Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the adrenal cortex synthesize?

A

Two classes of hormone corticosteroids (glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids) & androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are mineralocorticoids?

A

Electrolyte-balance regulating e.g. aldosterone which regulates K+ and Na+ levels in the distal tubules of the kidney, causing them to absorb more sodium and water from the urine… therefore more potassium is secreted in exchange

** stimulates H+ secretion in the collecting duct, regulating plasma bicarbonate and acid/base balance

* can also act on the CNS via the posterior pituitary gland to release ADH- conserves water by direct actions on renal tubular resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

* essential for survival in a fasting animal

* cortisol is a glucocorticoid that affects carbohydrate and protein metabolism

* Protects glucose dependent tissues e.g. brain & heart

* Increases plasma glucose by enhancing mobilizaton of amino acids from proteins in many tissues

* Enhances the ability of the liver to convert these amino acids and glycerol into glucose by activating gluconeogenesis and to store glucose as glycogen

* In the periphery, glucocorticoids diminish glucose utilization and uptake, activate lipolysis, and increase protein breakdown

* Targets most body tissues, including CNS, bone, skin, liver, fat, and muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an example of an androgen precusor and function?

A

dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)- converted to testosterone and estradiol in peripheral tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex and each function?

A
  1. Zona glomerulosa- produces aldosterone
  2. Zona fasiculata- produces cortisol and androgens
  3. Zona reticularis- produces cortisol and androgens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What regulates glucocorticoid secretion?

A

Regulated via hypothalamus- pituitary axis- CRH & ACTH

* CRH is released as a consequence of hypoglycaemia, stress, physical trauma, hypoxia, ADH, infection and diurnal secretion (dogs and cats episodic release)

** CRH binds cell surface receptors on corticotrophs and via G proteins and cAMP releases ACTH from the anterior pituitary

** Feedback inhibition– cortisol inhibits pituitary and hypothalamus. ACTH inhibits neuronal cells in the hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are adrenocortical hormones transported and removed?

A

* Transported in the blood bound to globulin (trancortin) and albumin. 90% of glucocorticoids are bound to protein and have a relatively long half life ~60-90 minutes

* Inactivated by the liver, conjugated with sulphates and glucuronides- decreasing their ability to bind to blood proteins and makes them more water soluble- for excretion in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the steroid mechanism of action?

A

* Cortisol and aldosterone bind to glucocorticoid receptor (GR) or mineral corticoid receptors (MR) in the cytoplasm that translocate to the nucleus and modulates transcription in multiple tissues after hormonal binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are metabolic actions of glucocorticoids?

A

* Defence against hypocalcaemia: raise blood glucose by increasing liver output of glucose

  • decrease utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose tissue
  • promotes gluconeogenesis (by inducing synthesis of enzymes)
  • promotes proteolysis and inhibits protein synthesis to free up amino acids for gluconeogenesis
  • liver synthesis of enzymes involved in the metabolism of amino acids- facilitating conversion to carbohydrates
  • In muscle facilitating break down of muscle protein therefore providing amino acid substrate to the circulation and to the liver

* Mobilization of fat from subcutaneous adipose tissue

* Enhance release of glucagon from pancreas alpha cells

* Antagonizes the action of insulin on muscle and adipose tissue

* cortisol must be present for catecholamines to stimulate hormone sensitive lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glucocorticoids and inflammation

A

* inhibit PGs and Leukotriene production (from endothelial cells, macrophages, mast cells, etc.)

* decrease release of pro-inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha)

* Reduces IL-2 production therefore inhibiting lymphocyte proliferation

* Reduced proliferation of fibroblast- therefore slow wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Cushing’s Disease?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

* Excess secretion of corticosteroids due to:

  • pituitary tumour (85% of cases) over secreting ACTH- normally have two large adrenal glands
  • Adrenal tumour
  • excess administration of cortico-steroids (iatrogenic) (cortisone = cortisol, predinisone 4 x cortisol, dexamethasone 30 x cortisol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the symptom’s of Cushing’s Disease?

A

* Bulging sagging (pot-bellied) belly

* muscle weakness, loss of muscle mass

* Hair loss and thinning of skin

* weak bones

* bruising

* polyphagia

* PU/PD

* poor wound healing

* Weight gain or redistribution of fat

* susceptibility to infections particularly bladder

* exercise intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are about 10-20% of dogs with Cushing’s Disease also Diabetic?

