of epiblast cells toward the midline of the
embryonic disc. The thickening formed is called the primitive streak, and serves to demarcate the anterior-postior and left-right axes of the embryo

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12
Q

Primitive node (Hensen’s node)?

A

As epiblast cells continue migrating, the streak extends in a rostral direction along the disc, and a thickening - Hensen’s node (or the primitive node) - appears at the rostral end of the streak. Then, the streak turns into a groove, through which other epiblast cells migrate.

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13
Q

What three germ layers arise from the process of gastrulation?

A

Epiblast cells migrate ventrally through the primitive streak to give rise to mesoderm and endoderm. The ventrally-most migrating cells displace hypoblast cells and form embryonic endoderm. Cells that come to reside between the epiblast and endoderm become mesoderm. The cells remaining in the epiblast become ectoderm.

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14
Q

What major body structures are eventually formed from each germ layer?

A

ECTODERM: Epidermis, hair, nails, cutaneous and mammary glands; central and peripheral nervous system
MESODERM: Paraxial: Muscles of head, trunk, limbs, axial skeleton, dermis, connective tissue; Intermediate: Urogenital system, including gonads; Lateral: Serous membranes of pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum, connective tissue and muscle of viscera, heart, blood cells
ENDODERM: Epithelium of lung, bladder and gastrointestinal tract; glands associated with G.I. tract, including liver and pancreas.

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15
Q

How does the trophoblast become transformed into chorion and placenta?



A

Magic, or, in certain cases, witchcraft.

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16
Q

What is the notochord, and what two of its main functions?

A

The rostral-most epiblast cells that migrate toward and through the primitive streak are channeled through the anterior swelling of the streak - Hensen’s node. Many cells which migrate through Hensen’s node and descend into the mesoderm subsequently migrate rostrally and form a thick cord of cells called the notochord. Toward the end of gastrulation, the primitive streak regresses, and as it regresses, the notochord lengthens. The notochord is an immensely important structure in the early embryo: it lends longitudinal mechanical support to the embryo, but - most importantly - is serves as a powerful inductive force on the subsequent differentiation of many cell types. Notably, it is the prime inducer of nervous system development. Eventually, the vertebral column forms around the notochord.

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17
Q

What is the neural plate?

A

The first stage of nervous system formation occurs when epiblast (ectoderm) cells directly overlying the notochord are induced by the notochord to proliferate and to form a thickening called the neural plate. By about the 18th day, the neural plate begins to buckle, forming neural folds.

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18
Q

What are somites?

A

The paraxial mesoderm gives rise to somites, which are periodic thickenings that occur along the length of the paraxial mesoderm. They begin to form at about the time of neurulation (the third week). They form in pairs, one on each side of the notochord, and eventually 42 to 44 pairs are formed by the end of the fifth week. The
somites give rise to most of the axial skeleton and associated musculature, and the adjacent dermis of the skin.

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19
Q

Neural folds?

A
By about the 18th day, the neural plate begins to buckle, forming neural folds. The neural folds at the cranial end of the embryo enlarge, and will ultimately form the brain. By the end of the 3rd week, the neural folds have
curved around
and fused to form
a tube, called the
neural tube.
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20
Q

Neural tube?

A

neural folds have fused
ectoderm fully enclosed
end of the third week

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21
Q

How does the neural crest and its derivatives form, and what structures do they give rise to?

A

At the time the neural tube is forming, a population of cells, the neural crest cells, detach from the lateral border of the folds, and actively begin to migrate within the embryo. The neural crest cells eventually give rise to a number of structures, including the spinal and autonomic ganglia, Schwann cells, the meninges, the adrenal medulla, and melanocytes. Because of this, they are sometimes referred to as the “fourth germ layer.”

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22
Q

What are epithelial-to-mesenchymal and mesenchymal-to-epithelial transitions?

A

gastrulation and neural crest cell migration. Both instances involve an epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (MET).
Snail (a transcription factor) represses cadherin, claudin and occludin expression, which results in loss of adherens and tight junctions.
Matrix metalloproteinase and vimentin expression is increased. These promote the detachment of cells from an epithelium and convert them into mesenchymal-like cells able to invade the extracellular matrix.

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23
Q

Specific Binding

A

Specific binding is a criteria for both strength of interaction and selectivity. Different biological systems depend on different binding stringencies. Antibodies must precisely identify pathogens while ignoring self material.
Tell A from B

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24
Q

Affinity

A

very tight interaction at one small region. How well you hold it

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25
Q

Avidity

A

several interactions that resemble a zipper Cooperative interactions
The sum of many tiny binding sites yield very high binding strength.

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26
Q

PAMP

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
imunogen
Molecular moieties (i.e. parts) that are absolutely required for pathogen survival
Recognition system has co-evolved with the appearance of the PAMP

Examples
Endotoxin
Flaggelin
dsRNA
CpG DNA
Peptidoglycan
Terminal mannose
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27
Q

DAMP

A
Damage Associated Molecular Patterns
imunogen
Occult and obscured from the defense mechanisms
Danger signal
Damage signal
Recognized by the Innate immune system
Examples
Proteins
Heat Shock proteins
Non-Proteins
Uric acid crystals
ATP
DNA
Heparin sulfate
Hyaluronan fragments
S100 molecules
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28
Q

Toll-like Receptor

A

Toll Like receptors are surface molecules with recognition sites for PAMPs, DAMPs and other soluble factors that bind PAMPS (i.e. MD-2/CD14/LBP)). Nine different TLRs have been identified. Three are found in the endosomal compartments of phagocytic cells (e.g. Neutrophils, Macrophage, Dendritic Cells and B-cells). Six are expressed on the cell surface as dimers (homodimers or heterodimers). The TLRs initiate danger signals using the transcription factors NF-κB (Inflammation) and IRF3 (Viral response, increase MHC class I expression)

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29
Q

Natural Immunization
Artificial Immunization
Passive Immunization
Active Immunization

A

know ‘em

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30
Q

T-cell receptors

A

T cells express surface receptors that weakly recognize peptides
Peptides must be displayed for detection
T cells screen mDCs for Ag
A match results in T cell activation

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31
Q

Positive Selection

A
In order to be positively-selected, thymocytes will have to interact with several cell surface molecules, MHC, to ensure reactivity and specificity.[3]
Positive selection selects cells with a T cell receptor able to bind MHC class I or II molecules with at least a weak affinity. This eliminates (by a process called "death by neglect") those T cells which would be non-functional due to an inability to bind MHC.
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32
Q

Negative Selection

A

Negative selection is the active induction of apoptosis in thymocytes with a high affinity for self peptides or MHC. This eliminates cells which would direct immune responses towards self-proteins in the periphery. Negative selection is not 100% effective, some autoreactive T cells escape thymic censorship, and are released into the circulation.

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33
Q

What is the difference between mosaic and regulative development?

A

In regulative development, blastomeres initially have similar developmental potencies, each capable of giving rise to a complete embryo. The process of differentiation is responsive to environmental signals, which allows the developmental program to respond and adjust to various types of perturbations.

In mosaic development, cell fate is already assigned during cleavage, and a strict developmental plan is in place, whereby removal of one or more cells results in an incomplete embryo. Cell fate is usually determined by the differential inheritance of specific factors among daughter cells during cell divisions, in a process called asymmetric cell division.

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34
Q

What is the mechanism by which identical (monozygotic) twins are produced?

A

Occasionally, the cells of early embryos fail to adhere together normally, and can fall apart into two (or more) masses. Each mass is able to give rise to an entire individual if it occurs early enough
Splitting can occur as early as the 2-cell stage, and as late as the blastocyst stage. The later splitting occurs, the greater the chance it will not be complete, and the twins will be conjoined (not completely separated).

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35
Q

Define totipotent

A

can give rise to all embryonic and extra-embryonic cell types and structures

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36
Q

Define pluripotent

A

can give rise to all embryonic cell types and structures

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37
Q

Define multipotent

A

can give rise to multiple (but not all) cell types

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38
Q

Define unipotent

A

can give rise to just one type of cell

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39
Q

What is induction?

A

the ability of one cell (or some type of environmental signal) to influence the development of another cell. Cells are not ‘born different,’ but instead become different by receiving distinct environmental signals. This leads to a regulative pattern of development, where not only does removal of cells from an early embryo not result in missing body parts (because cell fates take longer to be instructed), but a single cell from an early embryo is able to give rise to an entire organism. This process is most obvious in higher animals, including humans.

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40
Q

What are morphogens

A

Induction: the process where one cell or group of cells changes the developmental fate of another group
Signals that alter cell fate are called morphogens
Cells producing signals are the inducers
Cells receiving the signals must be competent to respond to the signal

Instructive: cell “a” gives signal, causing specification and differentiation of cell “b”
Permissive: cell “b” already specified, but a signal from “a” allows differentiation to proceed- extracellular matrix interactions are commonly of this type

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41
Q

Compare paracrine, juxtacrine, and autocrine signaling

A

Paracrine: involves diffusable molecules

Juxtacrine: Involves cell-cell contact

Autocrine: Cells stimulate themselves

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42
Q

Compare the different patterns of gradient, antagonist, cascade, and combinatorial signaling

A

gradient: signa decreases over distance
antagonist: one morphogen on one side, competing morphogen on the other side
cascade: morphogen hits cell, causes it to produce more morphogens to pass on the signal
combinatorial: two morphogens, working together in proportions

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43
Q

How are trophoblast vs. inner cell mass fates determined?

