Week 4 - Perioperative evaluation, patient prep, and post-operative care Flashcards

1
Q

PRE-OPERATIVE ASSESSMENT
• Consider it as ___-___ planning
• Provides a solid _____ for the surgical procedure
• Gives _______ physiologic data for the patient
• Facilities assessment of ______ and the ________ to the surgery

A

pre-surgical, foundation, baseline, disease, relevance

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2
Q

PRE-OPERATIVE EVALUATION OF
THE PATIENT
• _____ communication and owner _____
• WITH _______!
• Thorough _____ [including medications/supplements]
• Physical ______
• ______ restriction [whenever possible]
• _______ data
• Determination of surgical ___ [____ status]
• Patient _______
• Pre-surgical ______

A

Client, consent, SIGNATURES, history, examination, Dietary, Laboratory, risk, ASA, Stabilization, medications

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3
Q

CLIENT COMMUNICATION

• Extremely important
• Prior to surgery owner should be informed about?

A

• Diagnosis
• Prognosis
• Surgical options
• Non-surgical options
• Potential complications *
• Post-operative care
• Cost = low and high end of the bill

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4
Q

HISTORY

• Regardless of the procedure, make sure you’re aware of previous _______ _____.
• Usually obtained from the _____ or _____.
• In an emergency, a _____ history is usually given [eventually a ______ history is obtained]
• ______ history vs. _____ history
• Should always include – ?

A

medical history, owner, caregiver, brief, thorough, General, Specific, signalment, diet, exercise, past medical problems/surgery, any recent treatment

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5
Q

PRE-OPERATIVE EXAM [PE]
• Determines if the patient is ______ enough to safely undergo _______ and _____
• _______ evaluation of all body systems
• Evaluation of ___-______ physical status
• Patients general body _______ should be noted
• _____ condition, ______, and ______ status
• Ensure thorough _______ evaluation and ____ function assessment
• Rule out a heart _____ or abnormal ______
• +/- Full ____ and _____ examination
• Remember to check ____
• Looking for ______ or ______.

A

healthy, anesthesia, surgery, Systematic, pre-anesthetic, condition, Body, attitude, mental, cardiac, lung, murmur, arrythmia, neuro, ortho, kennel, diarrhea, vomiting

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6
Q

DIETARY RESTRICTIONS
• _____
• Withhold food for ___-____ hours ____ to surgery [pending patient status]
• Continue to offer ____
• _______ Animals [ie: dogs, cats, swine]
• Fast ___-____ hours prior
• ______ [ie: cattle, sheep, goats]
• Fast ~___-___ hours prior
• _____ and _____ [includes mice, rats, guinea pigs, hamsters]
• High ______ rate
• ____ fasting prior
• ______ Animals [<8 weeks of age; <1 lb]
• _______ concerns –> leads to ?
• Do not ______ water
• Withhold food ___-___ hours prior to anesthetic event

A

NPO, 6 – 12, prior, water, Monogastric, 6-12, Ruminants, 12 – 24, Rodents, Rabbits, metabolic, No, Underage, Hypoglycemia, seizures, withhold, 1 – 2

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7
Q

PRE-OPERATIVE BLOODWORK
• Depends on the animal’s physical status and the procedure being performed
• Elective or routine procedure
• Emergency
• Reduces risk and increases safety
• Provides a baseline for the patient
• Takes into account patient’s behavior
• Normal bloodwork è Proceed with surgery
• Abnormal bloodworkè Workup and/or treat prior to anesthesia vs. emergency surgery

