Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Distinguish the unique features of the different classes of ATPases.

A

P class:
Located primarily on Plasma membranes
Are autoPhosphorylated during catalysis
Examples: Na-K ATPase, Ca ATPases
V class:
Located in secretory Vesicles like synaptosomes
Transport H+ into vesicle, multimeric
F class:
Located in mitochondria (and chloroplasts)
Physiologically ATP is Formed (synthesized), multimeric

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2
Q
  1. Distinguish the unique features of the sodium-potassium ATPase
A

o Na+ concentration higher outside cell o K+ concentration higher inside cell
o ATP  ADP
 carrier protein undergoes conformational change
 three Na+ are released on the extracellular side of membrane  two K+ bind
 dephosphorylation causes another conformational change
 K+ ions are released to the intracellular side of membrane
o ions against concentration gradient o 3Na+,2K+,1ATP

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3
Q
  1. Describe the mechanism of ionophores.
A

Ionophores use a hydrophilic inside and a hydrophobic outside to form channels in cells membranes. Can be used as an antibiotic to kill bacteria. An example is Gramicidin!

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4
Q
  1. Explain why ion channels are considered allosteric proteins.
A

Because many can be bound by ligands away from the site of action and have their activity changed

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5
Q
  1. Postulate the mechanism for opening voltage-sensitive channels.
A

There are positively charged alpha helices that move toward the negatively charged side of the membrane when the membrane become depolarized. As they move up, they also move outward a little causing the channel to open

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6
Q
  1. Know examples of transporters that cause a specific human disease when mutation occurs.
A

ABC transport defect in ABCA-1 – Tangier’s Disease - Results in problems with cholesterol and heart attacks early in life

ABC(C7) – Cystic Fibrosis

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7
Q

Define an ABC transporter (features) and the role of specific ABC transporters in drug resistance.

A
  • ABC transporters – transmembrane transporters that utilize the energy of ATP hydrolysis to carry out certain biological processes, including:
    o translocation of various substrates across membranes
    o non-transport-related processes such as translation of RNA and DNA repair - involved in
    o tumor resistance
    o cystic fibrosis
  • patients can develop resistance not only to the drug they’re taking but to several different types
    of drugs
    o increased excretion of the drug from the cell by ABC transporters
    o i.e. ABCB1 protein – functions in pumping tumor suppression drugs out of the cell o confer resistance to most of Topoisomerase I or II inhibitors
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8
Q

LETS LOOK AT GLUTS

A

Glut1 – everywhere – glucose/galactose
Glut 2 – Liver, intestine, kidney - used for uptake and efflux – Gluocse/Gal/Fruc
Glut3 – Neurons – gluc/galac
Glut 4 – fat and muscle – regulated by insulin – ONLY glucose
Glut5 – intestine and sperm – fructose metabolizing tissues – fructose!

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9
Q

What proteins are responsible for driving the cell cycle?

A

Cyclin dependent Kinases (CDK) and cyclins basically run the whole show.

CDK’s must be bound to cyclin and CAK (cdk activating kinase) must phosphorylate CDK’s activating site for CDK be active.
Wee1 can inhibit by phosphorylating an inactivation site, but this can be reversed by Cdc25 phosphatase to activate the Cdk-cyclin complex once more! Hoorah!

Sorry, Cki (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor) can stop the party AGAIN by binding and inhibiting the whole complex. Usually its for a good cause because they have to repair some DNA damage or something

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10
Q

How are positive feedback loops used in cell cycle regulation?

A

Positive feedback loops are used in the mitogen receptor – RAS – MAP kinase – E2F pathway!
Basically what happens is that after g1-CDK is activated its going to activate E2F by phophorylating Rb.
E2F is then going to go on to help transcribe G1/S cyclins and S cyclins. These activated cyclins and CDKs are actually going to positively enhance the activation of E2F again and again! BAM! Positive feedback!