A

Signals from the polarized outer cells (including plasma membrane and cytoskeleton) inhibit Mst1/2 phosphorylation of Yap, allowing active Yap to translocate into the nucleus and activate Tead4 transcription factors, which activate genes associated with proliferation, differentiation, and development, stimulating trophoblast formation. These genes include Cdx2, which is a transcription factor that appears to drive trophoblast formation. The hippo pathway remains active in the unpolarized inner cells, maintaining Yap and Tead4 inhibition.

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44
Q

How does epiblast and hypoblast formation progress?

A

Initially, all blastomeres express Oct4 and Nanog, transcription factors associated with pluripotency and stem cell function.
Cdx2 becomes expressed solely in trophoblast cells via inhibition of Hippo signaling.
Cells of the inner cell mass maintain Hippo signaling and express Oct4, Nanog, and Gata.
Oct4/Nanog and Cdx2/Gata inhibit each other’s expression, creating a double-negative feedback loop.
Because of the reciprocal inhibition of Oct4/Nanog and Cdx2/Gata, inner cells end up expressing EITHER Oct 4 and Nanog, OR Gata – but not both.
By an incompletely understood mechanism, Gata-positive cells segregate out to form the hypoblast.

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45
Q

How are sonic hedgehog, nodal, lefty, and homeobox genes involved in these processes? (Axes determination)

A

sonic: secreted by notochord in dorsal/ventral

nodal/lefty: The exact mechanism is still being worked out, but leftward fluid flow from the node increases the expression of the signaling molecule Nodal on the left side of the embryo.
Nodal stimulates the production of itself and another signaling molecule called Lefty, which is antagonistic to nodal (nodal and lefty both belong to the TGF-b family). Not enough lefty is produced to inhibit nodal on the left side, but it is enough to inhibit the lesser amounts of nodal expressed on the right side.
Nodal stimulates the production of Pitx2, a transcription factor that modulates gene expression patterns associated with l-r asymmetry.

homeobox: Arranged in the same general order on chromosome as ant-post axis

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46
Q

How are signaling pathways related to the the regulation of gene expression?

A

Secreted signaling molecules play central roles in mediating inductive events – for example, FGF (fibroblast growth factor) in eye formation, and Shh (sonic hedgehog) and BMP (bone morphogenetic protein) in neuronal differentiation.
A common mechanism of action is that secreted paracrine factors induce target cells to produce different sets of transcription factors, which then specify cell fates.

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47
Q

What are the ‘big five’ signaling pathways involved in morphogenesis, and what are their basic features?

A

TGF pathway (transforming growth factor; includes TGF and BMP proteins)

Hedgehog pathway (sonic hedgehog is the protein mammals express)

FGF pathway (fibroblast growth factor; includes a number of FGFs)

Wnt pathway

Notch pathway

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48
Q

How is cell migration and cell adhesion involved in morphogenesis?

A

know this

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49
Q

How do cadherins function in this process? (morphogenesis)

A

Selective cell-cell adhesion is mediated by cadherins that are expressed in tissue-specific patterns

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50
Q

How is the metastatic spread of cancer like the cell movements that occur in embryogenesis?

A

know this

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51
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

movement according to certain chemicals in the environment

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52
Q

Asymmetric cell division

A

unequal partitioning of specific factors among daughter cells during cell division. Essentially, daughter cells are ‘born different,’ resulting in the assignment of different fates as daughter cells are produced. This process is very obvious in lower animals.

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53
Q

Brief Summary of Early Developmental Events

A

Trophoblast/inner cell mass formation (induced by peripheral and cytoskeletal signals via Hippo pathway)

Formation of a epiblast and hypoblast (accompanied by differential expression of Oct4, Nanog, and Gata transcription factors)

Formation of ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm via gastrulation

Formation of specific tissues and organ rudiments from cells of the different germ layers, which achieve their adult organization through embryo rolling and folding.

These events reflect two fundamental processes:
A progressive restriction of cell fate
Extensive cell motility and migration events

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54
Q

Potencies of trophoblasts and epiblasts

A

Trophoblast cells can only give rise to extraembryonic tissues, and only epiblast cells give rise to all of the cells of the fetus; thus, these cells are associated with different potencies.

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55
Q

Dorsal-ventral axis formation

A

Initially, the neural tube resembles a homogeneous collection of cells which are committed to a neural fate, but not yet specified to a particular type of neural cell. This changes when the notochord induces the ventral floor plate to secrete sonic hedgehog (Shh), and when the overlying ectoderm induces the dorsal roof plate to secrete BMP. The apposing gradients formed instruct the cells in between to express particular transcription factors (like Pax6, Pax7, and NKx6.1), and adopt specific fates. As with eye development, there are additional positional signals that come into play. Another fundamentally important family of transcription factors that is involved in instructing positional identity along the anterior-posterior axis are the Homeobox (or Hox) genes. This gene family has been shown to be responsible for body patterning in organisms as diverse as fruit flies and humans.

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56
Q

Left-right axis formation

A

A surprising clue to l-r axis determination was the discovery that dynein mutants/knock-outs exhibit random placement of asymmetric organs.
It was then discovered that ciliary cells of the primitive node establish directional fluid flow from right-to-left (by all beating in the same direction).
The exact mechanism is still being worked out, but leftward fluid flow from the node increases the expression of the signaling molecule Nodal on the left side of the embryo.
Nodal stimulates the production of itself and another signaling molecule called Lefty, which is antagonistic to nodal (nodal and lefty both belong to the TGF-b family). Not enough lefty is produced to inhibit nodal on the left side, but it is enough to inhibit the lesser amounts of nodal expressed on the right side.
Nodal stimulates the production of Pitx2, a transcription factor that modulates gene expression patterns associated with l-r asymmetry.

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57
Q

Anterior-posterior axis formation

A

Hox genes – Homeobox genes Involved in anterior-posterior axis formation
Organized in a gene complex of 13 genes (repeated 4 times on different chromosomes; HoxA, B, C and D)
Encode transcription factors that contain homeodomains: a DNA-binding sequence of 60 amino acids
Arranged in the same general order on chromosome as ant-post axis
RA appears to be involved in regulating Hox expression; Exogenous retinoic acid (RA) can disrupt normal patterns of Hox gene expression
RA found in the primitive node; the longer cells are reside in the node (exposed to RA), the more posterior fate they adopt.

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58
Q

List and explain the adaptive responses to physiologic stimuli and injurious stimuli

A

hypertrophy, hyperplasia, atrophy, and metaplasia

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59
Q

Describe the gross patterns and microscopic findings of tissue necrosis

A

Morphologic appearance of necrosis is due to denaturation of intracellular proteins and enzymatic digestion of lethally injured cells

Microscopic changes of individual cell necrosis:
	Increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia in tissue stains (hematoxylin and eosin)
	Myelin figures (dead cell replaced by mass of damaged cell membranes)
	Nuclear changes: karyolysis (nucleus fades away), pyknosis (shrunken nucleus, can also be seen in apoptosis), karyorrhexis (pyknotic nucleus undergoes fragmentation)

Key point: necrotic cells are unable to maintain membrane integrity and their cell contents can leak out; cell specific proteins and enzymes can be detected in the blood, and this is the rationale for using diagnostic tests to detect the presence of organ specific tissue necrosis (e.g. myocardial infarct, liver damage)

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60
Q

List the causes and describe the mechanisms of cell injury

A

Depletion of ATP

Mitochondrial damage

Influx of calcium and loss of calcium homeostasis

Accumulation of oxygen-derived free radicals

Defects in membrane permeability

Damage to DNA and proteins

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61
Q

Define apoptosis, and describe the typical microscopic findings. Which enzyme pathway is typically activated in apoptosis?

A

Apoptotic cells demonstrate:
Activation of caspases (cysteine proteases)
DNA and protein breakdown
Membrane alterations with enhanced recognition by phagocytes

Morphologic features of apoptotic cells include:
Cell shrinkage
Condensation of nuclear chromatin
Formation of blebs and fragments (apoptotic bodies)
Phagocytosis, usually by macrophages

In tissue sections, apoptotic cells are typically shrunken, and appear as a round or oval mass of eosinophilic cytoplasm with fragments of condensed, often fragmented nuclear chromatin

Key point: apoptosis and necrosis often appear together

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62
Q

Describe the four mechanisms of intracellular accumulations, and list some examples discussed in class.

A

abnormal metabolism
defect in protein folding/transport
lack of enzyme
ingestion of indigestible materials

Some examples:

Fatty change of the liver, associated with alcohol abuse or nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
Cholesterol or cholesterol esters, associated with atherosclerotic vascular disease; patients can get accumulation of cholesterol within dermal macrophages (xanthomas)
Proteins can accumulate in a variety of conditions:
Reabsorption droplets in proximal renal tubules seen in renal diseases with protein loss
Excessive protein production, such as Russell bodies in plasma cells
Defective secretion of proteins, such as alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Accumulation of cytoskeletal proteins, such as Mallory bodies in the liver in fatty liver disease
Aggregation of abnormal proteins, such as amyloidosis
Hyaline change is a microscopic descriptive term for eosinophilic glassy protein which can be seen in a variety of conditions

Glycogen can accumulate in various cells in patients with diabetes; patients with glycogen storage diseases (genetic enzymatic defects of glycogen metabolism) can have massive accumulations of glycogen.

Exogenous pigments (anthracosis, tattoo)

Endogenous pigments:
Lipofuscin (brown lipid), results from free radical injury and lipid peroxidation of subcellular membranes – seen in liver and heart as part of aging process, malnutrition, cancer cachexia
Melanin (skin)
Hemosiderin granules, which are aggregates of ferritin, a protein iron complex. The common bruise is an example of localized hemosiderosis. Systemic hemosiderosis can occur in disorders resulting in systemic overload of iron

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63
Q

Describe the two types of pathologic calcification.