A

* Glucocorticoids decrease utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose tissue and lower sensitivity of these tissues to insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

* Insufficiency of adrenocortical hormones

* Rare- autoimmune disease

* Signs: lethargy, weakness, dehydration, collapse

* Low plasma Na+, increased K+, increased BUN (blood urea nitrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete? What is the medulla?

A

* catecholamines: adrenalin and noradrenalin (short half life 10-15 seconds- up to 90% of catecholamines removed from blood on single passage)

* medulla is a modified ganglion- a component of the sympathetic NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the major stimuli of the adrenal medulla? How?

A

* hypoglycaemia, stress, and exercise

* Stimulation of nicotinic ACh receptors opens Ca2+ ion channels on chromaffin cells that produces a localized depolarization and entrance of Ca2+ resulting in exocytosis of adrenaline and noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where and from what are adrenalin and noradrenalin synthesized?

A

Chromaffin cells

* Tyrosine, dopa, dopamine, noradrenalin, adrenalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the functions of adrenoceptors?

A

alpha- 1: increased vascular smooth muscle contraction, mydriasis (constricts radial muscle)

alpha-2: muscle relaxation, sedation, and analgesia (effects on CNS), hypertension, vasoconstriction of arteries to the heart

Beta 1: heart and kidney- increased force cardiac contraction and heart rate, renin release

Beta 2: bronchodilation by relaxation of smooth muscles in bronchi, uterine muscle relaxation, liver- glucose metabolism, smooth muscle relaxation

Beta 3: enhanced lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Metabolic actions of adrenalin

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where do large emobli tend to become trapped in the brain? Why are venous occlusions uncommon in the brain?

A

* Leptomeningeal vessels (where they divide into perpendicular branches)

*at the grey-white matter junction

* venous occlusions are rare because verebral veins are abundant and have many anastamoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is diploe?

A

Spongy bone present between two layers of compact bone in the parietal, occipital, and temporal bones of the skull– one of the ways the skull can absorb considerable shock forces (cranial sutures help too and the internal bony ridges of the skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the factors that influence the consequences of skull trauma?

A

Physical rigidity of bone (age, nutrition, presence of metabolic disease), mass, velocity, and direction of the applied force, the ability of the impacted tissues to move in response to the applied force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is cerebral trauma often fatal?

A

Due to the confined space of the cranial cavity. Normally only a narrow space separating the brain from the dura mater. If ICP increases, cerebral structures such as the medulla oblongata and the cerebellar vermis may herniate caudally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clinical signs of increased ICP

A

Aniscoria, mydriasis (pupillary dilation), non-responsive pupils, dull mentation, or altered state of consciousness, rigid paresis, abnormal respiration pattern, bradycardia, and coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the adenohypophysis? What 3 parts does the adenohypophysis consist of?

A

Adenohypophysis- anterior lobe of the pituitary

  1. pas distalis- bulk of endocrine cells which secrete trophic hormones
  2. pas tuberalis- endocrine cells– mainly acts as a scaffold for the portal blood vessels coursing from the median eminence to the pas distalis
  3. pars intermedia- junction between the pas distalis and the pars nervosa and contains endocrine cells (separated by a cleft- not in horse- the residual lumen of Rathke’s pouch)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the neurohypophysis?

A

* Posterior lobe of the pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are acidophils?

A

* secretory endocrine cells of the adenohypophysis– secretory granules stain red with H& E

* somatotrophs= cells secreting growth hormone (somatotropin)

* luteotrophs= cells secreting luteotropic hormone (LTH) (prolactin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are basophils in the adenohypophysis?

A

Secretory granules stain blue with H& E stain

* gonadotrophs= cells secreting luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

* thyrotrophs= cells secreting thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are chromophobes?

A

* secretory endocrine cells of the adenohypophysis– not discernible with H& E stain

* Corticotrophs= cell secreting adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

* melanotrophs= cells secreting melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

* degranulated acidophils and basophils

* undifferentiated stem cells

* non-secretory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the endocrine cells of the adenohyphophysis under control of?