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11
Q
  1. How is S-phase triggered? What are ORCs and pre-RCs? What features of this system control the block to re-replication? Why is overall Cdk activity very low in early G1?
A

ORC’s are origins of replication in eukaryotic DNA. Proteins are there to mark the spot. Pre-replication complexes (pre-RC’s) form at the ORC’s at the beginning of G1 because there is very low CDK activity. S-CDK arrives and triggers S-phase as it phosphorylates in order to degrade and inactivate Cdc6 and Cdt1. These proteins will stay phosphorylated throughout the rest of the cell-cycle, keeping S-phase from reoccurring because they can’t form the pre-RC whole phosphorylation keeps them inactive.

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12
Q
  1. How does growth factor signaling and the MAP kinase pathway function in the regulation of cell division? What are early and late response genes (and what are some examples of each)? What is the mechanism of pRb inhibition of the E2F family of transcription factors, and what releases this inhibition? How is G1-Cdk activity shut off?
A

So basically growth factor comes in and binds to the receptor which activates Ras. Ras activates MAP kinase, which does a phosphorylation thing and then activates Myc, a gene regulatory protein which helps cyclin D to be expressed. This then activates the CDK

CDK goes on to phosphorylate and remove Rb from E2F. E2F will go on to help transcribe a bunch of G1/S and S cyclins that will continue to positively feedback more cyclins and finally enter into S-phase with DNA synthesis.

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13
Q
  1. What are cell cycle checkpoints?
A

G1 Checkpoint

  • Is environment favorable?
  • Enter S phase!

G2 Checkpoint

  • Is all DNA replicated?
  • Is environment favorable?
  • Enter Mitosis!

Metaphase Checkpoint

  • Are all chromosomes attached to the spindle?
  • Exit Mitosis!
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14
Q

What are the main molecules involved in sensing and transducing DNA damage into cell cycle arrest

A

DNA damage aactivates ATM kinase, which activates Chk1/Chk2.
Chk1/Chk2 activate p53 by phosphorylation.
P53 then binds to the regulatory region of the p21 gene and transcribes/translates p21
P21 is a CDK inhibitor, so this inactivates the CDK and arrests cell cycle until the damage is taken care of.

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15
Q
  1. Use your knowledge of electrochemical gradients and equilibrium potentials to determine a cell’s resting membrane potential, and be able to determine the direction of flow for Na+, K+ and Cl- for any value of Vm.
A

K+ is -88 mV (-83 is hyperkalemia)
Na+ is +60 mV
Cl- is -61 mV

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16
Q
  1. Apply Ohm’s law to cells
A

V=IR or I=VC

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17
Q
  1. List normal values for intra- and extra-cellular concentrations of the primary electrolytes
A
Intra/extra
Na: 10/140
K: 150/4
Ca: .0001/1
Cl: 20/100
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18
Q

Calculate equilibrium potentials by using the Nernst equation

A

Nernst Equation = (61/z) x ([]out/[]in)

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19
Q
  1. What are the major pathways that regulate and execute apoptosis?
A

Two types of signals are commonly associated with induction of apoptosis: specific signaling events at the cell surface, and cytoplasmic/nuclear damage. Signaling events trigger the extrinsic apoptotic pathway, and cell damage triggers the intrinsic apoptotic pathway.

A number of different triggers and conditions can lead cells to initiate apoptosis. Typically, the net result of these signals is the activation of a set of proteases that are responsible for the destruction of the cell. These proteases are called caspases, so named due to their function as cysteine-aspartic acid proteases.

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20
Q

Compare extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of apoptosis

A

Extrinsic:
Activated by signaling events
-Ligands – binds and activate members of TNF (tumor necrosis factor) family,
-Receptors – integral proteins of TNF family, Form trimmers, create a DISC (death-inducing signaling complex) scaffold when bound to recruit caspases
-Capsases – activate after associating with DISCs, effector caspases then destroy cytoskeletal, nuclear, and regulatory proteins

Intrinsic:
This pathway is set off by DNA damage or cell stress. (heat shock, UV, starvation, ROS, ER stress, cytosketetal perturbation
Important thing that happens is mitochondrial dysfunction, causing cytochrome C to be realeased and cause the formation fo the apoptosome

The apoptosome is formed wen released cytochrome-C associated with Apaf1. This structure forms a scaffold similar to the DISC in the extrinsic pathway. You still get the initator and then effector caspases bidning to it doing their thing.