A

Dystrophic calcifications (normal serum calcium level):
Can occur in areas of necrosis with deposition of crystalline calcium phosphate; can get heterotopic bone formation
Often seen in association with atherosclerosis, damaged heart valves, fat necrosis, tuberculosis

Metastatic calcification:
Due to hypercalcemia secondary to disordered calcium metabolism (elevated serum calcium)
Calcium phosphate is deposited in normal tissues (lung, kidney (nephrocalcinosis), gastric mucosa, systemic arteries, pulmonary veins); can get heterotopic bone formation
Four principal causes of hypercalcemia are:
-Increased parathyroid hormone production (PTH)
-Destruction of bone tissue
-Renal failure (phosphate retention, secondary hyperparathyroidism)
-Vitamin D related disorders

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64
Q

In your own words, describe cellular aging.

A

Commen da ne talomares ca nepho melandra ca.

Cellular aging is the result of a progressive decline in cellular function and viability caused by genetic abnormalities and the accumulation of sub lethal cellular and molecular damage due to effects of exposure to exogenous influences

Aging is a regulated process, controlled by a limited number of genes

Changes which contribute to aging include:
Decreased cellular replication: after a fixed number of divisions all somatic cells become arrested in a terminally non-dividing state known as senescence. Telomere shortening may play a role.
Accumulation of metabolic and genetic damage

The causes of aging, as well as strategies for reducing aging, are very active areas of research

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65
Q

Using examples discussed in class, explain the rationale for measuring biomarkers of cellular necrosis.

A

AST (aspartate aminotransferase):
Present in the liver as well as heart, skeletal muscle, brain, and kidneys.
Elevation is not specific for the liver.

ALT (alanine aminotransferase):
Only small amounts are found in tissues other than the liver, so ALT is a more specific indicator of hepatocyte injury than AST.

Tests that establish the presence of bile duct damage:

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP):

Consists of various isoenzymes found in bone, liver, placenta,
	 intestine, and leukocytes.
Increase is usually due to bone or liver disease.

Measurement of gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT, associated 
	with biliary epithelium) can assist in determining if ALP rise is 
	due to bone or liver.

Comprehensive metabolic profile (a group of laboratory tests) typically includes AST, ALT, and alkaline phosphatase.

Elevation of cardiac troponin I typically reflects damage to cardiac muscle:

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66
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase in the size of cells, resulting in increase in the size of the organ.
Can be physiologic or pathologic.
Results from increased production of cellular proteins.
Selective hypertrophy can occur at the level of the subcellular organelle (e.g. smooth endoplasmic reticulum).

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67
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Increase in the number of cells, resulting in an increase in the size of the organ.
Occurs if the cells of the organ can divide.
Can be physiologic (hormonal or compensatory) or pathologic (excesses of hormones or growth factors); new cells may arise from mature cells or tissue stem cells.

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68
Q

Atrophy

A

Decrease in cell size and number, resulting in reduced size of a tissue or organ.
Can be physiologic or pathologic.
Common causes of pathologic atrophy are:
Decreased workload
Loss of innervation (denervation atrophy)
Diminished blood supply
Inadequate nutrition
Loss of endocrine stimulation
Pressure

Results from decreased protein synthesis and increased protein degradation within the cells; increased autophagy may also be involved (“self-eating” – autophagic vacuole fuses with a lysosomal vacuole, thereby digesting cellular components with the formation of residual bodies (such as lipofuscin granules)
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69
Q

Metaplasia

A

Reversible change in which one differentiated type of cell is replaced by another cell type.
Results from the reprogramming of stem cells present in normal tissue or reprogramming of undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
External stimuli promote expression of genes that lead to a specific differentiation pathway.
Many examples exist:
Columnar to squamous (squamous metaplasia)
Squamous to columnar (Barrett esophagus)
Connective tissue metaplasia
Key point: influences that predispose to metaplasia, if persistent, may lead to malignant transformation (e.g. Barrett esophagus leading to adenocarcinoma).

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70
Q

types of necrosis

A

Coagulative necrosis:
Architecture of dead tissue is preserved (infarct)
Liquefactive necrosis:
Digestion of the dead tissue results in liquid viscous mass; typically seen in focal bacterial or occasionally fungal infections, the microbes stimulate the accumulation of neutrophils which liberate tissue destroying enzymes, resulting in creamy necrotic material filled with neutrophils (pus)
Gangenous necrosis:
Clinical term, not specific pattern, usually applied to necrosis of a limb undergoing coagulative ischemic necrosis
Caseous necrosis:
Cheeselike necrosis associated with necrotizing granulomas, seen with tuberculosis and fungal infections
Fat necrosis:
Refers to focal areas of fat destruction
Fibrinoid necrosis:
Pattern of necrosis seen in immune reactions involving vessels

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71
Q

Depletion of ATP

A

ATP is required for virtually all synthetic and degradative processes in the cell (e.g. membrane transport, protein synthesis)

Major causes of ATP depletion are reduced blood supply of oxygen and nutrients, mitochondrial damage, exposure to certain toxins (e.g. cyanide)

Depletion of ATP to 5-10% of normal levels has widespread effects on the cell. These effects include:
	-Failure of plasma membrane energy-dependant 
	sodium pump (cell swelling)
	-Altered energy metabolism (reduced oxidative 	phosphorylation, increased anaerobic glycolysis,
	increase in lactic acid – lab test!)
	-Calcium pump failure
	-Disruption of ribosomes with reduced protein 	synthesis; also get misfolded proteins (unfolded 	protein response)
	-Eventually get irreversible damage and cell death
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72
Q

Mitochondrial damage

A

Mitochondria supply ATP to the cell thru oxidative phosphorylation

Mitochondria can be damaged by oxygen deprivation, oxygen free radicals, increased cytosolic calcium

Mitochondrial damage results in:

	- Defect in the mitochondrial membrane (mitochondrial 	permeability transition pore) which leads to failure of 	oxidative phosphorylation and depletion of ATP
	- Escape of mitochondrial membrane proteins which can 	activate apoptotic pathways (cytochrome c)
73
Q

Influx of calcium and loss of calcium homeostasis

A

Cytosolic free calcium is normally maintained at a very low level compared to extracellular calcium levels; when injured, calcium is released from intracellular stores and the cell membrane becomes more permeable to extracellular calcium

Increased intracellular calcium results in:

	- Mitochondrial membrane defect and failure of ATP generation
	- Activation of lytic enzymes (phospholipases, proteases, endonucleases, ATPases)
	- Induce apoptosis (activate caspases)
74
Q

Accumulation of oxygen-derived free radicals (oxidative stress)

A

Free radicals are chemical species that have a single unpaired electron

Reactive oxygen species (ROS) refer to types of oxygen-derived free radicals that are produced normally in the cell during mitochondrial respiration and energy production; cellular defense mechanisms are in place to remove ROS and maintain a steady state with no cell damage

When the production of ROS increases or the scavenging systems are ineffective, ROS increases with an increase of free radicals (oxidative stress)

Oxidative stress has been implicated in a wide variety of conditions and diseases (cancer, aging, degenerative diseases)
75
Q

Defects of membrane permeability

A

Membrane damage can occur as a result of:

	- Reactive oxygen species
	- Decreased phospholipid synthesis
	- Increased phospholipid breakdown
	- Cytoskeletal abnormailities (cell stretching)

Membrane damage results in:

	- Mitochondrial membrane damage (decreased ATP, 	apoptosis)
	- Loss of osmotic balance and loss of cellular 	components
	- Injury to lysosomal membranes with release of lytic 	enzymes with enzymatic digestion of proteins, RNA, 	DNA, glycogen
76
Q

Damage to DNA and proteins

A

Cells have mechanisms to repair DNA, but if the damage is too severe, the cell will initiate enzymatic programs that result in death by apoptosis

Misfolded proteins, the result of genetic mutations or acquired through cell injury, can also result in apoptosis
77
Q

irreversibility is typically characterized by

A

Inability to reverse mitochondrial dysfunction

Profound disturbances in membrane function

78
Q

Chemical (toxic) injury

A

Injury occurs either by direct toxic effect, or through the toxic effects of a metabolite; many mechanisms exist, including damaging cell membranes, production of free radicals, enzyme disruption (e.g., cyanide poisons mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase and inhibits oxidative phosphorylation)

	As the liver is often involved in the metabolism of drugs 	and toxins, it is a frequent target of drug toxicity
79
Q

What are the two fundamental characteristics of stem cells?

A

Stem cells are not terminally differentiated, but can give rise to daughter cells that can terminally differentiate.
Stem cells can self-renew by dividing and producing two daughter cells, at least one of which does not enter the differentiation pathway, but remains a stem cell.
Stem cells self-renew in order to sustain long-term tissue regeneration

80
Q

What are the usual proliferative potentials of stem cells, progenitor cells, and terminally differentiated cells?

A

stem cells: unlimited
progenitor cells: limited
terminially differentiated cells: hayflick limit?

81
Q

What mechanisms help protect stem cell DNA?

A

Since the process of DNA replication is not perfect and can result in the introduction of genomic changes, the use of progenitor cells as an amplifying system keeps the number of stem cells that are needed low, so the number of divisions they need to make is much reduced (even when the demand for cells is high), reducing the potential for genetic damage.
Remarkably, stem cells appear to have the ability to specifically segregate their replicated chromosomes so that the daughter cell that remains a stem cell receives all of the parental chromosome template strands. This has been called the ‘immortal strand hypothesis,’ and is supported by a number of experimental approaches. The inheritance of all of the ‘template’ strands of DNA in a daughter cell reduces the chances of their being altered during synthesis (because they were used as a template only – and not assembled nucleotide by nucleotide).