A

Corresponding releasing hormone derived fro neurons of the hypothalamus by neurosecretion

* the releasing hormones are transported along the axonal processes of the secretory neurons to the median eminence–> release into capillaries–> transport by blood vessels of the pituitary protal system–> target endocrine cells in the adenohypophysis which rapidly release their secretory granules into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the control of most pituitary trophic hormones?

A

Negative feedback control achieved by the blood concentration of the hormone produced by the target endocrine glands e.g. thyroxine from the thyroid glands, cortisol from the adrenal cortices, oestrogen or progesterone from the ovaries, androgens from the testes, etc.

** negative feedback is exerted either on the hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons or on the adenohypophyseal trophic hormone secreting cells or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do GH, prolactin (LTH), and MSH stimulate secretion of a hormone?

A

NOT by acting on target endocrine organs but by means of releasing inhibitory hormones produced by hypothalamic neurons.

* dopamine is the main releasing factor for prolactin (LTH)

* somatostatin is the main release inhibiting factor for GH (somatostatin is also produced by pancreatic islet cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are supraoptic nuclei?

A

Neurons of these nuclei in the hypothalamus synthesise antidiuretic hormone (ADH; vasopressin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are paraventricular nuclei?

A

Neurons of these nuclei in the hypothalamus synthesise oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is ADH secreted into general circulation?

A

* ADH and its corresponding binding protein (neurophysin I) are packaged into neurosecretory granules and transported to the pars nervosa of the pituitary gland by axonal processes of the hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons; the axons terminate on fenestrated capillaries in the pars nervosa, permitting release of ADH directly into general circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the function of ADH?

A

Acts on distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys to cause water resorption from the glomerular filtrate and hence increased urine concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the function of oxytocin?

A

Contraction of smooth muscle fibres in the uterus and myoepithelial cells in mammary tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three parts of the neurohypophysis?

A
  1. median eminence: site where axons of the hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons release hypothalamic releasing hormones/ factors into capillaries to influence the endocrine cells of the adenohypophysis
  2. infundibular stalk= pituitary stalk: composed on non-myelinated axonal processes from the hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei… joins the pars nervosa to the overlying hypothalamus
  3. pars nervosa- contains numerous capillaries which are termination sites for the axonal processes of the hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons producing oxytocin and ADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
A

pituitary gland (arrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A

Later term human foetal brains in which there has been failure of successful differenation of the prosencephalon into derivative structures (holoprosencephaly= prosencephalic hypoplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
A

Cyclopia- most severe expression of holoprosencephalon (excessive wool growth reflects prolonged gestation due to partial or complete failure of development of the hypothalamus and/or posterior pituitary. Therefore a delay in or complete absence of the foetal cortisol surge which triggers the parturition process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
A

Veratrum californicum (lamb’s bane, skunk cabbage)- steroidal alkaloids induce holoprosencephaly in foetal lambs if their dams consume the plant between days 9 and 14 of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
A

Foetal calf with cessation of growth and development at approximately 7 months of gestation due to hypoplasia of the adenohypophysis and hence inadequate pituitary tropic hormone production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
A

Cauliflower saltwort in Africa- last 50 days of pregnancy may have parturition delayed by 10-20 days, possibly by inhibition of release of foetal hypothalamic releasing hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Development of the pituitary gland

A

* down growth of neuroectodermal tissue from diencephalon
- gives rise to posterior pituitary… has to grow ventrally and make contact with organ up growth (ectodermal tissue from the oropharynx)– ultimately when it joins up and matures–> gives rise to anterior pituitary—> eventually separated from oropharyngeal ectoderm because bone forms (sphenoid bone).

* Rathke’s pouch refers to the up growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Arrow? What can happen if this stays open?

A

A residual cleft (arrows) that is the remnant of the embryonic Rathke’s pouch detectable microscopically. If Rathke’s pouch stays open–> PITUITARY CYST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
A

Pituitary cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
A

Pituitary cyst– gradually enlarges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Litter mates.
What’s the problem? What are the causes?

A

Pituitary Dwarfism- over represented in German Shepherds. Autosomal recessive. Inadequate growth hormone. Usually becomes apparent from approximately 2 months of age.

