Week 4 Handout Flashcards

1
Q

What does an Electrocardiogram (ECG) measure?

A

Electrical activity in the heart

Produces waveforms representing cardiac cycles

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2
Q

Why is ECG monitoring crucial during anesthesia?

A

Allows real-time assessment of cardiac function and enhances patient safety

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3
Q

What are the types of ECG systems mentioned?

A
  • 3-Lead ECG System
  • 5-Lead ECG System
  • 12-Lead ECG System
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4
Q

What is the primary lead used for continuous monitoring in a 3-lead ECG?

A

Lead II

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5
Q

What does the P wave represent in an ECG waveform?

A

Atrial depolarization

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6
Q

What does the QRS complex reflect in an ECG waveform?

A

Ventricular depolarization

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7
Q

What does the T wave indicate in an ECG waveform?

A

Ventricular repolarization

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8
Q

What are common clinical indications for ECG monitoring?

A
  • Procedures involving general anesthesia
  • Patients with known cardiovascular conditions
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9
Q

What is the standard for rhythm analysis in ECG monitoring?

A

Lead II

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10
Q

What is the advantage of the 5-lead ECG system?

A

Provides earlier detection of cardiac issues for high-risk patients

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11
Q

What are common pitfalls in ECG monitoring?

A
  • Patient movement
  • Lead-wire displacement
  • Electrocautery use
  • 60-Hz interference
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12
Q

What is the significance of ST elevation in an ECG?

A

Suspicion of acute myocardial infarction (STEMI)

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13
Q

What does the J-point in an ECG indicate?

A

The point where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: The 5-lead ECG system enhances detection of _______.

A

ischemic changes

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15
Q

What is Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) calculated as?

A

MAP = DP + (SP - DP) / 3 or ((DP x 2) + SP) / 3

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16
Q

What are the methods for noninvasive blood pressure monitoring mentioned?

A
  • Palpation
  • Doppler probe
  • Auscultation
  • Oscillometry
  • Tonometer/Finger Cuff method
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17
Q

What does oscillometry in blood pressure monitoring rely on?

A

Arterial pulsations causing oscillations within the blood pressure cuff

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18
Q

What is a potential limitation of arterial tonometry?

A

Frequent calibration requirements

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19
Q

True or False: Continuous intraoperative ECG monitoring has known contraindications.

A

False

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20
Q

What is the purpose of using conductive gel in ECG monitoring?

A

Enhances electrode-skin conductivity for optimal signal quality

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21
Q

What should be done to minimize 60-Hz interference in ECG monitoring?

A

Keep ECG away from interfering sources

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of noninvasive blood pressure monitoring?

A

To obtain interval and accurate blood pressure measurements

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23
Q

What are the phases of Korotkoff sounds used in auscultation?

A
  • Phase 1: Systolic measurement
  • Phase 5: Diastolic measurement
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24
Q

What is the role of ECG in detecting electrolyte imbalances?

A

Helps monitor and detect abnormalities

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25
Q

What is arterial tonometry?

A

Measures arterial blood pressure by sensing the pressure required to partially occlude a superficial artery supported by a bony structure.

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26
Q

What are the benefits of arterial tonometry?

A

Offers continuous NIV blood pressure monitoring, along with waveform tracing.

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27
Q

What are the limitations of arterial tonometry?

A

Frequent calibration requirements and sensitivity to patient movement.

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28
Q

What does the Finger Cuff method facilitate?

A

NIV blood pressure monitoring via a small-volume cuff with an infrared light detector.

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29
Q

What does the ClearSight System do?

A

Aids in guiding fluid management for the anesthesia provider via NIV methods.

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30
Q

What parameters does the ClearSight System monitor?

A
  • SV
  • SVV
  • SVR
  • MAP
  • CO
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31
Q

Why is correct cuff sizing and positioning important?

A

To achieve accurate blood pressure measurements.

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32
Q

Where are acceptable cuff positions if the upper arm is inaccessible?

A
  • Forearm
  • Wrist
  • Ankle
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33
Q

What is the recommended cuff bladder encirclement for accurate measurement?

A

Should encircle ≥ 50% of the patient’s extremity.

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34
Q

What effect does a more distally positioned cuff have on blood pressure readings?

A

Will yield elevated SBP results, while DBP will be decreased.

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35
Q

What is the preferred site for blood pressure measurement in pediatric patients?

A

The upper extremity due to its closer correlation to cerebral perfusion.

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36
Q

True or False: Marked positional changes in cuff site can greatly affect measurement results.

A

True

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37
Q

If a patient’s blood pressure cuff is 12 in. below the heart, how much should the reading be adjusted?

A

24 mmHg less than the monitor reading.

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38
Q

What are some complications associated with blood pressure monitoring?

A
  • Patient discomfort with repetitive use
  • Increased tendency for errors in measurement
  • Limb ischemia
  • Neuropathies
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Bruising
  • Petechiae
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39
Q

What are contraindications for blood pressure monitoring?

A
  • Bone fractures
  • Open injuries (burns)
  • Arteriovenous fistulas
  • Peripherally inserted central lines (PICC)
  • Sites of previous lymph node dissection
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40
Q

What factors should be considered for advancing to invasive monitoring in anesthesia?