82
Q

Why does stem cell DNA have to be protected to a greater degree than that of normal somatic cells?

A

Because stem cells are the reserve cells that are used to replenish tissues and organs, it is important to protect them from genomic damage, particularly as they may be held in reserve for many years until needed.

83
Q

Compare and contrast the potency and availability of embryonic and adult stem cells.

A

Embryonic: Are usually isolated from the inner cell mass or epiblast of blastocysts. Cells at this stage are capable of developing into all cell types of the body, and so are pluripotent.
Advantages: Pluripotent, rapid division rate, and source is well defined (inner cell mass).
Disadvantages: Ethical issues involving destruction of embryo. For example – there are a lot of excess embryos produced in IVF clinics; tens of thousands of frozen embryos are thrown away when couples finish their treatment.

Adult: Involved in replacing and repairing tissues in a particular organ. Can typically form only a limited subset of cell types, and so are usually either multipotent or unipotent.
Advantages: Ethical issues related to embryo use avoided.
Disadvantages: Multipotent at best. Difficult to identify, isolate, and purify as they are rare - estimated at 0.1-3% of cells. Have a low rate of cell division, and so do not proliferate readily

84
Q

What are mesenchymal stem cells?

A

Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSCs) – a type of adult stem cell found in bone marrow (as well as other places in the body). Are identifiable, readily obtainable, and experimentally tractable

MSCs are multipotent adult stem cells
Found in several adult tissues as well as umbilical cord
Able to give rise to numerous mesenchymal cell types including bone, cartilage, muscle, and fat.

85
Q

What are iPS cells, and how are they produced?

A

induced pluripotent cells. These are cells produced by transfection and enforced expression of a small number of transcription factors (e.g., Oct4, Nanog, and others). However, these are difficult to produce, and have been shown to occasionally give rise to tumors when injected into animals. A significant improvement may be the use of miR-302 to produce iPS cells.

86
Q

How do primordial germ cells compare with stem cells?

A

a

87
Q

What is SCNT (somatic cell nuclear transfer)?

A

Because of the ability of a zygote to develop totipotency and subsequently give rise to a complete individual, researchers a number of years ago sought to determine what factors were responsible. One experiment was to remove the nucleus of an egg, and add a nucleus from an adult, somatic cell. The egg was then activated to divide, and resulting daughter cell behavior studied. This type of experimental approach is called SCNT, for somatic cell nuclear transfer.

88
Q

How are Oct4 and Nanog related to potency?

A

. The model is that miR-302 suppresses the expression of epigenetic modulators (methyltransferases, etc.), resulting in global demethylation and reactivation of the genome, including Oct4 and Nanog expression. Oct4 and Nanog themselves further promote miR-302 expression, constituting a positive feedback loop that promotes pluripotency. At some point, expression of other gene products occur in response to environmental signaling that suppress Oct4 and Nanog expression, leading to a downregulation of miR-302 and the initiation of epigenetic methylation, gene silencing, and a restriction of developmental potential.

89
Q

How is gene expression epigenetically regulated during the progressive restriction of cell fate that occurs during early development?

A

a

90
Q

At what two points in the human life cycle does global demethylation occur?

A
  1. Shortly after fertilization (preimplantation reprogramming) - demethylation is incomplete, with methylation at imprinted regions being maintained; this allows the zygote to attain totipotency while still allowing for paternally- and maternally-derived genes to be differentially expressed (due to imprinting).
  2. During primordial germ cell (PGC) determination – here, demethylation is complete, in order to allow for a resetting (erasing) of imprinted regions according to the sex of the embryo. Subsequently, specific genes are imprinted in sex-specific patterns during spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
91
Q

How is this (global demethylation) related to the pluripotency of early embryonic cells, iPS cells, and primordial germ cells/germ cell tumors?

A

a

92
Q

What is the stem cell niche, and what are some examples of how signaling pathways are involved in the regulation of the niche?

A

Wnt signaling in the crypt is critical in maintaining cell proliferation in the crypt, and Notch signaling is involved in the differentiation of progenitor cells into the different cell types of the villus (absorptive cells, goblet cells, etc.). The stem cell niche appears to be created by an interplay of Wnt, Hedgehog and BMP signaling, where Wnt and Hedgehog induce the connective tissue cells in the core to produce BMP4, which acts to restrain niche localization to the crypts (if BMP signaling is blocked, aberrant crypts form further up the villus).

93
Q

What are some applications of stem cell technology to regenerative medicine?

A

Stem cell technology has enormous potential in regenerative medicine. In addition to obvious applications repairing damaged tissues and organs (e.g., from burns or heart attacks), let your imagination run wild about how they might be used…

94
Q

What are some applications of stem cell technology to reproductive biology?

A

How about helping infertile couples to have children genetically derived from them? What if one could take, say, some skin cells from two patients, reprogram them to pluripotency, then direct the iPS cells from the male to differentiate into sperm, and iPS cells from the female to differentiate into oocytes? Then, use these gametes to produce a zygote that could be implanted into the female to produce a healthy baby.

95
Q

What are some applications of stem cell technology to cloning?

A

In therapeutic cloning the embryo produced by SCNT is not placed in a host mother, but dissociated and grown in a culture dish to provide pluripotent cells for regenerative medicine uses

96
Q

List and describe the five cardinal signs of inflammation

A
Redness: rubor
Swelling: tumor	
Heat: calor
Pain: dolor 
Loss of function
97
Q

List and describe the key stimuli for acute inflammation.

A

Infections
Receptors recognize microbes and microbial products, triggering signaling pathways

Tissue necrosis
Ischemia, trauma, chemical or thermal injury, irradiation lead to release of molecules from dead cells which elicit the inflammatory response

Foreign bodies
Splinters, dirt, sutures elicit inflammation and carry microbes

Immune reactions (hypersensitivity reactions)
These are reactions in which the normally protective immune system damages the individual’s own tissues
These reactions can be directed against self antigens (autoimmune diseases) or can be excessive reactions against environmental substances or microbes
These reactions are often persistent and cannot be cured, leading to disease; these disorders are often referred to as immune-mediated inflammatory disease

98
Q

List and describe the three major components of the acute inflammatory response.

A

Acute inflammation is a rapid host response to deliver leukocytes and plasma proteins (antibodies) to the sites of infection and injury

Acute inflammation has three major components:

Alterations in vascular caliber that increase blood flow

Structural changes in the microvasculature that allow plasma proteins and leukocytes to leave the circulation

Emigration of leukocytes from the microcirculation, accumulation at the site of injury, and removal of the offending agent
99
Q

List and describe the three key steps involved in extravasation of neutrophils.

A

Leukocyte adhesion to endothelium: this involves leukocyte margination, rolling, and adhesion to the endothelium:
-Margination (leukocytes in a peripheral position) occurs secondary to the effects of stasis
Adhesion of leukocytes to the endothelium is mediated by complementary adhesion molecules on the two cell types, enhanced by secreted proteins called cytokines
-Rolling occurs as the leukocytes transiently adhere to the endothelial surface
-Eventually leukocytes firmly adhere to the endothelium and stop rolling
-Rolling interactions are mediated by proteins called selectins, which bind to sialylated oligosaccharide ligands; expression of selectins and the ligands is mediated by cytokines (tumor necrosis factor (TNF), interleukin 1 (IL-1), released by tissue macrophages, mast cells, and endothelial cells in response to microbes and dead tissues; these cells also release chemokines (chemoattractant cytokines)
-Firm adhesion is mediated by surface proteins on the leukocyte called integrins; expression is enhanced by cytokines, and along with the action of chemokines, the leukocytes bind to the endothelium at the site of inflammation

Leukocyte migration through the endothelium and into the extracellular space:
-This is called transmigration or diapedesis
-Mediated by chemokines
-Once in the connective tissue, leukocytes adhere to the extracellular matrix by virtue of integrins and CD44 binding to matrix proteins. Thus the leukocytes are retained at the site where they are needed!
Genetic disorders:
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1: defect in biosynthesis of integrins
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2: absence of sialyl-Lewis X, the ligand for selectin

Chemotaxis of leukocytes:

- Chemotaxis is locomation oriented along a chemical gradient
- Exogenous chemoattractants include bacterial products
- Endogenous chemoattractants include cytokines, components of the complement system (C5a), and arachidonic acid (AA) metabolites, mainly leukotriene B4
- The chemotactic agents bind to the surface of the leukocyte, induce the polymerization of intracellular actin, resulting in leukocyte locomotion
100
Q

Discuss the mechanisms by which leukocytes recognize microbes and dead tissue,

A

Leukocytes express receptors that recognize external stimuli; once bound to these receptors, activating signals are delivered to the leukocyte. These receptors include:
G protein coupled receptors
receptors for opsonins
receptors for cytokines

101
Q

Explain the key cell derived and protein derived mediators of the inflammatory response.

A

Mediators are derived either from cells or plasma proteins; cell derived mediators are often sequestered in intracellular granules which can be rapidly released by exocytosis; principal cell types involved include platelets, neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, and mast cells
Active mediators are produced in response to various stimuli, including microbial products, substances from necrotic cells, and proteins from the complement, kinin, and coagulation systems
One mediator can stimulate the release of other mediators, amplifying or counteracting the initial action of the mediator
Mediators vary in their range of cellular targets
Once activated, most mediators are short lived

102
Q

List and describe the three outcomes of the acute inflammatory response.