** pituitary cyst, craniopharyngioma (ectodermal remnants of Rathke’s pouch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
A

Pituitary abscess in a calf – purulent exudate tracking along the ventral floor of the cranial vault to the foramen magnum

** grass awns tracking along the optic nerve from the orbit or circle of willis or bacteria can ascend from superficial skin infections along the deep valveless veins of the face into the cranial vault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Non-functional tumours of the pituitary

A

Space occupying- compression of surrounding structures.

Visual deficits, central blindness, pupillary dilation issues, trigeminal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of hypothalamic pituitary disorders?

A

* example: infertility due to not enough FSH/ LH produced

* obesity: polyphagic- pressing on appetite and satiety centers

* space occupying mass in a tight space = neurological signs due to ICP

* OR pituitary cachexia can also occur due to lack of growth hormone

59
Q
A

pituitary macroadenoma in a dog

60
Q
A

Functional pituitary tumours- Pars distalis (sometimes pars intermedia)

* in the pars distalis can get really big– easily compress CNs

* Producing too much ACTH will cause bilaterally enlarged adrenal cortices– overproducing cortisol– therefore hyperadrenocorticoid

61
Q
A

Cushing’s Disease (tumour) vs. Cushing’s Syndrome (iatrogenic due to corticosteroids)

62
Q
A

Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)

** EXCESS pro-OLMC precursor produced by chromaphobe cells of the tumours in horses– serum cortisol and ACTH concentrations are only mildly increased or NORMAL–

* polyphagia, PU/PD, weight gain (pot-bellied), docility/ sleepiness, failure of seasonal shedding of the hair coat, excessive sweating, chronic recurrent laminitis

* due to compression of the hypothalamus by a tumour

63
Q

Clinical presentation of PPID

A
64
Q
A

* less peripheral effects, but issues with sphenoid bone (lysis) and compression of overlying structures

65
Q

Acromegaly due to development of the functional acidophil tumour of the pituitary

A

* visual effects, polyphagia, PU/PD, eventually become diabetic because they are eating more–> pancreas produces more insulin–> insulin resistant diabetes

66
Q

Where do the adrenal cortex and medulla derive from? What is the ratio?

A
67
Q

What parts of the adrenal gland secrete what?

A

Salt, sugar, sex–> the deeper you go, the sweeter it gets

68
Q

With cortisol and aldosterone, which has to do with the pituitary?

A

Cortisol

69
Q

What happens with adrenal agenesis?

A

* Bilateral= lethal… no mineralcorticoids so severe electrolyte and fluid imbalances…

Unilateral= clinically normal

70
Q
A

Amyloid deposition or adrenal mineralization

71
Q

Why is adrenal haemorrhage common?

A

Thin walled- so susceptible to haemorrhage especially horses who have died on the race track.

* neonates who have been “squeezed out”

* DIC

* septicaemia (if they survive, they can end up with adrenal insufficiency- rare)

72
Q
A

Adrenal haemorrhage

73
Q
A

Adrenalitis- common, sequestered from the immune system to some extent

** autoimmune disease as well- common in dogs

74
Q

What are the two most common drugs causing adrenal toxicity?

A
75
Q
A
76
Q
A
77
Q

Nodular hyperplasia vs. adenoma

A

Hyperplasia is a normal response, whereas adenomas have abnormal stimulus

78
Q
A
79
Q
A
80
Q

Cushing’s Disease- what are the four forms?

A

* hyperadrenocorticism- excess cortisol

* (Atypical hyperadrenocoricism (show clinical features, but do not actually secrete excess cortisol)- possibly due to androgens and oestrogens)

  1. Pituitary dependent: Functional tumour in the anterior pituitary- continually produces ACTH because there is no feedback to the anterior pituitary, unresponsive to cortisol feedback
  2. Adrenal Dependent: adrenal neoplasm secretes excess cortisol independent of ACTH
  3. Iatrogenic: corticosteroids
  4. Ectopic ACTH secretion- paraneoplastic syndrome producing ACTH- often a tumor e.g. lung tumour
81
Q

What is Conn’s Disease?

A

Hyperaldosteronism

82
Q
A
83
Q
A
84
Q
A
85
Q
A
86
Q
A
87
Q

Signs and symptoms of Hyperadrenocorticism

A
88
Q
A

Calcinosus cutis

89
Q

Where are the two feedback mechanism with the HPAA axis?

