Week 7 Handout Flashcards

1
Q

What is Dexmedetomidine?

A

S-enantiomer of medetomidine, an alpha agonist

Dexmedetomidine is used for sedation, analgesia, and anxiolysis.

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2
Q

What is the pH of Dexmedetomidine?

A

7.4

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Dexmedetomidine?

A

CNS alpha receptor agonist and systemic vasodilation

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4
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of Dexmedetomidine?

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

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5
Q

What is the loading dose of Dexmedetomidine?

A

1 mcg/kg over 10 min

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6
Q

What is the duration of action for Dexmedetomidine after stopping the infusion?

A

10-30 min

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7
Q

Does Dexmedetomidine cause respiratory depression?

A

No, it does not cause respiratory depression

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8
Q

What is Etomidate?

A

Carboxylated imidazole derivative

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Etomidate?

A

GABA modulator

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10
Q

What is the emergence time for Etomidate after bolus administration?

A

5-15 min

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11
Q

What are the adverse effects of Etomidate?

A
  • Pain on injection
  • Thrombophlebitis
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Myoclonia
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12
Q

What is the primary use of Ketamine?

A

Induction of anesthesia

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13
Q

What type of anesthesia does Ketamine provide?

A

Dissociative anesthesia

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14
Q

What is the pKa of Ketamine?

A

7.5

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15
Q

What is the induction dose of Ketamine when administered IV?

A

2-4 mg/kg

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16
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of Ketamine?

A

Circulatory stimulant, indirect sympathomimetic

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17
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for Propofol?

A

GABA agonist

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18
Q

What is the standard induction dose of Propofol?

A

1-2 mg/kg

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19
Q

What are the concerns regarding Propofol’s use?

A
  • Susceptible to bacterial contamination
  • PRIS (Propofol Infusion Syndrome)
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20
Q

What is the half-life of Midazolam?

A

Short half-life

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21
Q

What is the primary effect of opioids?

A

Analgesia

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22
Q

What is the active metabolite of Morphine?

A

M6G (active metabolite) and M3G (inactive metabolite)

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23
Q

What is the onset time for Morphine when given IV?

A

20 min

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24
Q

What is Fentanyl primarily used for?

A

Profound dose-dependent analgesia

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25
Q

Does Fentanyl have an active metabolite?

A

No, it does not have an active metabolite

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26
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of Meperidine?

A

Accumulation of normeperidine can lead to CNS excitation and seizures

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27
Q

What is the pH of Etomidate?

A

8.1

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28
Q

What effect does Propofol have on cerebral blood flow?

A

Decreases CBF and CMRO2

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of action for opioids?

A

Inhibit ascending transmission of nociception and activate descending pain control pathways

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30
Q

What effect does the active metabolite of the drug have on seizure threshold?

A

Lowers seizure threshold and induces CNS excitability

The active metabolite is normeperidine, which has an analgesic effect but can cause CNS issues.

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31
Q

What is the elimination half-life of normeperidine compared to its parent drug?

A

Significantly longer

This can lead to accumulation and CNS excitation.

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32
Q

What are the effects of kappa receptor stimulation in relation to this drug?

A

Shivering reduction in general and epidural anesthesia

This is an important consideration in anesthesia management.

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33
Q

Which patient populations should exercise caution with normeperidine?

A
  • Patients with renal failure
  • Elderly patients
  • Chronic use in cancer patients

High doses may be required in chronic pain management.

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of remifentanil?

A
  • Piperidine-derived opioid with ester link
  • No active metabolite
  • Water soluble
  • Rapid onset and ultrashort duration

These properties allow for rapid recovery after infusion.

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35
Q

What is the elimination half-life of remifentanil?

A

8-20 minutes

This facilitates quick recovery after anesthesia.

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36
Q

Why is bolus dosing of remifentanil not recommended in the preop and postop phases?

A

Potential for respiratory depression and muscle rigidity

Alternative analgesic therapy is advised in these phases.

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37
Q

What is buprenorphine classified as?

A

Potent partial agonist opioid

It primarily binds to mu receptors and has a unique pharmacological profile.

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38
Q

What is the duration of action for buprenorphine?

A

8 hours

It shows slow dissociation from the receptor.

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39
Q

What is a key characteristic of butorphanol?

A

Highly lipophilic opioid

It acts as a kappa agonist and mu antagonist, producing analgesia with a ceiling effect.

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40
Q

What are the uses of nalbuphine?