A

Complete resolution: removal of cellular debris and microbes by macrophages, and resorption of edema fluid

Healing by connective tissue replacement (fibrosis): connective tissue grows into the area of damage or exudate, converting it into a mass of fibrous tissue (this process is also called organization)

Progression of the acute inflammatory response to chronic inflammation

103
Q

List and describe the types of conditions or situations that give rise to chronic inflammation

A
  • Persistent infections: viral, mycobacterial, fungal; may get a granulomatous reaction
    • Immune-mediated inflammatory disease: autoimmune diseases, allergic diseases
    • Prolonged exposure to toxic agents, exogenous or endogenous: e.g. silicosis, atherosclerosis
104
Q

List and describe the cell types and key functions of the cells involved in chronic inflammation.

A

Chronic inflammation is characterized by:

Inflammation of mononuclear cells: macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells (as opposed to neutrophils in the acute inflammatory response)
Tissue destruction (without the vascular changes and edema seen in acute inflammation)
Attempts at healing with connective tissue replacement of damaged tissue (fibrosis) along with proliferation of small vessels (angiogenesis)

Cell types involved in chronic inflammation include:

	Macrophages
	Lymphocytes
	Plasma cells
	Eosinophils
	Mast cells
105
Q

Define a granuloma, and list and describe the three types of granulomas found in tissues

A

Granulomatous inflammation is a distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation encountered in a limited number of infectious and non infectious conditions; it is a cellular attempt to contain an offending agent which is difficult to eradicate; typically there is strong activation of T lymphocytes, leading to macrophage activation, resulting in tissue injury

A granuloma is a focus of chronic inflammation consisting of a microscopic aggregation of macrophages that are transformed into epithelial-like cells (histiocytes), surrounded by a collar of lymphocytes; variable numbers of plasma cells may also be present ; the epithelial-like cells (histiocytes) may also form giant cells

Granulomas can be categorized by their morphologic appearance:

- Foreign body granulomas: see foreign material within histiocytes/giant cells, sometimes called “foreign body giant cell reaction” by pathologists
- Caseating granulomas: granulomas that induce cell mediated immune response with central necrosis; these are usually associated with infection (e.g. mycobacterial, fungal infections)
- Non-caseating granulomas: granulomas that induce cell mediated immune response without central necrosis (e.g. Sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease)
106
Q

Describe the systemic effects of inflammation

A

Systemic changes associated with acute inflammation are called the acute phase response. Some of these changes are as follows:

Fever: produced in response to substances called pyrogens; bacterial products can act as exogenous pyrogens, stimulating leukocytes to release cytokines such as IL-1 and TNF (endogenous pyrogens); this results in increased activity of cyclooxygenases that convert AA to prostaglandins; in the hypothalamus, the prostaglandins stimulate the production of neurotransmitters which reset the temperature set point to a higher level, which is believed to help the body ward off microbial infections; non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and aspirin lower temperature by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

Acute phase proteins: these plasma proteins, mostly synthesized by the liver, increase greatly as a result of the inflammatory response, either acute or chronic. Some of the key proteins are:
C-reactive protein
Fibrinogen
Serum amyloid A (SAA) protein
Increased synthesis of these proteins in the liver results from the release of cytokines as part of the inflammatory response. Prolonged production of SAA protein associated with chronic inflammation can result in secondary amyloidosis.

Leukocytosis: inflammatory reactions, especially those produced by bacterial infections, can lead to elevation of the white blood cell count

Other systemic effects of the acute phase response: decreased blood pressure with increased pulse, rigors (shivering), chills, anorexia, somnolence, malaise. Some patients can develop profound and life threatening hypotension as a result of the systemic response to bacterial and fungal infections (septic shock).

Systemic changes associated with abnormal inflammatory response:

Consequences of defective inflammation: increased susceptibility for infections

Consequences of excessive inflammation: allergies, autoimmune diseases, atherosclerotic vascular disease

107
Q

exudate vs transudate

A
  • Exudate: extracellular fluid with high protein concentration, cellular debris, and high specific gravity
    • Transudate: extracellular fluid with low protein concentration, little or no cellular debris, low specific gravity
    -Presence of exudate implies an increase of normal permeabilty of small vessels in an area of injury (inflammatory reaction); transudate is an ultrafiltrate of fluid that results from osmotic or hydrostatic imbalance across the vessel wall without an increase in vascular permeability
    • Edema: excess of fluid in the interstitial tissue
    • Effusion: excess of fluid in a serous cavity
    • Edema and effusions can be either an exudate or a transudate
    • Pus (purulent exudate): inflammatory exudate rich in neutrophils, debris of dead cells, and microbes in some cases
108
Q

Discuss the mechanisms by which leukocytes remove offending agents.

A

Recognition of microbes or dead cells by the recognition receptors described previously lead to leukocyte activation via signaling pathways. The removal of the offending agents involve two steps:

Phagocytosis and engulfment: Mannose receptors, scavenger receptors, and receptors for various opsonins (especially IgG antibodies and complement C5a) function to bind and ingest microbes, leading to engulfment of the particle into a phagosome, which then fuses with a lysosomal granule, resulting in a phagolysome

Killing and degradation within the neutrophil or macrophage is the final step; microbial killing is accomplished largely by reactive oxygen species (ROS) and reactive nitrogen species (mainly derived from NO), generated within the phagolysosome. This requires a rapid oxidative reaction, called the respiratory or oxidative burst. In neutrophils, the enzyme myeloperoxidase (found in the azurophil granules) creates bactericidal bleach from available chlorine and hydrogen peroxide! Various other constituents are also present in the cytoplasm for microbial killing (elastase, defensins, cathelicidins, lysozymes, lactoferrin, bactericidal/permeability increasing protein); eosinophils contain major basic protein, cytotoxic not to bacteria but cytotoxic to many parasites

109
Q

Histamine

A

Primarily found in mast cells, and stored as preformed molecules in mast cell granules; also present in basophils and platelets; release is by mast cell degranulaton, as a result of physical injury, binding of antibodies to mast cells (allergic reaction), exposure to fragments of complement called anaphylatoxins (C3a and C5a), and exposure to histamine-releasing products from leukocytes, neuropeptides, and cytokines; histamine causes dilation of arterioles and increased vessel permeability

vasoactive

110
Q

Seratonin

A

Primarily found in platelets, with similar actions to histamine; released when platelets aggregate (clotting)

vasoactive

111
Q

Arachidonic Acid (AA) metabolites

A

When activated by various stimuli, cells can convert membrane bound arachidonic acid into prostaglandins and leukotrienes through the action of enzymes

Prostaglandins are produced by many cell types, including mast cells, macrophages, and endothelial cells. They are involved in the vascular response of inflammation but also mediate the systemic reaction (pain and fever).

Leukotrienes are primarily secreted from leukocytes and have chemoattractant and vascular effects. The cysteinyl-containing leukotrienes cause vasoconstriction and bronchospasm.

Lipoxins are generated from AA and inhibit inflammation

Key enzymes involved in the conversion of AA are phospholipases and cyclooxygenase; many anti-inflammatory drugs work by inhibiting these enzymes and thus inhibit the conversion of AA into prostaglandins and leukotrienes (read Robbins pp 59-60, section on anti-inflammatory drugs).

112
Q

Platelet aggregating factor (PAF)

A

Secreted by platelets, leukocytes, mast cells, and endothelial cells; PAF elicits most of the vascular and cellular reactions of inflammation, as well as vasoconstriction, bronchospasm, and platelet aggregation

113
Q

Reactive oxygen species (ROS)

A

Can be released extracellularly from leukocytes as part of the acute inflammatory response, following exposure to microbes, chemokines, immune complexes, and phagocytic challenge; production is dependant on the NADPH oxidase system; low extracellular levels amplify the acute inflammatory response; they can also damage endothelium, as well as other cell types, and inactivate proteases (e.g. alpha-1-antitrypsin); host cells, serum, and tissue fluids contain anti-oxidants to protect against these oxygen derived free radicals; tissue damage from ROS is dependant on the balance between production and inactivation of ROS and antioxidants.

114
Q

Nitric Oxide (NO)

A

Produced by endothelial cells; causes vasodilation, and NO-derived free radicals are microbicidal (and can also damage host cells); NO also inhibits the cellular component of the inflammatory response

115
Q

Cytokines

A

Cytokines are proteins produced by many cell types (primarily activated lymphocytes and macrophages) that modulate the function of other cell types; they are involved in immune responses, but also involved in both acute and chronic inflammation. Some key cytokines involved in inflammation include tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and interleukin-1 (IL-1).