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21
Q

How is cell stress transduced into apoptosis

A

Cell stresses act through p53. P53 has the ability to send the cell into cycle arrest or apoptosis once it is activated. Arf removes mdm2 to activate p53.

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22
Q

How do cell survival pathways function?

A

Apparently to survive, most cells need to receive continuous signaling in order to suppress apoptosis. Regulation of signals or competition for survivial factors is used to remove tissue in embryonic development
Survival factors allow cell to keep producing anti-apoptotic protein Bcl-2
Viral proteins can use survival factors to their advantage. Ike inhibiting the apoptotic abilities of BAX – whoa! Keeps virus from dying before it wants to!

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23
Q

What is the significance of how Bcl-2 functions as an oncogene?

A

Bcl-2 inhibits autophagosome creation. Bcl-2 also prevents apoptosis. The ratio of Bcl-2 to BAX helps determine this. The more Bcl-2 there is compared to BAX, the less likely it will apoptose.

Tumor cells interact with neighboring cells. They send signals to fibroblasts telling them to autophage. Lactate and pyruvate are released by the autophaging cells and used for growth and proliferation by the cancer cells! Because so many mitochondria are lost from fibroblast in this process, they have to use glycolysis a lot for energy, which is where the reverse Warburg effect comes from.

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24
Q

What is the “Reverse Warburg Effect?”

A

Warburg effect is when tumors use glucose preferentially, but still don’t get much energy from oxidative phosphorylation. Reverse Warburg effect is when cells surrounding the tumor are actually using more glucose and making less oxidative phosphorylation energy as well!

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25
Q

Trace the biosynthesis of NO

A
  • Acetylcholine released by nerve terminals in the blood vessel wall activates NO synthase in endothelial cells lining the blood vessel
  • causes the endothelial cells to produce NO
  • NO diffuses out of the endothelial cells and into the underlying smooth muscle cells
  • binds to and activates guanylyl cyclase – produces cyclic GMP
  • cGMP triggers a response that causes the smooth muscle cells to relax
  • enhances blood flow through the blood vessel
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26
Q

Identify common neurotransmitters, hormones, growth factors, and gaseous signal molecules.

A

NTs – histamine, ACh GABA
Hormones – cortisol, estradiol, glucagon, insulin, testosterone
GF’s – EGF, PDGF, NGF
Gaseous – NO, CO, H2S

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27
Q

Identify the three main classes of cell-surface receptors.

A

Ion channel receptors
Receptors that are kinases, or bind kinases
Heptahelical or G-protein-coupled receptors

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28
Q

Describe G proteins and their function in membrane events.

A

Basically their membrane surface protein is bound by a signal.
This binding will activate the alpha/beta/epsilon subunits by exchanging a GDP for GTP.
These subunits can then go on to activate a host of different signal cascades
(adenylyl cyclase, cAMP, directly opening channels, IP3 and DAG creation, Ca release)

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29
Q

Describe the source of cAMP and other second messengers.

A
  • Adenylyl Cyclase – converts ATPcAMP
    o AC – second messenger – released when g protein binds receptor
  • diacylglycerol, phosphatidyl inositol, Ca2+
    o PLC – breaks down phospholipid (phosphatidyl inositol bisphosphate)
     DAG and IP3 – second messengers o IP3 – migrates to ER (high calcium content)
     causes release of Ca
     activates PKC
    o DAG – can further bind/activate PKC
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30
Q

Trace the intracellular events leading to activation of nuclear transcription via protein kinase A.

A
Signal binds GPCR receptor.
G subunit activated by GTP
G subunit activates phospholipase C
PLC cleaves PIP2 to form DAG and IP3
IP3 acts on ER channel to release Ca++
Ca++ and DAG together activate Protein Kinase C
Wow.
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31
Q

Know the function of the ryanodine receptor and its association with malignant hyperthermia.

A

Ryanodine receptors mediate the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, an essential step in muscle contraction.
Ryanodine receptors are very close to mitochondria and calcium release from RyR has been shown to regulate ATP production in heart and pancreas cells.

Use Ca++ or IP3 to stimulate Ca release! Woo! Positive feedback!
If it gets too crazy without stopping then you can get malignant hyperthermia, which is bad. This comes about de to a mutation in the recptor along with anesthesia use. Too much ATP is being hydrolyzed and creates heat.