A
  • Treat pain
  • Treat pruritus induced by epidural morphine
  • Treat respiratory depression from other opioids

It has a ceiling effect for respiratory depression.

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41
Q

What is naloxone?

A

Pure opioid antagonist

It reverses respiratory depression and opioid analgesia through competitive antagonism.

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42
Q

What is naltrexone used for?

A

Alcohol disorder treatment

It prevents the euphoric effects of opioids and has a longer duration of action than naloxone.

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43
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for ketorolac?

A

Inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes

This makes it effective for mild to moderate pain.

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44
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for adults?

A

4000 mg/day

Exceeding this dose can lead to hepatotoxicity.

45
Q

What is the definition of Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

A

The alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response to a standardized stimulus

MAC is a measure of anesthetic potency.

46
Q

What factors influence MAC?

A
  • Decreases by 6% per decade of age
  • Unaffected by species, sex, or anesthesia duration

These factors are important for tailoring anesthetic dosage.

47
Q

What is the Train of Four (TOF) response indicative of?

A

Neuromuscular blockade levels

TOF measures the response of muscle to electrical stimulation, helping assess recovery.

48
Q

What is a Phase II block?

A

Desensitization block occurring after large doses of depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

It shows a fade in response, unlike Phase I.

49
Q

What is the primary method of elimination for inhalation anesthetics?

A

Alveolar ventilation

This is crucial for effective anesthesia management.

50
Q

What are the contraindications for inhalation anesthetics?

A
  • Potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents
  • Catecholamine-induced arrhythmias
  • Malignant hyperthermia

These contraindications highlight the need for careful patient selection.

51
Q

What are the effects of nitrous oxide on the cardiovascular system?

A

Stimulates sympathetic nervous system, may mask myocardial depression

In patients with CAD or severe hypovolemia, this effect may be significant.

52
Q

What is the primary concern with sevoflurane?

A

Degradation into nephrotoxic compound A

Monitoring renal function is important during its use.

53
Q

What is the respiratory effect of isoflurane?

A

Causes respiratory depression with less pronounced tachypnea

It is an effective bronchodilator.

54
Q

What is the mechanism of action for succinylcholine?

A

Depolarizes nicotinic receptors, causing transient activation followed by neuromuscular blockade

It does not cross the blood-brain barrier.

55
Q

What is succinylcholine composed of?

A

2 acetylcholine (ACh) molecules; quaternary ammonium structure; water-soluble.

56
Q

Does succinylcholine cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

No, it does not cross the blood-brain barrier.

57
Q

What is the primary action of succinylcholine?

A

Depolarizes nicotinic receptors, causing transient activation followed by neuromuscular blockade.

58
Q

What is the onset time for succinylcholine?

A

Within 3 minutes.

59
Q

What is the duration of action for succinylcholine?

A

5-10 minutes.

60
Q

What is the plasma half-life of succinylcholine?

A

2-4 minutes.

61
Q

How is succinylcholine metabolized?

A

By plasma cholinesterase (hydroxylation), then further into succinic acid and choline.

62
Q

What is the intravenous dose range for succinylcholine?

A

0.5 - 1.5 mg/kg; ED95 ~0.30 mg/kg.

63
Q

In which special population is succinylcholine contraindicated?

A

Patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia.

64
Q

What are the side effects of succinylcholine?

A
  • Myalgias * Hyperkalemia * Possible malignant hyperthermia trigger.
65
Q

What can cause prolonged effects of succinylcholine?

A

Pseudocolinesterase deficiency.

66
Q

What is rocuronium bromide?

A

A monoquaternary aminosteroid neuromuscular blocker.

67
Q

What are the onset and duration of action for rocuronium?

A

Onset: rapid (45-90 sec); Duration: intermediate (30-60 min).

68
Q

What is the elimination half-life of rocuronium?

A

60-120 minutes.

69
Q

What is the intravenous dose range for rocuronium?

A

0.6 – 1.2 mg/kg.

70
Q

What is vecuronium bromide?

A

A monoquaternary aminosteroid neuromuscular blocker developed from pancuronium.

71
Q

What is the onset time for vecuronium?

A

2-4 minutes.

72
Q

What is the elimination half-life of vecuronium?

A

51-90 minutes in healthy adults.

73
Q

What is the induction dose for vecuronium?

A

0.1 mg/kg.

74
Q

What is cisatracurium besylate?

A

A nondepolarizing muscle relaxant, three times more potent than atracurium.

