Week 3 Handout Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Oxygen Analyzer in anesthesia?

A

The last time the gas mixture gets checked before reaching the patient.

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2
Q

What principle does a Galvanic Fuel Cell operate on?

A

A chemical reaction that generates an electrical current proportional to oxygen concentration.

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3
Q

What are the advantages of Galvanic Fuel Cells?

A
  • Long Life: Up to 2 years
  • Self-Powered: Generate their own current
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4
Q

What are the disadvantages of Galvanic Fuel Cells?

A
  • Slow Response: Slower than paramagnetic devices
  • Calibration: Requires regular calibration
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5
Q

In what devices are Galvanic Fuel Cells commonly used?

A

Portable and lower-cost devices.

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6
Q

What is the principle behind a Paramagnetic Device?

A

Uses a strong magnetic field to detect oxygen due to its paramagnetic properties.

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7
Q

What are the advantages of Paramagnetic Devices?

A
  • Rapid Response: Quicker response time
  • High Accuracy: Generally more accurate
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8
Q

What are the disadvantages of Paramagnetic Devices?

A
  • Cost: More expensive than galvanic fuel cells
  • Power Requirement: Requires external power
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9
Q

Where are Paramagnetic Devices commonly found?

A

High-end anesthesia machines and critical care units.

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10
Q

What are Open Circuits in anesthesia?

A

One of the simplest forms of anesthesia delivery systems.

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11
Q

What are the basic components of an Open Circuit?

A
  • Fresh gas source
  • Delivery system (mask or nasal prongs)
  • Unidirectional flow path
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12
Q

What is a key operational feature of Open Circuits?

A

Exhaled gases are released into the room or captured by a scavenging system.

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13
Q

What are the advantages of Open Circuits?

A
  • Simplicity: Easy to set up
  • Rapid Induction and Recovery
  • Low Resistance to Breathing
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14
Q

What are the disadvantages of Open Circuits?

A
  • Inefficiency in Gas Usage
  • Lack of Control Over Gas Composition
  • Risk of Pollution
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15
Q

What are the four stages of anesthesia?

A
  • Stage I: Induction or Analgesia
  • Stage II: Excitement or Delirium
  • Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia
  • Stage IV: Overdose
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16
Q

What characterizes Stage I of anesthesia?

A

Period from the beginning of anesthesia to the loss of consciousness.

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17
Q

What happens during Stage II of anesthesia?

A

Involuntary movements, irregular breathing, heightened reflexes occur.

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18
Q

What defines Stage III of anesthesia?

A

Diminished reflexes and increased muscle relaxation; target stage for surgical procedures.

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19
Q

What is Stage IV of anesthesia?

A

Marked by severe CNS depression, leading to cessation of spontaneous respiration.

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20
Q

What are Mapleson Circuits used for?

A

Delivering inhalation anesthesia and preventing rebreathing of expired gases.

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21
Q

What is Fresh Gas Flow (FGF) in Mapleson Circuits?

A

Critical component that flushes out exhaled gases to prevent rebreathing.

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22
Q

What component does the Bain Circuit feature?

A

A coaxial design where the fresh gas flow tube is inside the expiratory limb.

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23
Q

What is the function of the Reservoir Bag in Mapleson Circuits?

A

Monitors the patient’s breathing and assists in manual ventilation.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of the Adjustable Pressure-Limiting (APL) Valve?

A

Adjusts pressure within the system and is crucial during manual ventilation.

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25
Q

True or False: Mapleson D is efficient for controlled ventilation during general anesthesia.

A

True

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26
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ stage of anesthesia is characterized by involuntary movements and irregular breathing.

A

Stage II

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27
Q

What is the primary advantage of the Bain Circuit for controlled ventilation?

A

It provides a constant supply of fresh gas while effectively removing exhaled gases.

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28
Q

In which clinical situations is the Bain Circuit commonly used?