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32
Q

Describe the activity of calmodulin.

A

Calmodulin is a calcium-binding messenger protein expressed in all eukaryotic cells. CaM is a multifunctional intermediate messenger protein that transduces calcium signals by binding calcium ions and then modifying its interactions with various target proteins.

Acts in crucial processes such as inflammation, metabolism, apoptosis, smooth muscle contraction, intracellular movement, short-term and long-term memory, and the immune response

33
Q

Identify the locations of PIP2, IP3 and PIP3.

A
  • PIP2 – on cellular membrane
  • IP3 – migrates to ER (high calcium content)
    o causes release of Ca2+
    o activates PKC
  • PIP3 – on cellular membrane
34
Q

What regulates the lysis of RBCs, and how does this change during Plasmodium vivax infection?

A

RBCs have aquaporins and need them normally to function. The parasite regulates osmotic gradient to control the diffusion of water. The “bugs” will eat the hemoglobin to keep the concentration gradient lower until the cell needs to lyse.

35
Q

What is the normal resting membrane potential of an RBC, and what channels/transporters are responsible for generating it?

A

a. Resting membrane potential : -15mV (or -7mV as calculated)
i. Under normal circumstances, Na and K channels do not affect membrane potential and ion regulation is through Cl
b. What channels/transporters are responsible?
. Na+/K+ ATPases (neutral sort of - favors Na+ efflux ⇒ resting membrane potential would be ~ 5 - 12mV)
i. Cl- ion channels (allows Cl- in or out ⇒ at Rev point ⇒ -8mV)
1. together these channels would produce a resting potential of about ~15mV

36
Q

What happens to K+ and Na+ flow in RBCs during malaria infection, and what happens to the RMP as a result?

A
  1. Cl influx transporter (normal)
  2. Initially, increase in K+ flow out, increase in Cl out → cell hyperpolarizes
  3. Increase in Na flow into the cell (decreasing the membrane potential), influx of Cl into the cell > changes osmotic gradient > water flows in > cell lyses
37
Q

Be able to compare the kinds of information the following types of microscopes are useful for: light (bright field) microscope; transmission electron microscope; scanning electron microscope; polarizing microscope; phase and interference microscopes; fluorescence microscope; confocal scanning microscope.

A
  1. Light (bright field) microscope – routine laboratory microscope used for studying tissue sections
  2. Transmission electron microscope (TEM) – used to study cytology or internal structures of cells; study of electron micrographs
  3. Scanning electron microscope (SEM) –used to study the surface features of cells and tissues; obtain a 3-dimensional picture of the tissue
  4. Polarizing microscope – permits one to determine whether biological materials have different refractive indices along different optical axes
  5. Phase microscope – used to study living tissue; works on principal of different refractive indices of cellular and sub-cellular components
  6. Interference microscope – a modification of the phase microscope used for the study of living tissue
  7. Fluorescence microscope – uses UV light as the light source; used to examine the presence of fluorescent material in tissue sections
  8. Confocal scanning microscope – uses a laser energy beam; used to optically section a cell and with the appropriate computer equipment can reconstruct a 3-D image of the cell
38
Q

Be able to explain the process of tissue preparation for bright field microscopy starting from the time a piece of living tissue is removed from its host.

A
  1. Fixation
    a. Purpose: to preserve tissue morphology and chemical composition.
    Accomplished by rendering tissue insoluble by precipitating proteins and carbohydrates (stabilizes the structure)
    b. Commonly used fixatives: 10% buffered formalin, glutaraldehyde, alcohol, osmic acid
  2. Dehydration
    a. Purpose: to remove water from tissues so that tissue is miscible with clearing agent
    b. Alcohols commonly used as dehydrating agents
  3. Clearing
    a. Purpose: to replace alcohol with an agent miscible with paraffin
    b. Toluene, xylene, benzene
  4. Infiltration and embedding
    a. Purpose to replace clearing agent with embedding material
    b. Paraffin, methacrylate, celloidin, gelatin
  5. Sectioning
    a. Purpose: to produce thin sections through which light will pass. Paraffin sections cut from 5-7 μm thick
    b. Done on an instrument known as a microtome
  6. Staining
    a. Purpose: to impart color to a tissue
    b. Hematoxylin and eosin (H & E)
39
Q

Be able to explain the difference between an acidic and basic stain. Be able to differentiate between acidophilic and basophilic tissues.