A

* Cortisol on the Hypothalamus and pituitary

90
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism in cats signs and symptoms

A
91
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism in horses or pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)?

A
92
Q

What are haematology findings with Hyperadrenocorticism (HyperA)?

A

Persistent stress leukogram

93
Q

Why lymphopenia in a stress leukogram?

A

Sequestration of lymphocytes in nodes, spleen, and bone marrow

* lysis of thymic cortical lymphocytes and uncommitted lymphotes

94
Q

Why a mature neutrophilia in a stress leukogram? Monocytosis? Eosinopenia?

A

Increased marrow release from storage pool, decreased emigration from tissues. Shift from marginating–> to circulating pool

** monocytosis also from marginating pool to circulating pool

**inhibition of marrow release and inhibition of IL-5 production

95
Q

Biochem findings with HyperA

A

* Elevated Liver enzymes

  • elevated ALP (cholestasis- hepatocyte swelling (glycogen))
  • elevated GGT (cholestasis)
  • elevated ALT +/- AST: hepatocyte damage

* Hypercholestraemia (increase in hormone sensitive lipase mobilizing fat in some parts of the body)

* Lipaemia- hypertriglyceridaemia

*Hyperglycaemiainsulin- antagonism (increased gluconeogenesis increased glucagon release; decreased GLUT-4 transporters)

* Low TT4

* Mild elevation in urea (pre renal azotaemia)

96
Q

Routine urinalysis findings with HyperA

A

(UTI prone due to suppressed immune system)

97
Q

Testing Options for HyperA

A

** keeping in mind stressed animals at the vets may have abnormal levels – overdiagnosed

98
Q

Urinary cortisol- creatinine ratio (UCCR)

A

* highly sensitive test- will detect almost all cases

* poor specificity (23%)- UCCR elevated with stress or illness

* test two free catch morning samples collected at home (to minimize stress)

*rule out test, not a confirmatory test ***

* Normal dogs UCCR < 17.5

99
Q

Low dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST)

A

Measure levels before and after giving exogenous corticosteroids… if they have pituitary dependent hyperA or adrenal dependent hyperA… normal dog SHOULD SUPPRESS PRODUCTION for about 8 hours… Why do we do a 3 and 8 hours?? To differentiate between pituitary dependent PDH and adrenal dependent….

* high sensitivity (95%)– most dogs will be detected with this test!! Problem is: normal stress (drive to produce cortisol is overriding the feedback mechanism****)

* Moderate specificity (44-73%)

* adrenal tumours show lack of suppression

* pituitary dependant hyperA (PDH) can show partial suppression (75%) or no suppression (25%)

* Partial or no suppression with stress

100
Q

What is the unique thing about horses interpreting overnight DST?

A
101
Q

ACTH stim test

A

Stimulates adrenal glands to make more cortisol. Depending on the size of the adrenal gland, it will depend on how the animal will respond. Great big= respond more than an animal with smaller.

** more false negatives– lower sensitivity than LDDST BUT not as many false positives

** does not differentiate PDH from ADH

102
Q

How does the ACTH stim test work?

A

Give ACTH– pump out cortisol from large adrenal glands.

With ADH– give ACTH– stimulates greater production of cortisol from the mass AND from the normal tissue.

FEEDBACK DOES NOT WORK in either PDH or ADH

103
Q

With iatrogenic hyperA, what happens?

A

Atrophy of adrenal glands.

104
Q

WHat is meant by equivocal in the ACTH stim test?

A

* not high enough to diagnose hyperA

105
Q

Which test is best for hyperA?

A

Large dog- LDDST (unless overly nervous)

Small dog- ACTH stim test (if nervous)

* also depend on owner finances, how long clinic is open for e.g. the second, 8 hour sample, LDDST might be better if no access to ultrasound to help localize

106
Q

High Dose Dexamethasone Suppression test

A

Uncommon these days

* sampling at 4 and 8 hours

* with Adrenal tumours fail to suppress

* PDH show suppression in most cases (70%)

107
Q

Endogenous ACTH

A

* can measure– PDH problem… ACTH will be high… if adrenal tumour– then low ACTH

*PPID have high levels- beware of seasonal variation

* Labile, special collection and handling procedures

108
Q

Adrenal imaging as a localizing test

A

* dogs with PDH will have bilateral adrenal enlargement

* dogs with adrenal tumours will have one large adrenal and one small adrenal gland (atrophied)

* imaging of pituitary gland to identify mass

109
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism major DDX

A

“the great pretender”

* renal insufficiency

* urinary obstruction

* GIT disease

* hypercalcaemia of malignancy

110
Q

Clinical signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease?