A
  • Operating rooms for surgeries requiring controlled ventilation
  • Pediatric anesthesia due to its lightweight and compact nature
  • Emergency situations because of its simplicity and quick setup.
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29
Q

What is the first step in the Pethick Test for the Bain Circuit?

A

Connect the Bain circuit to the anesthesia machine with the fresh gas flow turned on.

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30
Q

What should happen to the reservoir bag during the Pethick Test when the patient end is occluded?

A

The reservoir bag should inflate as a result of the fresh gas flow entering the circuit.

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31
Q

What indicates proper functioning of the Bain Circuit during the Pethick Test?

A

The bag inflates and remains inflated when the patient end is occluded, and then deflates quickly upon release.

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32
Q

What does it indicate if the reservoir bag does not inflate during the Pethick Test?

A

It may indicate a problem such as a leak in the circuit, a blockage, or misassembly.

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33
Q

What is the characteristic design of the Mapleson E circuit?

A

Simple design with no reservoir bag, commonly used in pediatric anesthesia.

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34
Q

What is the primary reliance of the Mapleson E circuit?

A

It relies heavily on adequate fresh gas flow (FGF) to prevent rebreathing.

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35
Q

How do Mapleson circuits generally work?

A

They rely on fresh gas flow (FGF) to provide fresh gas during inhalation and push out exhaled gas.

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36
Q

What is the best method for determining the amount of fresh gas flow required in Mapleson circuits?

A

End-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2) monitoring.

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37
Q

Which Mapleson circuit is best for spontaneous ventilation?

A

Mapleson A.

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38
Q

Which Mapleson circuit is considered best for controlled ventilation?

A

Mapleson D.

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39
Q

What is Fresh Gas Coupling (FGC) in anesthesia machines?

A

A mechanism where the fresh gas flow influences the volume of gas delivered to the patient during mechanical ventilation.

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40
Q

What happens to the tidal volume when fresh gas flow is added during mechanical ventilation?

A

It effectively increases the volume of gas that the patient receives.

41
Q

What should be monitored to avoid overventilation in low-flow anesthesia?

A

The actual tidal volume delivered.

42
Q

What is the formula to estimate the actual tidal volume delivered to the patient?

A

Actual Tidal Volume = Set Tidal Volume + FGC Effect.

43
Q

What is the impact of fresh gas flow on tidal volume?

A

An increase in FGF can artificially inflate the tidal volume.

44
Q

What is the I:E ratio in mechanical ventilation?

A

The ratio of time spent in inspiration versus expiration.

45
Q

How can fresh gas flow affect the I:E ratio?

A

If FGF increases tidal volume significantly, it might require adjustments in ventilatory settings, including the I:E ratio.

46
Q

What is the respiratory rate in mechanical ventilation?

A

The number of breaths delivered to the patient per minute by the ventilator.

47
Q

What is a key difference between ascending and descending bellows in ventilators?

A

Ascending bellows are filled from the bottom and lift upward as gas enters.

48
Q

What safety feature do ascending bellows provide in case of a leak?

A

They will fail to ascend or will ascend less than expected, indicating a problem.

49
Q

What is the visual cue for leak detection in ascending bellows?

A

The bellows will fail to ascend or will ascend less than expected.

This indicates a problem with the anesthesia circuit or the bellows themselves.

50
Q

How do ascending bellows respond to circuit pressure changes?

A

A decrease in pressure due to a leak results in the bellows not rising fully or collapsing.

This response is critical for identifying leaks in the system.

51
Q

What is the filling mechanism for descending bellows?

A

Descending bellows are filled from the top, with the weight of the bellows assisting in the descent as they fill with gas.

This design is different from ascending bellows.

52
Q

What safety concern is associated with descending bellows?

A

A leak may not be immediately apparent, giving a false impression of normal operation.

The bellows can still descend due to gravity even if there is a leak.

53
Q

What are the clinical implications of ascending bellows?

A

Easier monitoring for leaks and enhanced patient safety through clear visual signs of system integrity.

This makes it easier for anesthesia providers to respond to issues.