A

A basic dye has the chromophore in the cation; thus the dye has a + charge
Hematoxylin (blue to purple stain)

A basophilic
substance is a tissue component that has an affinity for a basic dye; thus it has a net – charge

An acid dye has the chromophore in the anion; thus the dye has a - charge
Eosin (red to pink stain)

An acidophilic substance is a tissue component that has an affinity for an acid dye; thus it has a + charge

40
Q

Other stains and staining techniques

A
  1. Trichrome stain
    a. a stain for connective tissue (collagen) rather than cells
    b. e.g., Masson’s, Mallory’s
  2. Elastic stains
    a. a stain for the elastic fibers or elastic tissue in connective tissue
    b. e.g., aldehyde fuchsin; orcein; resorcin-fuchsin
  3. Silver impregnation stains
    a. a stain for reticular fibers in connective tissue; also used in staining cells of the central nervous system
    b. connective tissue fibers love silver (argyrophilic) and stain black
  4. Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) stains
    a. Feulgen staining reaction – for DNA
     DNA 		
    
                      leukofuchsin		aldehyde-Schiff
                     (Schiff reagent)		product (colored) 
  5. Carbohydrate (e.g., glycogen)
    a. Periodic acid-Schiff reaction (PAS)
  6. Fats
    a. Oil red O (stains fats red) and Sudan black (stains fats black) commonly used
    b. soluble in both alcohol and fats
41
Q

What are germ cells called prior to meiosis, after the first meiotic division, and after the second meiotic division?

A

Called primary spermatocytes/oocytes prior to meiosis 1
Called secondary spermatocytes/oocytes after meiosis 1
Called spermatids/ mature eggs after meiosis 2

42
Q
  1. What are the two ways genetic diversity is generated in meiosis?
A

1) Independent assortment

2) Homologous recombination (crossing over)

43
Q

In what ways is prophase I of meiosis unique?

A

Prophase 1 in meiosis is unique because homologous chromosomes are paired and can cross over to transfer genetic material in order to increase genetic diversity. They basically just swap genetic material n their arms.

44
Q
  1. What is nondisjunction? Monosomy? Trisomy? At what stages of meiosis can nondisjunction occur? Can nondisjunction occur in mitosis?
A

Nondisjunction is the problematic event that can occur in anaphase 1 or anaphase 2 of meiosis. Instead of separating the homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids evenly between daughter cells, one cell gets both. This can create problems where an individual has only one instead of two chromosomes (monosomy) or 3 (trisomy). Nondisjucntion could occur in mitosis, but I don’t think it as common…

45
Q

How are genotypes usually denoted? How would you denote the genotype of a normal male? Of a Down’s syndrome female?

A

Genotypes are denoted by the number of chromosomes then the sex chromosomes. A (+) or (-) is added to denote additional or missing chromsomes
Normal male = 46, XY

Down Syndrome Female = 47, XX, +21

Turner’s Syndrome = 45, X

46
Q
  1. What are the functional steps and molecular mechanisms of fertilization
A

Capacitation: sperm are capacitated as they travel through the female repro tract. They undergo glycoprotein and lipid contant changes to help them bind to oocyte.

Acrosomal Reaction: The sperm binds to the oocyte on special recptors that actually release Ca++ . This Ca++ influx actually causes the acrosome to be exocytosed. The acrosome is like a specialized lysosome that can release its contents to digest the zona pelucida (the outer glycoprotein layer, just inside the surrounding follicle cells) Once that is digested the sperm can enter the plasma membrane!

Fusion and Slow Block: After the gametes fuse, it appears that free Ca++ is released to cause cortical granules just inside the plasma membrane to release their contents outside surrounding the cell. This is a slow block mechanism because the contents of the cortical granules harden the membrane and block the sperm attachment mechanisms.