75
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cisatracurium?

A

Competes with acetylcholine for binding to nicotinic receptors at the motor endplate.

76
Q

What is the elimination process for cisatracurium?

A

Hofmann elimination and non-specific esterases.

77
Q

What is atracurium besylate?

A

A competitive bisquaternary neuromuscular blocker.

78
Q

What is the onset time for atracurium?

A

1.2 to 2.8 minutes.

79
Q

What are the adverse effects of atracurium?

A
  • Histamine release * Hypotension * Bradycardia.
80
Q

What is neostigmine?

A

An anticholinesterase agent.

81
Q

What is the dose range for neostigmine?

A

25-75 mcg/kg.

82
Q

What is the onset time for neostigmine?

A

5-15 minutes.

83
Q

What NMBA cannot be reversed by neostigmine?

A

Succinylcholine.

84
Q

What is sugammadex?

A

A drug that reverses neuromuscular blockade but is not an anticholinesterase.

85
Q

What is the onset time for sugammadex?

A

1-2 minutes.

86
Q

What are the common side effects of sugammadex?

A
  • Nausea * Vomiting * Allergy * Hypertension * Headache.
87
Q

What is the role of anticholinergics in the context of NMBA reversal?

A

To prevent parasympathetic side effects of anticholinesterase drugs.

88
Q

What is the dose range for atropine?

A

7-15 mcg/kg.

89
Q

What is glycopyrrolate?

A

A quaternary ammonium compound used to prevent excessive parasympathetic effects.

90
Q

What is the onset time for glycopyrrolate?

A

1-2 minutes IV.

91
Q

What are common side effects of anticholinesterase drugs?

A
  • Bradycardia * Arrhythmias * Hypotension * Bronchoconstriction * Hypersalivation.
92
Q

What is the onset time for Glycopyrrolate when administered IV?

A

1-2 min

Glycopyrrolate has a duration of action of 2-4 hours.

93
Q

What is the primary route of excretion for Glycopyrrolate?

A

Feces, urine (85% in urine after 48 hrs)

Glycopyrrolate is excreted mostly as unchanged.

94
Q

What is the dose for Scopolamine when applied for preoperative sedation?

A

1.5 mg applied behind ear

Scopolamine has a duration of action of 3 days.

95
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Ephedrine?

A

Stimulates both alpha and beta receptors directly and indirectly

Causes the release of endogenous catecholamines.

96
Q

What is the drug of choice for maternal hypotension after regional anesthesia?

A

Phenylephrine

Ephedrine was previously used but phenylephrine is now preferred.

97
Q

What is the onset time for Phenylephrine?

A

Immediate

Phenylephrine has a duration of action of 5-20 min.

98
Q

What is the primary use of Esmolol?

A

Beta 1 selective Beta blocker

Used to decrease heart rate and blood pressure perioperatively.

99
Q

What is the standard IV dose for Metoprolol?

A

5 mg every 5 min, max 15 mg

Metoprolol is used to manage arrhythmias and decrease heart rate.

100
Q

What is the ratio of alpha to beta blocking effects in Labetalol?

A

7:1

Labetalol is used to treat hypertension without affecting uterine blood flow.

101
Q

What is the standard adult dose of Cefazolin for surgical prophylaxis?

A

2g IV (3g if patient weight >120kg)

Administer within 60 minutes before incision.

102
Q

What type of bacteria does Cefazolin target?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and enteric gram-negative bacilli

Commonly used for surgical prophylaxis.

103
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Dexamethasone?

A

Inhibition of the nucleus tractus solitarius, serotonin reduction, and prostaglandin synthesis

Used to manage PONV.

104
Q

What is the duration of action for Ondansetron?

A

4-6 hrs

Most effective for vomiting rather than nausea.

105
Q

What is the long half-life of Palonosetron?

A

44 hrs

Preferable for PDNV.

106
Q

What type of receptor does Aprepitant block?

A

Neurokinin 1 Receptor

FDA-approved for PONV.

107
Q

What are the side effects of Droperidol?

A

Extrapyramidal side effects

Contraindicated in Parkinson’s disease.

108
Q

What is the primary action of Midazolam in the context of nausea?

A

Reduces dopamine’s emetic effects

Used as a sedative near the end of surgery.

109
Q

What caution should be noted with Metoclopramide?

A

Can cause dyskinesia and extrapyramidal effects

Contraindicated in Parkinson’s disease and bowel obstructions.