54
Q

What is the primary mechanism of piston ventilators?

A

Piston ventilators use an electric motor to drive a piston within a cylinder.

This allows for precise control of tidal volume and ventilation rate.

55
Q

What is a significant advantage of piston ventilators?

A

They can accurately deliver set tidal volumes, which is beneficial for pediatric anesthesia.

This precision is crucial for small patients.

56
Q

What does the feedback mechanism in piston ventilators do?

A

It adjusts the motor’s action based on the patient’s lung compliance and resistance.

This allows for more tailored ventilation.

57
Q

What are the five tasks of oxygen in the anesthesia machine?

A
  • Proceeds to the fresh gas flowmeter
  • Powers the oxygen flush valve
  • Activates the fail-safe mechanism
  • Activates the low-pressure alarm
  • Compresses the bellows of mechanical ventilators

Each task is critical for the safety and functionality of the anesthesia machine.

58
Q

Define spontaneous breathing.

A

Spontaneous breathing refers to the patient’s own respiratory effort without assistance from a mechanical ventilator.

This is crucial for assessing the patient’s respiratory function.

59
Q

What characterizes assisted breathing?

A

The patient initiates the breath, and the ventilator provides additional volume or pressure.

This mode supports patients who are unable to breathe adequately on their own.

60
Q

What is controlled breathing?

A

Controlled breathing is when the ventilator completely takes over the work of breathing for the patient.

This mode is used in situations where the patient cannot breathe independently.

61
Q

What are the clinical applications of Controlled Mandatory Ventilation (CMV)?

A
  • Used during deep anesthesia
  • Employed in patients with respiratory failure
  • Beneficial for neuromuscular disorders

These applications are important for ensuring adequate ventilation.

62
Q

What is a risk associated with CMV?

A

Risk of hypoventilation or hyperventilation due to improper ventilator settings.

Careful monitoring is essential to avoid these complications.

63
Q

What is the weaning process from CMV?

A

Transitioning to a less controlled mode of ventilation as the patient’s condition improves.

This helps to gradually reduce dependence on mechanical ventilation.

64
Q

What does Assist Control Ventilation (ACV) provide?

A

Partial respiratory support for patients who can breathe spontaneously but need assistance.

It is often used during recovery from full support modes.

65
Q

What is a consideration when using ACV?

A

Risk of hyperventilation if the patient’s spontaneous breathing rate is high.

Careful monitoring and adjustment are necessary.

66
Q

What is Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) used for?

A

Weaning from ventilation and providing partial respiratory support for patients capable of spontaneous breathing.

This mode allows patients to gradually take over more of the breathing work.

67
Q

What is Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV)?

A

A mode used in mechanical ventilation that allows patients to gradually take over more of the breathing work.

SIMV is often utilized in the weaning process from mechanical ventilation.

68
Q

What is a key clinical application of SIMV?

A

Weaning from ventilation and providing partial respiratory support.

Suitable for patients capable of spontaneous breathing who still require some ventilatory support.

69
Q

What is a consideration when using SIMV?

A

Patient-ventilator synchronization is crucial to ensure mandatory breaths are synchronized with spontaneous efforts.

There is a risk of under-ventilation if spontaneous efforts are insufficient.

70
Q

What does the Pressure Control Ventilation-Volume Guaranteed (PCV-VG) mode ensure?

A

It guarantees a set volume while dynamically adjusting pressure to meet ventilation needs.

Particularly useful for lung-protective strategies, especially in ARDS patients.

71
Q

What is a clinical application of PCV-VG?

A

Lung protective ventilation for patients requiring lung-protective strategies.

Helps prevent excessive airway pressures.

72
Q

What is a key consideration when using PCV-VG?

A

Continuous monitoring is necessary to ensure adequate ventilation and avoid excessive pressures.

Balancing pressure and volume is crucial.

73
Q

What is Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV) commonly used for?

A

Weaning from mechanical ventilation and supporting spontaneous breathing.

Ideal for patients who can breathe spontaneously but need assistance.