The First Cell cycle:
After completing Metaphase 2 the female pronucleus forms
Female and Male prouclei migrate and converge toward egg’s center
S- phase of first mitotic division occurs
Prophase begins – chromosomes condense, the pronuclear envlopes break down
Paternal and Maternal chromsomes mingle on metaphase plate, anaphase follows, daughter nuclei contain new genome of mom’s and dad’s genes. WHOA! That’s awesome.

47
Q
  1. Approximately how many sperm are present in a normal ejaculate? Roughly what fraction of human sperm in an ejaculate are motile? Morphologically normal? What are the lower limits of sperm concentration considered to be acceptable for normal fertility? Approximately how many reach the ovulated oocyte in the ampulla of the oviduct?
A

40-200 million sperm released with each ejaculation, 65% motile, 50% morphologically motile, less than 10-20million/ml could be problematic.

48
Q

Define IVF-ET

A

IVF-ET (or In Vitro Fertilization-Embryo Transfer). Eggs and sperm are combined in a petri dish and allowed to undergo fertilization. Success of fertilization is monitored microscopically, by the appearance of two pronuclei and subsequent cleavage. The embryos are then replaced into the fallopian tube or uterus. ZIFT: zygote intrafallopian transfer.

49
Q

Define GIFT

A

GIFT (or Gamete IntraFallopian Transfer). A few (1 - 4 eggs) and about 100,000 sperm collected via swim-up are placed directly into the fallopian tube, usually about 1.5 cm into the ampulla. Initial route for this procedure was abdominal, but recently, ultrasound-guided transvaginal delivery by catheter has been successfully used (as well as to collect eggs from mature follicles).

50
Q

Define SUZI

A

SUZI (or Sub-Zonal Insemination). In this procedure, 2 - 10 sperm are injected with a micropipette directly into the peri-vitelline space of the oocyte (i.e., between the zona pellucida and the oocyte plasma membrane). Fertilization is then monitored and the zygotes or embryos replaced in the uterus or fallopian tube. Many types of suboptimal sperm are unable to traverse the zona pellucida of the egg; this method allows these sperm access to the oocyte. A related technique is “zonal drilling.” Here, part of the zona is digested by an acid (pH 2.5) solution squirted from the end of a micropipette to create a zona-free area, allowing suboptimal sperm easier access to the egg surface.

51
Q

Define ICSI

A

ICSI (or Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection). A single sperm is placed into a micropipette and microinjected directly into the egg cytoplasm. Sperm does not have to be motile, and may not even have to be alive!! Can be very effective in severe cases of male factor infertility, but technically demanding. Formation of two pronuclei is monitored, and zygote/embryo transferred to uterus/fallopian tube.

52
Q
  1. Be able to list the 4 (four) major types of tissues in the body. Which of these 4 basic tissue types has major subdivisions?
A
Epithelium
Connective Tissues
(connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone, and blood)
Nervous
Muscle
53
Q

Tight Junction – Zonula Occludens

A
  • Use occludins and cloudens which is very unique, don’t fit any category
  • Membranes are very close and almost appear fused
  • like a six-pack of coke
  • blocks material from going around a cell
54
Q

Belt Desmosome - Zonula Adherens

A
  • Use cadherins
  • Cadherins interact extracellularly with cadherins in adjacent cells – intracellularly connected by proteins to actin filaments in the cell
  • wraps around enter cell
55
Q

Desmosome - Macula Adherens

A
  • They use intermediate filaments!
  • Use cadherins (desmogleiins, desmocollins) attached to int. filaments through a plaque
  • Pemphigus vulgaris = autoimmune disease that targets desmogleins (bad blistering!)
56
Q

Hemidesmosome

A
  • connect cell to extracellular matrix – inside to intermediate filaments
  • use integrins in extracellular matrix, proteins in between, to intermediate filaments in the cytosol
  • Bullous pemphigoid – autoimmune disease that targets hemidesmosome proteins – will cause blistering and A LOT of fluid in the lamina lucida, dermal/epidermal junction
57
Q

Gap Junction – Nexus

A

Connexons composed of 6 subunits, 2 connexons form a channel between the two adjacent cells

58
Q

Basement Membrane:

A

– Basal lamina
• Lamina lucida: contains laminin and entactin
• Lamina densa: contains type IV collagen sandwiched by the proteoglycan perlecan that contains many heparan sulfate side chains
– Reticular lamina
• Several collagen types