A
  • Abrupt and extreme changes in blood pressure
  • Present or anticipated inability to compensate for hemodynamic changes
  • Surgical procedures that dispose the patient to large intra/extracellular volume shifts
  • Patients with compromised respiratory function, oxygenation, or ventilation
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41
Q

What are the three most frequent methods of NIV blood pressure monitoring in anesthesia care?

A
  • Oscillometry
  • Tonometry
  • Finger Cuff Methods
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42
Q

What is the purpose of the precordial stethoscope?

A

Used for auscultating heart and breath sounds.

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43
Q

How is the precordial stethoscope secured to the patient?

A

Double-sided adhesive keeps the weighted piece of metal secured to the patient’s chest.

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44
Q

What is the function of an esophageal stethoscope?

A

Provides high-quality heart and breath sounds by being placed in the esophagus after intubation.

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45
Q

What should be done before inserting an esophageal stethoscope?

A

Dip the ballooned tip in lubricant.

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46
Q

Why can esophageal stethoscopes only be used on ventilated patients?

A

To confirm unobstructed endotracheal intubation by auscultating movement in lungs.

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47
Q

What are the benefits of esophageal stethoscopes?

A
  • Higher quality detection of turbulent breath sounds
  • Confirmation of regularity and quality of heart sounds
  • Identification of murmurs and muffling
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48
Q

What risks are associated with esophageal stethoscopes?

A
  • Trauma and bleeding in patients with esophageal strictures or varices
  • Misplacement into the trachea can create a cuff leak
  • Compression of the posterior tongue decreasing lymphatic drainage
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49
Q

What is the primary reason for using esophageal stethoscopes?

A

For high-quality heart and lung auscultation that electronic monitoring cannot detect.

50
Q

What are the limitations of esophageal stethoscopes?

A

Can cause trauma to the airway or decreased lymphatic drainage.

51
Q

Are esophageal stethoscopes necessary alongside modern monitoring?

A

They are still depended on as reliable tools in the event of technology failure.

52
Q

What are precordial and esophageal stethoscopes used for?

A

Reliable tools in the event of technology failure.

53
Q

What is capnography?

A

The continuous monitoring of end tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2).

54
Q

What is the normal range for mean PaCO2 in adults?

A

35-45 mmHg.

55
Q

What is the normal range for mean PaCO2 in newborns?

A

30-35 mmHg.

56
Q

How does EtCO2 compare to PaCO2?

A

EtCO2 is approximately 2-5 torr lower than PaCO2.

57
Q

What is the main byproduct of aerobic metabolism?

58
Q

What do central chemoreceptors detect?

A

H+ resulting from CO2 combining with water.

59
Q

What condition results from failure to expel CO2?

A

Respiratory acidosis.

60
Q

What is the difference between non-diverting and diverting capnography equipment?

A

Non-diverting measures CO2 directly at the circuit; diverting removes gas for monitoring.

61
Q

What is a reason to use capnography in patient monitoring?

A

More sensitive detection of hypoventilation than oxygen saturation alone.

62
Q

What can capnography confirm?

A

Endotracheal tube placement.

63
Q

What are the clinical causes of altered EtCO2 in anesthesia?

A
  • Increased CO2 delivery/production * Decreased CO2 delivery/production.
64
Q

What are the three phases of capnography?

A
  • Phase I - Dead Space * Phase II - Mixture of dead space and alveolar gas * Phase III - Alveolar gas plateau.
65
Q

What is a common issue seen in patients with obstructive pulmonary disease in capnography?

A

No plateau is reached before the next inspiration.

66
Q

What does a depression during phase III of EtCO2 indicate?

A

Spontaneous respiratory effort.

67
Q

What is used to determine CO2 absorbent exhaustion?

A

Color change of the cannister.

68
Q

What are early clinical signs of CO2 absorbent exhaustion?

A
  • Elevated EtCO2 monitor readings * Respiratory acidosis * Hyperventilation.
69
Q

What is the importance of capnography in anesthesia monitoring?

A

Provides improved monitoring of ventilation when combined with pulse oximetry.

70
Q

What does pulse oximetry measure?

A

Pulse rate and the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SpO2).

71
Q

What does pulse oximetry not measure?

A

The quantity of hemoglobin or the total oxygen content bound to hemoglobin.

72
Q

What are the two types of pulse oximetry devices?

A
  • Transmittance * Reflectance.
73
Q

What is the accuracy range of modern pulse oximeters at 70%-100% saturation?

A

Within 2% to 3%.

74
Q

What is the Beer-Lambert law related to in pulse oximetry?

A

The absorption of light is proportional to the concentration of the absorbing substance.

75
Q

What is the significance of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Describes the relationship between oxygen saturation and oxygen tension.

76
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

Low arterial oxygen levels (PaO2 < 60 mmHg).

77
Q

What clinical signs are often masked during anesthesia?

A

Clinical signs of hypoxemia such as tachycardia and altered mental status.

78
Q

What role does pulse oximetry play in CRNA practice?