A
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8
Q

PRE-OPERATIVE BLOODWORK
• Ideally routine bloodwork completed before any procedure
• Patients undergoing elective procedure [~6 months – 4 years]
• Hematocrit [PCV]
• Total Protein [TP]
• +/- Limited biochemical and urine screening [BUN, Creatinine, USG]
• Mature adults [5 – 7 years]
• Complete blood count [CBC]
• Comprehensive serum biochemistry profile [Chemistry Panel]
• Urinalysis
• 8+ years
• Complete blood count [CBC]
• Comprehensive serum biochemistry profile [Chemistry Panel]
• Urinalysis
• Thyroid Panel [minimum T4]
• Additional Testing
• Coagulation function test, especially for patients with liver disease, maldigestion disorders,
NSAID usage, and breed predisposition

A
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9
Q

BLOODWORK FOR
LARGE ANIMAL
• Indicated for horses based on age and systemic
status
• Horses younger than 4 years old and healthy
• Packed cell volume [PCV]
• Total Protein
• Horses greater than 4 years old and systemically ill
• Complete blood count [CBC]
• Chemistry Panel
• Electrolyte measurement for right-sided abomasal
disease of the dairy cow
• Urinalysis in the dairy cow to evaluate the presence
of ketosis
• Measurement of BUN [blood urea nitrogen] and
Creatinine, if urinary problems are suspected
• Analysis of peritoneal fluid prior to laparotomy for
horses with colic

A
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10
Q

Important b/c we want to classify the patient prior to surgery so we know the likelihood of a patient having a cardiac emergency. We number it from 1-5.
If 5, make sure anesthesiologist is with you.
Higher the number, greater risk of anesthetic or surgical complications.

A
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11
Q

PATIENT STABILIZATION
• Patients should be ______ as thoroughly as possible before surgery
• Correct fluid ____
• Stable dehydrated open ____ patient (make sure patient does not have skin infection)
• Correct ____-____ and ____ abnormalities
• Treat underlying ______

A

stabilized, deficits, pyometra, acid-base, electrolyte, infection

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12
Q

PRE-OPERATIVE MEDICATIONS
• Maropitant [Cerenia] – 1mg/kg ___ minutes – ____ hour before pre-medications
• Reduces ______, especially if using _____
• May have __-_____ properties
• Potential ______ recovery from gas anesthesia and hasten
return to eating
• Pre-medication – Many different variations and combinations
• Dexmedetomidine/Butorphanol
• Midazolam
• Diazepam
• Hydromorphone = notorious for causing nausea and vomiting,
so make sure you have antiemetic prior to administering.
• Methadone
• Ketamine
• Pre-emptive analgesia
• NSAID [Carprofen, Meloxicam]
• Local Anesthetic [Lidocaine, Bupivacaine]
• Opioids
• +/- Antibiotics [ie: Cefazolin]

A

45, 1, vomiting, Hydromorphone, anti-inflammatory, smoother

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13
Q

EXCRETIONS
• Allow patient to urinate and defecate prior to induction
• Abdominal Surgery
• Empty bladder
• Colonic Surgery
• +/- Enema
• Bladder Distention
• Could lead to a rough recovery

A
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14
Q

REASONS TO DELAY SURGERY
• High Fever
• Rule out _____
• Recent _______ Signs [24 – 48 hours]
• Pyoderma = ?
• Infection
• Urinary Tract Infection [URI]
• CIRDC = ?
• Sick
• Uncontrolled ______
• Uncontrolled ______
• In heat = ?

A

stress, Gastrointestinal, skin infection, canine infectious respiratory disease complex aka kennel cough, Diabetic, Hyperthyroid, always try to reschedule it b/c there is an increased chance of complications b/c tissues are swollen and more friable.

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15
Q

*****HALSTED’S SURGICAL PRINCIPALS
• Strict _____
• ________
• Preservation of _____ supply [accurate anatomical _______]
• _____ tissue handling and manipulation
• Avoid excess _____ on tissue during wound ____
• Accurate tissue _______ in wound closure
• Elimination of _____ space

A

asepsis, Hemostasis, blood, dissection, Gentle, tension, closure, apposition, dead

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16
Q

Tips to reduce risk of surgical site infection

A
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17
Q

WOUND/SURGICAL CLASSIFICATION

A

• Clean
• Clean-Contaminated
• Contaminated
• Dirty

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18
Q

CLEAN WOUND/SURGERY
• Involving non-_______, non-_______, and non-______ surgical site
• _______, ____, and _______ tract not entered
• Examples ?