59
Q

Microvilli

A

– microscopic projection surrounded by cell membranes
– create a lot oc extra surface area
– microfilaments (ACTIN) make up the core
– good for absorption

60
Q

Stereocilia

A
  • very long microvilli
  • found in male repro system and hair cells of organ of corti
  • non-motile, just for increased surface area
61
Q

Acinus

A

a cluster of cells resembling a cluster of berries, seen in exocrine glands

62
Q

Exocrine

A
  • Apocrine : Portion of the secreting cell is lost dung secretion
  • Holocrine – entire cell disintegrates in order to secrete its substances
  • Merocrine – cell secretes substances through exocytosis
  • Categories of secretions from exocrine glands:

o Serous – watery, protein rich product
o Mucous – viscous, carb-rich product (mucus man!)
o Demilune – produces both serous and mucous secretions

63
Q
  1. Be able to explain what a myoepithelial cell is.
A

Basically myoepithelial cells are true epithelial cells the happen to contain alpha smooth muscle actin. This allows them to contract and help glands secrete their contents.
Pretty smooth…

64
Q

Collagenous fibers

A
Structure:
- comprised of small fibrils
o aligned in parallel o irregular
o flexible
o inelastic
o forms gelatin in boiling water
o stain with acid dyes (collagen has a slight positive charge) - cross-banding

Chemical composition:
- tropocollagen macromolecule
o consists of three chains of polypeptides
 alpha-chains
 triple helix held together by hydrogen bonds - polymerization of tropocollagen molecules into fibrils
o types of collagen:
 I – ordinary connective tissue (both loose & dense) and bone (when in doubt,
guess type I)
 II – hyaline cartilage
 III – loose connective tissue; blood vessel wall; dermis; placenta  IV – basement membranes

65
Q

Reticular fibers – Type III Collagen

A

Structure:
- narrower than other collagen
- tend to branch, forming delicate networks
- staining characteristics:
o argyrophilic: blacken with silver impregnation staining techniques o PAS lots of sugar incorporated with reticular fibers
Chemical Composition:
- more carbohydrate than other collagen types
o responsible for the PAS+ reaction
Function: supporting mesh in lymphatic system and soft tissues Origin: fibroblasts

66
Q

Elastic Fibers

A
Structure:
- thinner than collagen fibers
- elastic
- branch freely
- may be fenestrated (e.g., in arteries) (openings/holes in the tissue)
- two distinct components:
o microfibrillar component (fibrillin-1)
o amorphous component (elastin)
- no cross-banding
- easily stretched; breaking point occurs at 150% of original length
Chemical Composition:
- elastin (the amorphous component) o two unusual amino acids
 desmosine and isodesmosine
 important in the extracellular polymerization of elastin - fibrillin-1 (microfibrillar component)
Function:
- component of:
o connective tissue
o blood vessels o vocal cords
Origin: fibroblasts; smooth muscle cells
67
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A
  • all sugars – repeating disaccharide units
  • non-sulfated:
    o hyaluronic acid
     very viscous in aqueous solution
     acts as a physical barrier to bacterial invasion
     presentinsynovialfluidofjoints;goodlubricatingproperties
68
Q

Be able to explain why fibronectin and other adhesive glycoproteins are such important molecules in the ECM (extracellular matrix).

A

Adhesive glycoproteins are important organizers of the ECM. They are capable of binding many things. Fibronectin – most abundant glycoprotein in connective tissue
Laminin – confined to basement membranes and external laminae

69
Q

Fibroblasts

A

most common cell type in loose connective tissue Structure:
- Active Cell:
o large, somewhat flattened ovoid, with branching processes o distinct nucleolus
o basophilic cytoplasm (phosphate groups (- charge))
- Inactive Cell:
o smaller/less distinct
Function:
- production of fibers (collagenous; elastic; reticular)
- production of amorphous intercellular substance (ground substance) Disturbances of collagen metabolism:
- scurvy – vitamin C deficiency
- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome – short stature, hypermobility, stretchable skin
- osteogenesis imperfect – brittle bone disease