A

Vague signs.

* Weakness and lethargy

* vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain

* collapse

* bradycardia (hyperkalaemia)

* PU/PD

*dehyrdation

* tremors/shaking

* GIT haemorrhage

* often waxing and waning signs

111
Q

Causes of Hypoadrenocorticism

A

* Primary adrenal gland failure

*failure of ACTH secretion

* iatrogenic (sudden withdrawal from corticosteroids)

* critical illness–> relative adrenal insufficiency (transient/ reversible) (adrenal crisis)

112
Q

Haematological findings with Addison’s disease in dogs

A

* lack of stress lymphopenia but they are sick!! (may be the only sign you have)

113
Q

Biochem findings with Addison’s Disease

A
114
Q

How do you test for Addison’s Disease?

A

** may run a basal cortisol level** (exclusion test, not confirmatory)

115
Q

What hormone is produced by the parathyroid? What is its function?

A

parathyroid hormone by the chief cell

Regulates serum calcium and phosphorous levels. Acts to increase serum Ca levels by enhancing absorption from the GIT and mobilization from bone as well as limiting excretion in the urine. Serum phosphorous levels are also affected in that they decline due to increased excretion in the urine. The parathyroid cells are sensitive to serum Ca levels, decreasing serum Ca levels stimulates the release of parathormone.

116
Q

What is the eosinophilic material contained within the follicles of the thyroid?

A

Colloid- which is the storage form of thyroid hormone.
Colloid is a glycoprotein called
thyroglobulin, the storage or intermediary form of thyroid hormone

117
Q

What hormones are produced by the follicular cells? Parafollicular cells?

A

Follicles: thyroxine (thyroid hormone or T4)

Parafollicular cells: calcitonin (thyrocalcitonin)

** thyroglobulin (storage form of thyroxin (T4))- is iodonated in the lumen– and synthesizes thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)– which are then released into circulation. Influence metabolic rate!!

118
Q
A
119
Q

What are the hormones that are released from the pars nervosa?

A

Oxytocin and ADH (peptide hormones).

** synthesized in the cell bodies of the supraoptic nucleus (ADH) and paraventricular nuclei (oxytocin) of the hypothalamus

120
Q

How does MSH travel from the pars nervosa into the blood stream?

A
121
Q

What hormone is synthesized by the pars intermedia?

A

In the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary)

The main cell type- melanotrope is a large pale staining cell with submicroscopic granules (MSH)– function is to produce intermedin (MSH or melanocyte stimulating hormone) which acts to increase pigmentation and may play a role in controlling body cyclic rhythms e.g. reproductive cycles

122
Q

What hormones does the medulla produce?

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine– stimulated by the sympathetic NS under stressful conditions.

123
Q

What is the chemical nature of the hormones of the cortex?

A

Aldosterone (zona glomerulosa) & glucocorticoid hormones e.g. cortisol (zona fasciculata)…. steroid hormones- cholesterol & lipids

124
Q

What cell organelle and cytoplasmic inclusion characterize cells producing hormones of this chemical nature?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (sER),
mitochondria, Golgi apparatus and lipid
droplets.

125
Q

What is the peak time of concentration in blood of thiopentone?

A

2 seconds (brain is the same)

126
Q

As blood and brain concentration fall, where has the drug gone?

A

Muscle and fat

127
Q

Effect of a reduction in fat comparment on speed of decline of blood and brain concentrations?

A

Slower decline with a single bolus.

128
Q

What evidence is there for hepatic clearance of thiopentone ??

A

None it is just traveling through the liver– no break down whatsoever.

129
Q

Which drug concentration falls the fastest with thiopentone after you stop adding boluses? Why is this so?

A

Muscle.

130
Q

What happens with thiopentone with multiple boluses?