A

contaminated, traumatic, inflamed, Gastrointestinal, urinary, respiratory,
• Neuter/Ovariohysterectomy
• Arthrotomy for removal of a chip fracture of a carpal bone
• Elective orthopedic surgery
• Total hip replacement
• PDA

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19
Q

CLEAN-CONTAMINATED WOUND/SURGERY
• Operative wounds/surgery in which the _______, _____, and _______ tract is entered, under ______ conditions without ____ contamination
• Examples ?

A

gastrointestinal, urinary, respiratory, controlled, unusual
• Abomasopexy [displaced abomasum in dairy cows]
• Enterotomy [foreign body removal] **not every foreign body surgery is clean contaminated
• Small Intestinal Resection
• Bronchoscopy

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20
Q

CONTAMINATED
WOUND/SURGERY
• Surgery where gastrointestinal contents or infected urine spill into an open
cavity
• Examples:
• Cystotomy with spillage of infected urine
• Bile spillage during a Cholecystectomy
• Surgery where major break in aseptic technique occurred
• Open, fresh, accidental wounds
• Lacerations

A
21
Q

DIRTY WOUND/SURGERY
• Old traumatic wounds with purulent discharge
• Devitalized tissue
• Surgery where a hallow organ is perforated or fecal contamination occurs
• Gross spillage of contaminated body contents
• Examples:
• Septic peritonitis
• Rupture/perforated intestines, gallbladder, or pyometra
• Abscess

A
22
Q

SURGERY SITE INFECTIONS [SSI]
• Infection that occurs in the skin +/- ______ tissue at a surgical site within ____ days of the surgical procedure
• Endogenous _______ ____ are common culprits
• ___________ _____
• ___________ spp.
• _______ wound or incision site with ______

A

subcutaneous, 30, microbial flora, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococci, Inflamed, discharge

23
Q

SURGICAL SITE PREP: CLIPPING HAIR
• Should take place in the ______ room
• ______/______ prep area
• Performed under ________
• Clip hair and _______ over propose surgical field
• Initial clipping should be done ____ the hair growth pattern
• Subsequent clipping should be ______ the pattern of hair
growth to obtain a ____ clip
• Use a number __ blade
• Avoid razor ____
• Express _______

A

preparation, Anesthesia, surgical, anesthesia, vacuum, with, against, closer, 40, burn, bladder

24
Q

Disinfectants and Antiseptic

A
25
Q

SURGICAL SITE PREP: SKIN PREP
• Aseptic surgical site prep [location = OR]
• Select appropriate antiseptic solution
• ________ ___% scrub – most commonly used
• ________-______ ___% scrub – _____ and some ______
procedures
• Alcohol based ________ – follow manufacturer’s instructions
• Aseptic preparation based on _____ time with antiseptic
• Minimum ___-minute contact time!
• Exception when using _____-based antiseptics
• Remember – ___ minutes for PVI when using it as a _______

A

Chlorhexidine, 4, Povidone-iodine, 10, periocular, orthopedic, antiseptic, contact, 5, alcohol, 15, sporicidal

26
Q

SURGICAL SITE PREP:
SKIN PREPARATION
• Takes place in the OR
• If skin is very dirty – perform an initial scrub
• 3 additional scrubs performed
• Common combination is chlorhexidine and alternating with alcohol
• Scrub at incision site, near center, and move outwards in a circular fashion

A
27
Q

SKIN PREPARATION GOALS
• Reduce resident skin flora to prevent infection
• Achieve residual antiseptic activity
• It is NOT possible to completely sterilize the skin