74
Q

What risk is associated with inadequate pressure support in PSV?

A

There is a risk of hypoventilation, especially in weak or fatigued patients.

Patient-ventilator synchronization is vital to prevent discomfort.

75
Q

What is Pressure Support Ventilation with Proportional Assist (PSV-Pro) designed for?

A

To enhance patient comfort and facilitate weaning by allowing natural breathing.

Best for patients with stable respiratory drive.

76
Q

What does Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) primarily prevent?

A

Airway collapse, particularly in obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).

Also useful for lung expansion therapy and post-extubation support.

77
Q

What is a major risk when using CPAP?

A

The risk of barotrauma due to constant positive pressure.

Adequate spontaneous breathing is required for CPAP effectiveness.

78
Q

What is Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP) used for?

A

Commonly used in patients with respiratory failure or COPD who need additional support.

Helps reduce respiratory workload and is often used in home settings.

79
Q

What is a consideration for BiPAP?

A

Monitoring is required to ensure patient-ventilator synchrony and adjust settings as needed.

BiPAP is not suitable for patients who cannot initiate their own breaths.

80
Q

What is Airway Pressure Release Ventilation (APRV) beneficial for?

A

Managing patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) by maximizing alveolar recruitment.

It may reduce the need for deep sedation.

81
Q

What is a risk associated with APRV?

A

Hypoventilation may occur if settings are not properly adjusted.

Requires careful monitoring of oxygenation and ventilation.

82
Q

What condition is Inverse Ratio Ventilation (IRV) used for?

A

Refractory hypoxemia in conditions like ARDS.

It helps open collapsed alveoli for enhanced oxygenation.

83
Q

What is a consideration when using IRV?

A

Risk of lung injury due to increased airway pressure during prolonged inspiratory phases.

Requires vigilant monitoring of respiratory and hemodynamic parameters.

84
Q

What is High Frequency Ventilation (HFV) primarily used for?

A

Lung protection in patients with ARDS or conditions where conventional ventilation is not optimal.

Frequently employed in neonatal care.

85
Q

What is High Frequency Ventilation (HFV)?

A

A ventilation mode useful in patients with ARDS or conditions requiring lung protection.

86
Q

In which clinical situations is HFV particularly useful?

A
  • ARDS patients
  • Pediatric and neonatal care
  • Airway surgery
87
Q

What is a key consideration when using HFV regarding patient monitoring?

A

Careful monitoring is required to ensure adequate ventilation and oxygenation.

88
Q

What impact does continuous distending pressure from HFV have?

A

It can affect hemodynamics, necessitating close cardiovascular monitoring.

89
Q

What type of equipment is required for HFV?

A

Specific ventilators and expertise for application and management.

90
Q

What is important to consider when transitioning from HFV to conventional ventilation?

A

The transition should be gradual, considering the patient’s lung mechanics and overall stability.

91
Q

What principle does Jet Ventilation utilize?

A

Giovanni Battista Venturi’s principle of reduced pressure at a tube’s narrowing.

92
Q

What is the purpose of Airway Exchange Catheters (AECs)?

A

To facilitate changing or removing endotracheal tubes and to deliver jet ventilation or oxygen insufflation.

93
Q

Where should AECs be placed and why?

A

Proximally to the carina to avoid trauma.

94
Q

What is Needle Cricothyrotomy with Transtracheal Jet Ventilation (TTJV)?

A

An emergency technique for ‘cannot intubate, cannot oxygenate’ scenarios.

95
Q

What is the typical respiratory rate for TTJV?

A

~8-10 breaths/min.

96
Q

What is the appropriate I:E ratio for TTJV?

A

1:3 or 1:4.

97
Q

What are some risks associated with TTJV?

A
  • Barotrauma
  • Subcutaneous emphysema
  • Pneumothorax
  • Catheter obstruction
98
Q

What pressures should be used for TTJV to improve safety?

A

Lower inspiratory pressures (25-50 psi) and ensuring a patent upper airway.