Patients with familial Mediterranean fever have a genetic defect which results in unregulated IL-1 production; these patients present with fever and unprovoked systemic inflammation; treatment is with IL-1 antagonists

List of cytokines involved in inflammation continues to grow (IL-6, IL-7)

116
Q

Chemokines

A

Family of proteins that act as chemoattractants for specific types of leukocytes (neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes); chemokines bind to transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors; they function to stimulate leukocyte recruitment in inflammation and control the normal migration of the cells through various tissues

117
Q

Lysosomal constituents of leukocytes

A

Neutrophils and macrophages contain a variety of lysosomal enzymes. Many of these are proteases, which can degrade both intracellular (within phagolysosomes) and extracellular components. If leukocyte infiltration is unchecked, further tissue damage can occur. These proteases are held in check by a system of anti-proteases. For example, alpha-1-antitrypsin is the major inhibitor of neutrophil elastase

118
Q

Neuropeptides

A

Secreted by sensory nerves and leukocytes, they can initiate and propagate the inflammatory response (substance P); along with prostaglandins and cytokines, can also produce pain

119
Q

Complement system

A

Complement system consists of more than 20 proteins, involved in the immune response for defense against microbial pathogens. In the process of complement activation, cleavage products of complement proteins are elaborated that cause increased vascular permeability, chemotaxis, and opsonization. The inactive complement proteins, when activated, also serve as proteolytic enzymes to activate other complement proteins (complement cascade); in inflammation, some key complement functions include:

- Inflammation: C3a, C5a, C4a stimulate histamine release from mast cells and are anaphylatoxins, involved in the immune reaction called anaphylaxis; C5a is also a chemoattractant, and activates the lipoxyganase pathway of AA conversion in neutrophils and macrophages, causing further release of inflammatory mediators
- Phagocytosis: C3b when bound to microbial cell wall promotes phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages
- Cell lysis: complex of C9 on microbial cell wall (known as membrane attack complex) makes cell wall permeable to water and ions and causes lysis

C3 and C5 can be cleaved by proteolytic enzymes in the inflammatory exudate, some of which are secreted by neutrophils. These complement proteins have chemoattractant properties, leading to further neutrophil recruitment, creating the potential for a self-perpetuating cycle of neutrophil recruitment. However, the activation of complement is tightly controlled by a variety of cell-associated and circulating regulatory proteins.

120
Q

Coagulation and Kinin systems

A

Coagulation and Kinin systems are involved in blood clotting

Inflammation and blood clotting are often intertwined, with each promoting the other

Products of the clotting system can be mediators of the inflammatory response. These include:

- Bradykinin, C3a, C5a: mediators of increased vascular permeability
- C5a: mediator of chemotaxis
- Thrombin: binds to protease-activated receptors, and for endothelial cells, induce the mobilization of P-selectin, production of chemokines and cytokines, expression of adhesion molecules for leukocyte integrins, induction of cyclooxygenase-2 and production of prostaglandins, production of PAF and NO, and changes in endothelial shape
121
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

A

Morphologic hallmarks are dilation of small blood vessels with vascular congestion and accumulation of leukocytes (neutrophils) and fluid into the extracellular space

Acute suppurative inflammation: acute inflammation rich in neutrophils, forming grossly evident pus or purulent (suppurative) exudate (e.g. acute appendicitis)

Abscess: localized collection of purulent inflammatory tissue, buried and confined within an organ, tissue, or confined space (basically a pocket of necrotic tissue, filled with pus)

Pyogenic (pus-producing) bacteria are bacteria that produce suppurative inflammation (e.g. staphylococci)

Ulcer: local defect or excavation of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by the sloughing (shedding) of inflamed necrotic tissue (e.g. gastrointestinal tract, skin); ulcers often have evidence of chronicity (chronic inflammation as well as acute inflammation, fibrosis)

122
Q

Macrophages

A

Derived from blood monocytes; extravasation of blood monocytes begins early in acute inflammation, occurring via the same processes that control neutrophil extravasation; once in the extracellular tissue, the monocyte transforms into a larger phagocytic cell called a macrophage; the macrophage can then be activated when exposed to stimuli (e.g. microbial products, cytokines); the products of activated macrophages eliminate injurious agents and initiate the process of repair, and are responsible for much of the tissue injury in chronic inflammation; because of the activities of macrophages, tissue destruction is one of the hallmarks of chronic inflammation.

In acute or short lived inflammation, if the irritant is eliminated, macrophages eventually disappear, either by cell death or into lymphatics; in chronic inflammation, macrophages persist, as there is continuous recruitment from the circulation (macrophages can live for several months or years).

123
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Lymphocytes are mobilized in both antibody mediated and cell mediated immune reactions; both T and B lymphocytes can migrate into inflammatory sites via interaction with adhesion molecules and chemokines; cytokines and chemokines from macrophages promote lymphocyte recruitment; key point is that both T lymphocytes and macrophages interact in a bidirectional way, so that once the immune system is involved in an inflammatory reaction, the reaction tends to be chronic and severe

124
Q

Plasma cells

A

Develop from activated B lymphocytes and produce antibodies directed either against persistent foreign or self antigens in the inflammatory site or against altered tissue components. In some cases, the combination of lymphocytes and plasma cells can form structures normally seen in lymph nodes, such as reactive germinal centers.

125
Q

Eosinophils

A

Eosinophils are abundant in immune reactions mediated by IgE and in parasitic infections. They have granules that contain major basic protein, which is toxic to parasites but also causes lysis within mammalian epithelial cells. Eosinophils are of benefit in controlling parasitic infections, but also contribute to tissue damage in allergies.

126
Q

Mast cells

A

Widely distributed in connective tissues, and have receptors that bind the Fc portion of the IgE antibody. In immediate hypersensitivity reactions, the IgE antibodies bound to the Fc receptors on the surface of the mast cell recognize the antigen and the mast cells degranulate and release histamine and prostaglandins; this type of reaction occurs in allergic reactions (severe cases can result in anaphylactic shock)

127
Q

sedimentation rate

A

This test is a nonspecific measure of inflammation. Acute phase proteins such as fibrinogen as well as immunoglobulins can bind to red blood cells (RBCs), causing them to stack (rouleaux). Stacked red blood cells will sediment out faster in a tube of blood than non-stacked RBCs. Values are expressed as mm/hour.

128
Q

C-reactive protein

A

This test is a sensitive but nonspecific indicator of acute injury, bacterial infection, or inflammation. For example, elevated levels are seen in patients with sepsis, acute appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and acute myocardial infarction. Elevated CRP is also a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Values are measured in mg/dl.

129
Q

WBC count and differential.

A

Leukocytosis refers to an increase in the number of circulating leukocytes (white blood cells, WBCs) in the peripheral blood. The type of WBC that is increased can be a clue to the underlying pathology. For example:

Neutrophilia: acute bacterial infections, acute inflammation associated with tissue necrosis (e.g. acute myocardial infarct)

Eosinophilia: allergic disorders, parasitic infections, drug reactions, certain malignancies

Basophilia: rarely seen, may indicate a myeloproliferative disorder such as chronic myeloid leukemia

Monocytosis: chronic infections, bacterial endocarditis, malaria, collagen vascular diseases, inflammatory bowel disease

Lymphocytosis: viral infections, Bordetella pertussis infection, disorders associated with chronic immunologic stimulation

Performing a “WBC differential” will tell you which type(s) of WBCs are increased. Find your favorite source for list of causes!

130
Q

Define regeneration and repair, and explain the difference between these two terms.

A

Regeneration: proliferation of cells and tissues following injury, which replaces lost structures; in mammals, only tissues with high proliferative activity can regenerate after injury as long as the stem cells of these tissues are not destroyed (e.g. hematopoietic system, epithelia of the skin and gastrointestinal tract); the term regeneration typically refers to the compensatory growth following injury (e.g. liver following partial hepatectomy).

Repair: consists of the combination of regeneration and fibrosis which is the typical response following injury; the relative contribution of regeneration and fibrosis depends on the ability of the tissue to regenerate and the extent of the injury; the term fibrosis (scarring) refers to the deposition of collagen which occurs in repair, and fibrosis is the predominant healing process that occurs when the extracellular matrix (ECM) framework is damaged by severe injury.

131
Q

Based on proliferative activity, list the three types of tissues in the human body.

A

Continuously dividing (labile tissues): cells proliferate throughout life, replacing those that are destroyed (e.g. surface epithelia (skin, vagina, cervix, oral cavity, excretory duct epithelium, GI tract epithelium, endometrium, urinary tract epithelium), bone marrow and hematopoietic tissues); in most of these tissues mature cells are derived from adult stem cells

Quiescent (stable tissues): cells have a low level of replication, but can undergo rapid division in response to stimuli and thus have the capability of reconstituting the tissue of origin (e.g. liver, kidney, pancreas, smooth muscle, fibroblasts, vascular endothelial cells, osteocytes)

Nondividing (permanent tissues): cells have left the cell cycle and cannot undergo mitotic division in postnatal life (e.g. neurons, skeletal muscle (some limited regenerative capacity), cardiac muscle)

132
Q

Explain the goal of stem cell therapy.

A

The goal of stem cell therapy is to repopulate damaged organs of a patient or to correct a genetic defect, using the cells of the same patient to avoid immunologic rejection.

133
Q

List and describe the two main mechanisms by which cells are stimulated to replicate.

A

Replication of cells is stimulated by growth factors or by signaling from extracellular matrix components.

134
Q

List and describe the three modes of signaling mechanisms in cell growth.

A

Receptors lacking intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity:
Ligands for these receptors include many cytokines (IL-2, IL-3) and other interleukins, interferons alpha, beta, gamma, erythropoietin, growth hormone, prolactin, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factors
These receptors transmit signals to the nucleus by activating members of the JAK (Janus kinase) family of proteins, resulting in a cascade leading to gene transcription.

G-protein-coupled receptors:
Constitute the largest family of plasma membrane receptors.
A large number of ligands signal through this type of receptor (chemokines, vasopressin, serotonin, histamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, calcitonin, glucagon, parathyroid hormone, corticotropin, rhodopsin); many common pharmaceutical drugs also target these receptors!

Steroid hormone receptors:

- Generally located in the nucleus.
- Ligands diffuse through the cell membrane and into the nucleus, binding to and activating the receptor.
- Activated receptors then bind to specific DNA sequences known as hormone response elements within target genes, or they can bind to other transcription factors.
- Ligands using this pathway are steroid hormones, thyroid hormone, vitamin D, and retinoids. 
- A group of nuclear receptors belonging to this class of receptors are called peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors, involved in a broad range of responses including adipogenesis, inflammation, and atherosclerosis.
135
Q

List and describe the four types of receptors involved in signaling induction pathways.

