Week 13 Handout - 4th Flipped Classroom Flashcards

1
Q

What does the left main artery supply?

A

LAD: supplies septum and anterior LV; Circumflex: supplies lateral LV and part of LA

(Barash et al., 2022, pp. 1051-1052)

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2
Q

What does the right coronary artery supply?

A

Supplies RA, RV, and inferior LV; typically gives rise to PDA supplying posterior septum and inferior LV

(Barash et al., 2022, pp. 1051-1052)

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3
Q

Define Coronary Artery Disease (CAD).

A

Atherosclerotic narrowing of coronary arteries leading to decreased myocardial O₂ supply and increased relative O₂ demand

(Barash et al., 2022, pp. 1051-1052)

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4
Q

What are the leading causes of perioperative morbidity and mortality?

A

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

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5
Q

List three risk factors for Coronary Artery Disease.

A
  • Hypertension (HTN)
  • Diabetes Mellitus (DM)
  • Smoking
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6
Q

What is Coronary Perfusion Pressure (CPP)?

A

CPP = DBP − LVEDP

(Nagelhout et al., 2023. pp. 349, 480-481, 487-488, 546-547)

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7
Q

What is a classic sign of CAD?

A

Angina pectoris: stable, unstable, or variant (Prinzmetal’s)

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8
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of myocardial infarction?

A
  • Chest pain
  • Diaphoresis
  • Nausea
  • Dyspnea
  • Hypotension
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9
Q

True or False: Over 50% of perioperative myocardial infarctions are silent.

A

True

Especially in elderly and diabetic patients (Barash et al., 2022, pp. 1050-1052)

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10
Q

Who needs revascularization?

A
  • Left main disease
  • Triple-vessel disease + decreased LV function
  • Unstable angina
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11
Q

What are the indications for Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)?

A
  • Multivessel ± proximal LAD
  • Two-vessel + proximal LAD
  • Severe ischemia without LAD
  • Failed PCI / not suitable for PCI

(Nagelhout et al., 2023. p. 547)

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12
Q

What should be assessed in a preoperative assessment for CAD?

A
  • Symptoms
  • Medications
  • ECG
  • Echocardiogram
  • Cardiac history
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13
Q

What is the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI) used for?

A

To estimate perioperative cardiac risk

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Continue _______ and statins if prescribed perioperatively.

A

beta-blockers

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15
Q

What should be done if a patient is less than 30 days post-myocardial infarction?

A

Delay elective surgery

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16
Q

What is the risk of reinfarction within 30 days post-MI?

A

33%

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17
Q

What should be monitored postoperatively in high-risk CAD patients?

A
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Ischemia
  • Bleeding
  • Hypotension
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18
Q

What are some anesthetic agents used for CAD patients?

A
  • Phenylephrine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Esmolol
  • Opioids
  • Beta-blockers
  • Sevoflurane
  • Nitroglycerin
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19
Q

What is the goal of anesthesia management for CAD patients?

A

Maintain CPP and balance myocardial oxygen supply and demand

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20
Q

What are the ECG leads recommended for ischemia detection?

A

Leads II, V4, and V5

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21
Q

What should be avoided to minimize myocardial ischemia risk?

A

Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure

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22
Q

What is the significance of maintaining oxygen saturation above 95%?

A

To prevent myocardial ischemia

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23
Q

Fill in the blank: The risk of post-MI mortality if reinfarction occurs is _______.

A

50%

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24
Q

What is Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)?

A

A sleep disorder characterized by repeated interruptions in breathing during sleep.

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25
Q

What does the STOP-BANG assessment evaluate?

A

It assesses the risk of obstructive sleep apnea.

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26
Q

What are intraoperative concerns for patients with OSA?

A
  • Difficult mask ventilation
  • Difficult laryngoscopy
  • Sensitivity to opioids and benzodiazepines
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27
Q

What postoperative concerns exist for patients with OSA?

A
  • Longer PACU stay for prolonged SPO2 monitoring
  • Possible admission to a monitored bed
  • Potential disqualification for same-day discharge
  • May need to bring home CPAP
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28
Q

What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

A

A progressive lung disease that causes breathing difficulties.

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29
Q

What should be assessed preoperatively for patients with COPD?

A
  • Recent exacerbations
  • Respiratory function using GOLD classification or BODE score
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30
Q

What do lower BODE scores indicate?

A

Better postoperative survival rates.

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31
Q

What is a significant intraoperative concern regarding induction agents for COPD patients?

A

Avoid neuraxial anesthesia as it decreases ERV and restricts accessory muscle use.

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32
Q

What is the risk of using Nitrous Oxide in COPD patients?