A

Provides real-time monitoring of oxygenation to enhance patient safety.

79
Q

Where should the pulse oximeter probe be placed in neonates?

A

On the right hand or earlobe.

80
Q

What is the purpose of real-time monitoring of oxygenation?

A

To enhance patient safety and outcomes

81
Q

What can early detection of hypoxemia and hypoventilation decrease?

A

Perioperative morbidity and mortality rates

82
Q

Where should the pulse oximeter probe be placed on neonates?

A

On the right hand or earlobe

83
Q

What can pulse oximetry be utilized in place of before radial artery cannulation?

A

Allen’s test

84
Q

For which patients is pulse oximetry beneficial?

A

Patients with cardiac or pulmonary disorders/diseases

85
Q

True or False: Pulse oximetry is a reliable indicator of adequate ventilation.

86
Q

What may affect pulse oximetry readings during descending aorta aneurysms repairs?

A

Compromised perfusion to distal organs

87
Q

What does pulse oximetry require for accurate readings?

A

Pulsatile flow

88
Q

What can alter pulse oximetry readings?

A

Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin

89
Q

What can interfere with pulse oximetry if the photodetector senses radiofrequency emissions?

A

Electrocautery

90
Q

What should be done in low perfusion states to improve pulse oximetry accuracy?

A

Move oximetry site centrally (nose, ear, forehead)

91
Q

What technology may improve accuracy in pulse oximetry?

A

Multi-wavelength technology

92
Q

What is a limitation of current pulse oximeters in low-perfusion states?

A

Inaccuracies in readings

93
Q

What is the definition of hypothermia in terms of core body temperature?

A

Core body temperature of less than 36 degrees Celsius

94
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothermia in the operating room?

A

General and regional anesthesia

95
Q

What is hyperthermia defined as?

A

Core body temperature raises above 38 degrees Celsius

96
Q

What genetic condition can lead to malignant hyperthermia?

A

Genetic hypermetabolic muscle disease

97
Q

What can atropine do in relation to temperature regulation?

A

Inhibit sweating response and raise core body temperature

98
Q

What is a critical aspect of core temperature monitoring during surgery?

A

Patient safety and standard of care

99
Q

What are some consequences of hypothermia during surgery?

A
  • Increased risk of surgical site infection
  • Impaired coagulation/platelet dysfunction
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
100
Q

What is the recommended operating room temperature range?

A

Between 68 degrees Fahrenheit (20 degrees Celsius) and 75 degrees Fahrenheit (24 degrees Celsius)

101
Q

What should be done to address limitations in pulse oximetry?

A

Secure placement and choose appropriate sites

102
Q

Fill in the blank: Deoxyhemoglobin absorbs more _______ light.

103
Q

Fill in the blank: Oxyhemoglobin absorbs more _______ light.

104
Q

What can lead to tachycardia, vasodilation, and neurological injury?

A

Hypothermia

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 126

105
Q

What is the recommended operating room temperature range?

A

68 to 75 degrees Fahrenheit

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 15

106
Q

What technology is used for temporal noninvasive temperature monitoring?

A

Infrared technology

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

107
Q

What are the advantages of axillary temperature monitoring?

A
  • Safe
  • Ease of placement
  • Close to core temperature

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

108
Q

What is a disadvantage of oral temperature monitoring?

A

Not an accurate reflection of core temperature

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

109
Q

True or False: Tympanic temperature is considered core temperature if a contact probe is used.

A

True

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

110
Q

What is the most ideal site for measuring temperature with an aural probe?

A

Tympanic site

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

111
Q

What is a disadvantage of nasopharyngeal temperature monitoring?

A
  • Not usable if trauma sustained to head or neck
  • Possible bleeding if probe inserted
  • Less useful in awake patients

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

112
Q

What is an advantage of esophageal temperature monitoring?

A

Considered to reflect core temperature

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

113
Q

Fill in the blank: Bladder temperature monitoring provides a _______ reflection of core temperature.

A

definite

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

114
Q

What are the disadvantages of pulmonary artery temperature monitoring?

A
  • Invasive
  • Possible risk of infection
  • Not reliable during open chest procedures

Elisha et al., 2023, p. 322

115
Q

What is the purpose of preoperative prewarming?

A

To reduce phase one decline in core temperature

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 1239

116
Q

What can contribute to hypothermia or hyperthermia during surgery?

A
  • Cool ambient temperature
  • Prolonged exposure of large wound
  • High flow of unhumidified gases

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 1239

117
Q

What is a treatment for postoperative shivering?

A
  • IV dose of meperidine (12.5-25 mg)
  • Warming blankets
  • Forced-air warming device

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 1239

118
Q

What can occur in the PACU due to hypothermia?

A

Shivering

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 1239

119
Q

True or False: Shivering can cause hyperthermia and metabolic acidosis if sustained for long periods.

A

True

Butterworth et al., 2022

120
Q

What should be considered for patients vulnerable to temperature fluctuations?

A
  • Specific comorbidities (e.g., hypothyroidism, burns)
  • Pediatric patients

Butterworth et al., 2022, p. 1239