70
Q

Macrophage

A

common in loose connective tissue Structure:
- irregularly shaped cells with blunt processes
- cytoplasm stains lightly – may contain few a granules and vacuoles
- when a macrophage is active, it becomes readily identifiable
o cell gets bigger with a larger nucleus & nucleolus
o many granules/vacuoles
- numbers increase in regions of inflammation
- transformation of monocytes from blood that have migrated to region (monocyte 
macrophage)
Function:
- Phagocytosis
o cells engulf cellular remains – formation of phagosome
o phagosomes are combined with primary lysosomes to produce secondary lysosomes
- Formation of foreign body giant cells
o result of fusion of large numbers of macrophages o multinucleated
- membranes have Fc receptors and C3 (complement)
- process antigens and presents (displays) them to helper CD4 T lymphocytes
o frequently called antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

71
Q

Mast Cell

A

Structure:
- large, ovoid cells
- nucleus
o small, ovoid
- numerous cytoplasmic granules
o granules are basophilic
o metachromatic staining with toluidine blue 0 (blue to red color)
Origin: Mesenchymal-like cells (e.g., the pericyte) Function:
- 2 important substances
o heparin (30% of content) – gives cell its staining properties
o histamine (10% of content)
 causes smooth muscle of bronchi to contract (bronchoconstrictor)  dilates blood capillaries (vasodilator)
- anaphylaxis
o o
IgE
occurs when host receives an antigenic insult a second time Sequence of events (first and last steps)
 antibodies formed as a result of the initial insult attach to Fc (IgE) receptors on surface of mast cells

antigens introduced at time of subsequent insult attach to antibodies on surface of mast cells
 stimulates degranulation and release of histamine
 histaminevasodilation and increased capillary permeability

72
Q

Plasma Cells

A

not particularly common in connective tissue under normal circumstances - exceptions:
o lamina propria of digestive tract o greater omentum
o reticular connective tissues of blood-forming organs
Structure:
- Nucleus
o spherical and eccentrically placed
o “wagon-wheel” appearance - Cytoplasm – dark
o very basophilic (massive amount of ER (phosphate groups)) o Golgi zone – not basophilic – lighter zone
Origin: B-lymphocytes Function:
- production of humoral antibodies (circulating immunoglobulins)
Disturbances
- hyperglobulinemia – excess circulating antibodies o high concentrations of plasma cells
- agammaglobulinemia – complete failure of antibody synthesis
- multiple myeloma – neoplasm of plasma cells

73
Q

Neutrophil

A
present at inflammation
- ameboid
Structure:
- multilobed nucleus
- granular cytoplasm
Function:
- first line of cellular defense against invasion by microorganisms
o actively phagocytic
74
Q

Eosinophil

A

ameboid
Structure:
- bilobed nucleus
- numerous large, granules
Function:
- increase in numbers in parasitic infections, allergic hypersensitivity (asthma & hay fever) and late stages of inflammatory responses
- appear to be attracted to antibody - antigen complexes,
o destroy immune complexes
- may play role in control of local responses in allergic reactions

75
Q

Lymphocyte

A

increases at inflammation sites
- ameboid Structure:
- dark staining nucleus occupies majority of cell
- thin rim of cytoplasm
Function:
- T-lymphocytes
o initiate cell-mediated immune responses
- B-lymphocytes
o function is related to humoral (antibody-mediated) immune responses
- Natural Killer (NK) lymphocytes

76
Q

Loose (areolar) connective tissue

A
  • irregularly arranged
  • spaces” (areolae) due to ground substances
    constituents:
  • cells – fibroblasts and macrophages are the most common
  • fibers – collagenous
  • amorphous ground substance
77
Q

Dense Connective Tissue

A
  • irregular
    o constituent fibers irregularly arranged (no specific orientation) o components:
     fibers – coarse collagenous fibers predominate
     cells – fibroblasts and macrophages are primary cell types  ground substance
  • regular
    o collagenous or elastic fibers are lined up in parallel arrays
    o predominantly collagenous o predominantly elastic
78
Q

Reticular connective tissue

A
  • provides a fibrillar network in lymphoid tissues (lymph nodes, spleen) and bone marrow
  • components:
    o reticular cells
    o produce reticular fibers