A

?

136
Q

State the growth factor most important for fibrosis, and the growth factor most important for angiogenesis.

A

Transforming Growth Factor Beta (TGF-Beta)

- Has a great number of effects (pleiotropic).
- TGF-Beta inhibits the growth of most epithelial cells; acts as a potent fibrogenic agent (causes fibrosis); has a strong anti-inflammatory effect but may enhance some immune functions.
- TFG-Beta is implicated in the development of fibrosis in a variety of chronic inflammatory conditions, especially in the lungs, kidney, and liver; also implicated in hypertrophic scars and systemic sclerosis, Marfan syndrome.

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF):

- VEGFs are a family of proteins that induce blood vessel formation in development (vasculogenesis) and promote growth of new blood vessels (angiogenesis) in adults in chronic inflammation, healing of wounds, and tumors.
- VEGFs signal by binding to VEGFRs (VEGFR-1,2,3).
- VEGF-C and VEGF-D bind to VEGFR-3 and act on lymphatic endothelial cells to induce the production of lymphatic vessels (lymphangiogenesis).
137
Q

List and describe the functions of the ECM, as well as the two forms of the ECM.

A

Tissue repair and regeneration is dependant not only on the activity of soluble factors such as growth factors but also on interactions between the cell and the components of the extracellular matrix (ECM).

The ECM regulates the growth, proliferation, movement, and differentiation of the cells that live within it, and is continuously being remodeled.

The functions of the ECM include:

- Mechanical support.
- Control of cell growth.
- Maintenance of cell differentiation.
- Scaffolding for tissue renewal: regeneration of a tissue will result in restitution of the normal structure only if the ECM is not damaged; disruption of the ECM leads to collagen deposition and scar formation. 
- Establishment of tissue microenvironments (e.g. basement membranes)
- Storage and presentation of regulatory molecules.

Interstitial matrix: found in spaces between epithelial, endothelial, and smooth muscle cells, as well as in connective tissue; consists mostly of fibrillar and nonfibrillar collagen, elastin, fibronectin, proteoglycans, and hyaluronan.

Basement membranes: associated with cell surfaces, and consist of nonfibrillar collagen (mostly type IV), laminin, heparin sulfate, and proteoglycans.
138
Q

List and describe the key steps of repair by tissue collagen deposition.

A

Formation of a blood clot: The blood clot stops bleeding and serves as a scaffolding for migrating cells, attracted by growth factors, cytokines, and chemokines. Within 24 hours neutrophils appear and release proteolytic enzymes to clean out debris and invading bacteria.

Formation of granulation tissue: Fibroblasts and endothelial cells proliferate in the first 24 to 72 hours to form granulation tissue, which is mesenchymal tissue containing proliferating fibroblasts and new small blood vessels (angiogenesis). The small blood vessels are leaky, resulting in localized edema within the extravascular space. The amount of granulation tissue formed is dependant on the size of the tissue deficit and the intensity of the inflammation (more granulation tissue formed in healing by secondary intention)

Cell proliferation and collagen deposition: Neutrophils are largely replaced by macrophages after 48-96 hours. Macrophages are a key cellular constituent of tissue repair, clearing extracellular debris, fibrin, and other foreign material at the site of repair, and promoting angiogenesis and ECM deposition. Migration of fibroblasts to the site of injury is driven by chemokines, TNF, PDGF, TGF-Beta, and FGF. Fibroblast proliferation is driven by multiple growth factors (PDGF, EGF, TGF-Beta, FGF, and cytokines IL-2 and TNF). Macrophages are the main source for these factors, although other inflammatory cells and platelets also produce them. In 24-48 hours, epithelial cells move from the wound edge, depositing basement membrane material as they move. Collagen fibrils become more abundant, with TGF-Beta serving as the most important fibrogenic agent.

Scar formation: By the second week, the leukocyte infiltrate, edema, and increased vascularity largely disappear. By one month, a connective tissue scar is present, devoid of inflammatory infiltrates, and covered by an intact epidermis.

Wound contraction: Wound contraction is the next event, mediated by myofibroblasts located at the edge of the wound that express smooth muscle alpha-actin and vimentin. This occurs in large wounds, and helps to close the wound.

Connective tissue remodeling: Replacement of the granulation tissue by fibrous tissue (scar) involves changes in the composition of the ECM. The balance of ECM synthesis and degradation results in remodeling of the connective tissue framework. Some of the growth factors that stimulate synthesis of collagen and ECM tissue molecules also modulate the synthesis and activation of metalloproteinases, enzymes that can degrade these ECM components.

Recovery of tensile strength: Net collagen accumulation depends on increased collagen synthesis as well as decreased collagen degradation. After the first week, wound strength of an incisional wound is only 10% that of normal skin; after 3 months or so, wound strength reaches a plateau of about 70-80% of the tensile strength of unwounded skin. Tensile strength results from collagen deposition as well as from structural modification of the collagen (cross linking, increased fiber size).

139
Q

Describe the three stages of wound healing.

A

Inflammation

  • clot formation
  • chemotaxis

Proliferation

  • re-epitheliaization
  • angiogenesis and granulation tissue
  • provisional matrix

Maturation

  • collagen matrix
  • wound contraction
140
Q

List the systemic and local factors that influence wound healing.

A

systemic factors:
Nutrition: protein deficiency, deficiency in vitamin C impair healing

Metabolic status (e.g. diabetes associated microangiopathy impairs healing)

Circulatory status (e.g. impaired blood supply due to arteriosclerosis or venous abnormalities impairs healing)

Hormones such as glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory effects that influence the inflammatory response, as well as inhibit collagen synthesis, resulting in impaired healing in acute wounds

local factors:
Infection (most important factor), delays healing

Mechanical factors can delay healing

Foreign bodies can delay healing

Size, location, and type of wound: wounds in richly vascularized areas heal faster than those in poorly vascularized areas. Small incisional wounds heal faster and with less scar formation than large excisional wounds or wounds caused by blunt trauma.

141
Q

Please note that the last slide prior to the discussion of laboratory testing is quite important, and make sure that you can explain its key points!

A

know this

142
Q

Define accuracy, precision, prevalence, sensitivity, specificity, and predictive value of both positive and negative tests. Explain the effect of prevalence on the predictive value of a positive test.

A

Accuracy: ability of the test to actually measure what it claims to measure correctly.

Precision: ability of the test to reproduce the same result when repeated.

Sensitivity is the probability that an individual with the disease will test positive. It is the number of patients with a positive test who have the disease (true positives) divided by all the patients who have the disease. A test with high sensitivity will not miss many patients who have the disease (low false negative rate).

Specificity is the probability that an individual without the disease will test negative. It is the number of patients who have a negative test and do not have the disease (true negatives) divided by the number of patients who do not have the disease. A test with high specificity will infrequently identify patients as having a disease when they do not (low false positive rate).

Positive predictive value (PPV) refers to the probability that a positive test correctly identifies an individual who actually has the disease. It is calculated from the true positives divided by all who test positive for the disease.

Negative predictive value (NPV) refers to the probability that a negative test correctly identifies an individual who does not have the disease. It is calculated from the true negatives divided by all who test negative for the disease.

Unlike sensitivity and specificity, PPV and NPV are affected by the prevalence of a disease (prevalence is defined as the percent of individuals with the disease in the population being tested). Disease prevalence is the key factor in determining the utility of a test, and the usefulness of a positive test decreases as disease prevalence decreases.

143
Q

marfan syndrome

A

Patients with Marfan syndrome have an inherited defect of fibrillin, resulting in abnormal elastic fibers, manifested by changes in the cardiovascular system (aortic dissection) and the skeleton

144
Q

Describe the substrates, products, and key enzymes of prostaglandin synthesis

A

substrates: arachidonic acid from the diet (in a pinch, it can be synthesized from linoleic or linolenic acids, which are also from the diet. This requires energy)
see slide 16
still trying to work out all the details on this one

145
Q

. Describe how prostaglandins mediate vasodilation and platelet aggregation in normal physiology and in wound response.

A

Healthy vascular endothelial cells release PGI2, which prevents platelet clotting and keeps blood vessels open (vasodilation).

Damage to tissues results in a proteolytic cascade and calcium release which culminates in thrombin activation. Thrombin is a protease which cleaves soluble fibronogen to form fibrin, which polymerizes into a wound covering matrix. When platelets contact thrombin, they release thromboxane A2 (TXA2), which acts as a paracrine and autocrine hormone to induce platelet aggregation and other wound responses.

146
Q

Describe the different functions of sugar modifications to proteins, lipids and other sugars (e.g. to make lactose)

A

Most glycoproteins are secreted, and act as hormones, antibodies, enzymes, extracellular matrix proteins, or mucus.

Some glycoproteins serve as receptors on the cell surface, e.g. antibodies.

Some glycoproteins are lysosomal proteins that function to degrade material that a cell has endocytosed.

Glycolipids are lipids that sit in the membrane with their sugar moieties facing outward. They can serve as antigens, recogition motifs, and receptors.

Glycoproteins are sugar modified proteins. They can either be secreted to the blood or extracellular matrix, sit in a cell’s plasma membrane, or exist in the lysosome.

Proteoglycans are proteins with extensive glycosylation. Proteoglycans are an important part of the extracellular matrix and tissues such as cartilage.