A
28
Q

PATIENT POSITIONING
• Vital for effective surgical procedure
• Positioning dependent on the procedure
• Dorsal recumbency
• Sternal recumbency
• Lateral recumbency
• Prep area
• Heat source
• +/- trough

A
29
Q

FLUID THERAPY
• Intraoperative fluid therapy helps restore and
maintain tissue fluid, as well as electrolyte
homeostasis and central euvolemia
• 10 – 15 mL/kg/hour of crystalloid fluids
• Lower rate (5 mL/kg/hour) may be used for healthy
patients undergoing less invasive elective procedures
• Fluid losses
• Large abdominal and thoracic incisions have much
larger evaporative losses
• Prewarming fluids

A
30
Q

DRAPING
• Creates and maintains a sterile field around operative site
• Occurs after patient has been positioned on OR table and skin has been
prepped
• Performed by a gowned and gloved surgical team member
• Draping options:
• 4 corner drape
• Pre-made fenestrated drape
• Making fenestrated drape

A
31
Q

DRAPING CONTINUED…
• Orthopedic procedures on limbs
• Free-draping technique
• Limb is suspended using IV stand with
foot enclosed in a clean latex glove
• Vet wrap is used over the glove to
help secure the foot with adhesive
tape to the IV stand
• Triangle of drapes are placed
around base of limb

A
32
Q

DRAPING
• Minor procedures [ie: lumpectomy[
• Small fenestrated drape is sufficient
• Spay and neuter
• Small fenestrated drape if sufficient
• Tail amputation

A
33
Q

PREOPERATIVE MONITORING
ALLOWS:
• Adequate anesthesia
• Adequate analgesia
• Adequate immobilization
• Early notice of trends, which may develop into life threatening conditions

A
34
Q

PERIOPERATIVE ANTIBIOTICS
• If surgical sites are properly prepped, patients with healthy immune systems
should be able to resist infection by most surface contaminants
• Perioperative antibiotics are recommended in patients receiving an
implantable device, undergoing prolonged (³90 minutes) surgery, or
undergoing a contaminated procedure
• “Clean Surgery” does not require on-going antibiotic therapy unless there is a
break in sterile technique
• For patients, the risk of infection is increased when antibiotics are given
incorrectly
• Example: At the wrong time or using the wrong dose

A
35
Q

PERIOPERATIVE ANTIBIOTICS
CONTINUED…
• If perioperative antibiotics are given, it should be administered within 1 hour
before the first incisions
• Ensure peak blood and tissue concentrations are reached before the incision is
made
• Re-administered antibiotics every 90 – 120 minutes during anesthesia
• Based on the half-life of the antibiotic chosen
• Prophylactic antibiotics should be discontinued within 24 hours after surgery
• Obtaining cytology is the gold standard for any antibiotic selection

A
36
Q

EXAMPLES OF WHEN TO USE
ANTIBIOTICS
• General Procedures:
• Treatment of severely contaminated or traumatized wounds
• Implants [ie: Mesh, bone plate, pacemaker]
• Respiratory Procedures:
• Resection of infected lung
• Gastrointestinal Procedures:
• Enterotomy with necrotic segment
• Pancreatic abscess

A
37
Q

SURGICAL SITE CLOSURE
• Suture vs. Staples
• Keeps the skin margins closed
• Good skin apposition
• Evaluate incision healing prior to removal
• Normal removal time is 10 – 14 days later

A
38
Q

MAINTAINING STERILITY BEFORE
AND DURING SURGERY
• Proper gowning and gloving
• Surgery team member should face the sterile field
• Back of gown is not considered sterile
• Do not touch or lean over a non-sterile area
• Arms and hands should remain above waist level and below shoulder level
• Arms should not be folded
• Clasp in front of body [above waist]
• Sleeves should be considered sterile from 2 inches above the elbow to the
stockinette cuff

A
39
Q

POST-OPERATIVE CARE
• Aid healing
• Minimizes risk of additional corrective surgeries
• Speeds recovery
• Vital to a successful surgery outcome