A

Stored in fat. Roller coaster curve but slightly increasing over time.

131
Q

What consequences can you predict from this data for administration of multiple “top up” doses during anaesthesia using thipentone?

A

Using smaller doses due to the additive effect as well as if you want it to clear faster. Fat vs. thin. Fat dog bigger hang over. Thin dog stays asleep longer. Not as safe as alfaxan.

132
Q

What is the time of the peak concentration in blood of alfaxalone?

A

2 seconds, brain peaks closest to it

133
Q

What is the half life of elimination of alfaxan in time units?

A

5.9 seconds

134
Q

As blood and brain concentration falls– where has the drug gone? Reduction in fat compartment effect??

A

Drug is simply excreted after metabolized by the liver. No effect on speed of decline with a reduction in fat compartment.

135
Q

What evidence is there for hepatic clearance of alfaxan?

A

Liver is clearing- as in the hepatic vein there is less than half as compared to the hepatic artery.

136
Q

When giving IV alfaxan, what consequences can you predict from top up doses? When giving as an infusion, what is the time to steady state concentration? What does this mean for protocol for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia with alfaxan?

A

* you give it the opportunity to clear with top up doses– but perhaps it would not keep the patient anaesthetized

* infusion- 28.7 seconds to steady state vs. 1.7 seconds– so we are giving a smaller concentration with infusion (perhaps additive?)

** you would give an induction agent, so you wouldn’t have 30 seconds to go under… or come out if you don’t give the right (dose?) for infusion

137
Q

In a patient with liver impairment, what would the new half life of alfaxan?

A

8.7 vs. 5.9 seconds in a normal patient with normal liver function

138
Q

What would you see with an LDDST with PDT? Why?

A

Partial or no suppression at 4 hours- then kicking up again at 8 hours

**Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid not detected by the cortisol assay that causes suppression of CRH and ACTH release, leading to a marked decrease in cortisol release from adrenal glands. In normal dogs, this suppression lasts 8 hours– but in a pituitary dependent hyperA dog– the excess secretion of ACTH causes marked adrenal gland enlargement (cortical hyperplasia) and hence greater release of cortisol… and with the LDDST we will see either no suppression (total loss of normal negative feedback of pituitary adenoma continues to release ACTH, so cortisol levels do not significantly fall)– same response as in adrenal tumours (25% of PDH cases), OR early escape from suppression– lowers it but cortisol levels rebounded by 8 hours, OR partial suppression of CRH and ACTH release- leading to a mild decrease in cortisol release from the adrenal glands… they do not fall below 30 nmol/L

139
Q

What will you see with LDDST with ADH? Why?

A

Failure to suppress. Due to a functional tumour of the adrenal glands pumping out cortisol without the requirement for ACTH release. Typically ACTH levels in these dogs are extremely low…. so the negative feedback mechanism has no effect.

140
Q
A
141
Q

What would you see in the ACTH stim test with hyperadrenocorticism? Why?

A

** Normal dogs stimulated with ACTH– < 470 nmol/L after one hour

** HyperA dogs >550 nmol/L

** Equivocal (a little high but not high enough to know for sure) 470-550 nmol/L

You are not trying to differentiate. Better used on small dogs. Big dogs are more likely to have ADH if they have hyperA. More false negatives, but less false positives.

142
Q

When is high dose dexamethasone suppression test used? What would you see with PDH? ADH?

A

Localizing the lesion BUT not often used anymore

* PDH- most dogs show suppression (70%)

* ADH- most dogs show no suppression

(difference between this and low dose- teases out some of the animals on the fence)

143
Q

Other than imagining and high dose dex test, what is the other option for localizing hyperA? What about horses? Iatrogenic cases?

A

* Endogenous ACTH

* dogs with PDH have normal to high levels of enogenous ACTH

* dogs with ADH have very low levels

* Horses with PPID– have high levels of ACTH (but beware of seasonal variation)

* Iatrogenic hyperA cases have very low levels

144
Q

How do you test for Addison’s Disease?

A

Primary adrenal gland failure or Iatrogenic (sudden withdrawal)

** Haematology- lack of stress leukogram in a sick dog

** Biochemistry- low sodium, high potassium, low glucose, high calcium, azotaemia