147
Q

eicosanoids overview

A

Prostaglandins:

Synthesized by all cell types

They function as autocrine and paracrine hormones and have a very short half life

They are induced by a broad range of stimuli and mediate a broad range of biological responses.

Thromboxanes:

Synthesized from prostaglandin, most importantly in platelets

Mediate vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation

148
Q

aspirin

A

Its activities against COX-2 explain aspirin’s desirable effects:
anti-inflammatory
pain relief
fever reduction

Its activities against COX-1 explain aspirin’s undesirable side effects:
stomach ulcers

permanently takes out cyclooxygenase

149
Q

ibuprofin

A

inhibits both Coxs, but not permanently

150
Q

acetominofin

A

inhibits both Coxs, but not permanently

151
Q

naproxin

A

inhibits both Coxs, but not permanently

152
Q

anything ending in -coxib

A

inhibits only cox-2, but increased risk of stroke/heart attack

153
Q

corticosteroids (anything ending in -sone)

A

Corticosteroids such as hydroxycortisone, prednisone, and dexamethasone interfere with phospholipase 2 and cyclooxygenase.

This prevents inflammation by blocking the production of both leukotrienes and prostaglandins.

Systemic corticosteroids can be gluconeogenic:

Increase muscle protein breakdown
Increase PEP-CK synthesis

Patients treated with high doses of corticosteroids may develop hyperglycemia.

Inhaled steroids can be used for the treatment of asthma, and have fewer side effects than systemic treatment.

154
Q

drugs that end in -lukast

A

Leukotrienes are important in asthma, and are a new drug target:

Leukotrienes are released by mast cells in response to a (real or perceived) allergen.

Leukotrienes cause bronchoconstriction.

Cys-leukotrienes act as chemoattractants for eosinophils, and cause eosinophil infiltration into the airways.

Drugs which block the CysLT1 receptor can be used in the long term management of asthma; they are not suited for acute asthma attacks.

montelukast (Singulair)

zafirlukast (Accolate)

155
Q

jaundice

A

Neonatal jaundice occurs immediately after birth due to an increase in hemolysis and an immature glucuronate conjugating system.

Hemolytic jaundice can occur if there is excessive red blood cell destruction.

Hepatocellular jaundice can occur if the liver is not functioning, e.g. due to damage from excessive alcohol consumption.

Obstructive jaundice is caused by a disturbance in bile drainage, due to a gallstones or a tumor, e.g.

156
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

A

characterized by early onset mental retardation and motor impairment. It is caused by ganglioside accumulation in neuronal cells.
By 18 months of age, most Tay-Sachs patients are blind, deaf and spastic.
Most die by 3 years of age.
Tay Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease most common in Ashkenazi Jews. 1 in 28 carry the defective gene.
The defective gene is in the α subunit of hexosaminidase. This produces a defective hexosamindase A, the trimer of 1 α and 2 β subunits, which cleaves the N-acetyl-D-galactose bond in gangliosides.

Hexosaminidase B is still active.

157
Q

Sandhoff disease

A

similar to Tay-Sachs, but with an earlier onset. It is characterized by ganglioside and globoside accumulation in neuronal cells.

The defective gene is the β subunit of hexosamindase. This affects the activities of both hexosaminidase A and B, reducing the ability to degrade gangliosides and globosides in lysosomes.

158
Q

Gaucher disease

A

an autosomal recessive defect in β-glucosidase.

The defect results in accumulation of glucocerebreside in brain, liver, bone marrow, and the spleen.

Gaucher disease can be treated effectively with infusions of recombinant β-glucosidase (Imiglucerase).

159
Q

Fabry disease

A

an X linked lysosomal disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of α-galactocerebrosidase A (a.k.a. α-galactosidase).

It is characterized by progressive renal, cardiovascular and cerebrovascular failure caused by accumulation of glucose – galactose – galactose globosides.

Like Gaucher’s disease, Fabry disease can be treated with enzyme replacement therapy (Agalsidase).

160
Q

Interleukins (IL)

A

group of cytokines (signaling molecules) expressed by WBC (leukocytes)

161
Q

Early response to pathogens

A
- trigger innate response:
o flush (fluid extravasation)
o clot (trap particles)
o remove (Neutrophils and Macrophage)
- complement decorates cells and triggers phagocytosis
162
Q

Mast cells

A

are sentinels (important)
- Mast cells – start inflammatory response
- Mast cell coordinates the inflammatory response by three mechanisms:
o direct: TLR
o Fc-recepter mediated: Fc receptor o complement-receptor mediated: CR
- Recognition by TLR; Fc; CR
- responds by IL1/TNF/IL-6
o stimulates acute phase response

163
Q

Neutrophil Extravasation

A
  • CXCL8 – recruits neutrophils o chemokine
  • Neutrophils are continuously contacting the endothelia lining (Marginalization)
  • at sites of inflammation the region expresses additional adhesion molecules (integrins)
  • Neutrophil receives the CXCL8 message to diapedese
  • Neutrophil will follow the chemokine gradient to target the inflammatory site
164
Q

Macrophage direct response

A
  • IL-12 – activates NK cells
    o induces differentiation of CD4 T cells into Th1 cells
  • CXCL8 – recruits neutrophils
  • IL-6 – lymphocyte activation
    o increased antibody production - TNF-a – increased vascular permeability
165
Q

Acute Phase Response

A
  • bacteria induce macrophages to produce IL-6

o acts on hepatocytes to induce synthesis of acute-phase proteins

166
Q

Inflammatory response

A
  • Vasodilation
    o increased blood flow
  • Increased vascular permeability o plasma infusion
  • Emigration of neutrophils o Extravasation
167
Q

Adaptive Immunity

A
  • Capable of virtually recognizing any molecular structure greater then 100 Da
  • Highly efficient clearance
  • Anticipatory
  • Memory
  • Gene recombination
  • Somatic hypermutation
168
Q

Primary Lymphoid Organs

A
  • Location of the niche that houses Lymphoid Progenitor cells
  • Formation of the functional lymphocyte
    o Positive Selection, antigen receptor activation
     manufacture receptors and put on surface
     functional in sense that it recognizes and responds
    o Negative Selection, removal of cells recognizing self tissue
    o only about 1% survive positive and negative selection - Only T-cells can last a lifetime

Bone Marrow
Thymus
Fetal Liver

169
Q

Bone marrow

A

site of hematopoiesis
lymphoid progenitor cells
mature b cells (b2)

170
Q

thymus

A

mature b cells
cd4 t cells (helper)
cd8 t cells (cytotoxic)
cd25 t cells (regulatory)

171
Q

fetal liver

A

“specialized immune cells”
mast cells
astrocytes (bllod brain barrier)

172
Q

Secondary Immune Organs

A
  • Site for lymphocyte education
  • Naïve T cells and mature B cells are match to antigen
  • Site of the Germinal Center
  • T cells differentiate into effector cells
  • B cells differentiate into plasma and memory cells
  • Organs:
    o Lymph Node – drainage from tissue
    o Peyer’s Patch – lining of GI tract
    o Spleen – only things occurring in circulation o Vermiform Appendix
    o Tonsils
173
Q

Dendritic Cell report process

A
- DC take up debris
o Phagocytosis
- DC identifies non-self
o TLRs

- DC “matures”
o Expresses CCR7
- DC is recruited to node
o Follows CCL19 (chemokine DC follows to lymph node)
174
Q

Dendritic Cells

A
  • Dendritic cell matures when exposed to a PAMP
  • immature DC roams through the tissues constantly sampling material
    o packing/repacking MHC class II - PAMP stimulate a change:
    o new chemotactic pattern to seek the lymph node
    o DC change shape (round to stellate)
    o Express high amounts of MHC class II for T cells to sample o Express co-stimulatory molecules (CD80/CD86)
  • Only dendritic cell can activate a naïve T cell
175
Q

Lymphocyte Activation

A
  • DC also provides a signal to control early T cell development o IL-12 – directs development of Th1
    o IL2 autocrine factor – induces proliferation
176
Q

Entry Into and Out of the Node

A
  • Naïve T cells and Mature B cells enter the node
  • Naïve T cells express a selectin (CD62L) that permits entry
    o effector cells don’t have CD62L, so they cannot get into the lymph node - In the presences of a mature DC the T cell is activated (begins producing IL-2)
    o begins in the paracortical area
  • T cells start to proliferate and begin differentiating into Th1, Th2 or Th17
  • Follicular dendritic cells decorated with surface antigen from the inflammatory site begin
    attracting B cells
  • B cells refine Ag affinity by somatic hypermutation, and direct function through class switching
177
Q

Germinal Center

A
  • B-cell selection is controlled by the availability of antigen bound to the surface of the Follicular dendritic cell
  • T cells collect to the area based on the MHC class II expression on the B cells
  • B cells go through a continuous change in antigen receptor binding affinity due to somatic
    hypermutation
  • B-cells remain in the GC only as long as their surface Ig’s continue to bind antigen on the FDC
  • T cells only remain in the region as along as the B cells are present and presenting appropriate
    Antigen on their MHC class II
178
Q

B Cell

A
  • Produce antibodies (secretory and surface)
  • Mature B cells emerges from the bone marrow
  • Visits Secondary Immune organs
  • Screens antigen on the surface of follicular dendritic cells
  • Antigen matched cells differentiate in Germinal Centers
  • Plasma Cells emerge and returns to the bone marrow
  • Resting Mature B cell (B-2 type) expresses IgM and IgD
    o once exposed to antigen the IgD is losed
  • IgM is the product of gene recombinations
  • Isotype switching (IgG, IgA, IgE) does occur to additional recombinations
  • Further changes to the antigen binding region are due to somatic hypermutation