A
40
Q

IMMEDIATE POST-OP CARE:
ANESTHETIC RECOVERY
• Move patient to a warm, dry area and monitor vital signs every 15 minutes
until patient is sternal
• Keep patient is sternal recumbency during recovery
• Turn side to side frequently to prevent pooling of fluid in recumbent side
• Remove endotracheal tube when swallowing/chewing aka when they get their gag reflex back.
• Prevents regurgitation and vomiting. w/o gag reflex, aspiration pneumonia results
• Do not return to kennel until able to maintain body temperature and hold
itself in sternal position

A
41
Q

IN HOSPITAL POST-OP CARE:
DVM
• Full physical examination and evaluation of parameters [daily]
• Appearance
• Attitude
• Appetite
• Hydration Status
• TPR
• Signs of Pain
• Surgical Incision Monitoring
• Look for clinical signs of infection, seroma, hematoma, suture break down, and
wound dehiscence
• Allows you to adjust treatment plan if needed

A
42
Q

IN HOSPITAL POST-OP CARE:
LVT
• LVT’s will be your second pair of eyes when you are not with the patient
• Hospitalization treatment sheet
• Vitals
• Fluids
• Treatments
• Diet
• Lab Data
• Make sure the sheet is signed and filled out correctly

A
43
Q

STORMY RECOVERY
• Where many complications can occur
• Delayed recovery
• >30 minutes since termination of anesthesia –> hypothermia, slows down metabolism. Need to find happy medium between waking up too quickly or too long.
• Rapid and complicated recovery
• Dysphoria
• Pain
• Emergency delirium
• Bladder distension
• Fear, Anxiety, Stress [FAS]

A
44
Q

STORMY RECOVERY –
DYSPHORIA
• State of unease due to agitation and anxiety
• Seen with pure mu opioids
• Morphine, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl, Methadone
• Vocalization, panting, difficulty settling down, or restlessness
• Naloxone – carefully titrated
• Multiple doses may be needed since it has a short duration or action
• Butorphanol

A

which drug is most likely to cause dysphoria in a patient had Trazodone as the correct answer. The correct answer is Morphine and those that selected Morphine received full credit for the question.

45
Q

STORMY RECOVERY –
PAIN
• Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience that is associated with actual
or potential tissue damage
• Observe posture and facial expressions
• Determine whether your patient is painful vs. dysphoric
• When was last analgesic dose and what is the drugs duration of action?
• Does the patient need additional analgesia?
• Determine how painful procedure was
• Gently palpated affected surgical area
• Analgesic are needed with a high pain score
• Opioids [Morphine, Fentanyl, Hydromorphone, Methadone]
• NSAIDs [Carprofen, Meloxicam, Onsior

A
46
Q

STORMY RECOVERY –
EMERGENCY DELIRIUM
• State of mental confusion and psychomotor agitation marked by:
• Hyperexcitability, restless, thrashing, and vocalization
• Occurs in the immediate recovery paid [right after inhalant anesthesia is
discontinued]s
• Patients do not interact with humans and are unaware of environment
• Thrash uncontrollably and require immediate intervention to prevent injury
• Propofol
• 0.5-1mg/kg IV [SLOW}

A
47
Q

determine if extra sedation is needed
• Trazodone
• 5-10mg/kg PO ~30-60 minutes prior to high anxiety event
• Gabapentin
• 20mg/kg PO ~30-60 minutes prior to high anxiety event
• Low-dose acepromazine
• 0.01mg/kg IV – cats and dog
• Low-dose dexmedetomidine
• 0.001mg/kg IV – cats and dogs

A
48
Q

Post-operative care at home

A
49
Q

Discharge instructions
• Hospital and contact information
• Patient information
• Anesthesia side effects
• Food and water instructions
• Medication instructions
• Home care instructions
• Complications
• Recheck

A