A

It can cause bullae to expand and rupture.

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33
Q

What ventilator management strategies should be employed for COPD patients?

A
  • Prevent barotrauma from high inspiratory pressures
  • Avoid full correction of chronic hypercapnia
  • Reduce air trapping
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34
Q

What are common postoperative concerns for COPD patients?

A

They may require continued intubation and mechanical ventilation.

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35
Q

What should be assessed preoperatively for asthma patients?

A

How well controlled their asthma is.

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36
Q

What are red flags indicating increased risk for pulmonary complications in asthma patients?

A
  • Frequent use of inhaler
  • ER visit in last 30 days
  • Frequent nocturnal awakenings with difficulty breathing
  • Recent increases in medication
  • Signs of viral infection
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37
Q

What is a primary intraoperative concern for asthma patients?

A

Prevent exacerbation and bronchospasm.

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38
Q

What are preferred induction agents for asthma patients?

A
  • Propofol
  • Ketamine
  • Sevoflurane
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39
Q

What should be avoided in asthma patients during induction?

A
  • Desflurane
  • Isoflurane
  • Atricurium
  • Mivacurium
  • Morphine
  • Beta Blockers
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40
Q

What is the preferred reversal agent for neuromuscular blockade in asthma patients?

A

Sugammadex.

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41
Q

What are signs of pulmonary hypertension?

A
  • Hypoxemia
  • Hypercarbia
  • Acidosis
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42
Q

What should be done preoperatively for patients with pulmonary hypertension?

A
  • Do not discontinue any PAH medications
  • Perform ECG, echocardiogram, chest x-ray, and ABG assessments
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43
Q

What are early signs of pulmonary embolism?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Decreasing/variable ETCO2 waveform
  • Moderate hypoxemia without CO2 retention
  • Hypotension
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44
Q

What is the treatment for bronchospasm?

A
  • Deepen anesthesia with volatile agent (Sevo)
  • Propofol
  • Ketamine
  • Lidocaine
  • 100% FiO2
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45
Q

What is a key characteristic of restrictive lung disease?

A

Difficulty fully expanding the lungs during inhalation.

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46
Q

What defines restrictive lung disease (RLD)?

A

Total lung capacity (TLC) less than the 5th percentile.

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47
Q

What are the types of restrictive lung disease?

A
  • Intrinsic
  • Extrinsic
  • Neuromuscular
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48
Q

What is pneumoconiosis?

A

Any lung disease caused by the inhalation of organic or nonorganic airborne dust and fibers.

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49
Q

What is the hallmark of sarcoidosis?

A

Epithelioid-cell granulomata.

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50
Q

What causes pneumonitis?

A

Inflammation of lung tissue often due to irritants or allergens.

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51
Q

What is a definition of ARDS?

A

Severe inflammation and damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane.

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52
Q

What is flail chest?

A

Paradoxical chest wall movement due to multiple rib fractures.

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53
Q

What is Flail Chest?

A

Results from chest trauma with multiple rib fractures; occurs in ~5% of thoracic injuries.

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54
Q

What is the primary characteristic of Flail Chest?

A

Paradoxical chest wall movement — inward during inspiration, outward during expiration — due to segmental instability.

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55
Q

What causes Pneumothorax?

A

Air enters the pleural space, causing partial or complete lung collapse.

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56
Q

What are the classifications of Pneumothorax severity?

A
  • Small: ≤15% lung collapse
  • Moderate: 15–60% collapse
  • Large: >60% collapse
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57
Q

What is the preoperative anesthetic consideration for patients with respiratory issues?

A

Thorough pulmonary assessment (PFTs, ABGs, imaging).

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58
Q

What should be optimized in preoperative anesthetic considerations?

A

Comorbid conditions (e.g., pulmonary hypertension).

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59
Q

When should bronchodilators/steroids be continued?

A

If prescribed.

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60
Q

What preoperative procedure may be considered for respiratory patients?

A

Pre-op pulmonary rehab or incentive spirometry.

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61
Q

What is preferred during intraoperative anesthesia when feasible?

A

Regional anesthesia.

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62
Q

What should be minimized during intraoperative anesthesia?

A

Sedation to prevent hypoventilation.

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63
Q

What strategies should be used during intraoperative anesthesia?

A

Lung-protective strategies (low tidal volume, higher RR).

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64
Q

What should be avoided to prevent complications during intraoperative anesthesia?

A

High peak airway pressures.

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65
Q

What should be monitored closely during anesthesia?

A

Hypoxia and CO₂ retention.

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66
Q

How should PEEP be used during anesthesia?

A

Cautiously to avoid barotrauma.

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67
Q

What is a key postoperative anesthetic consideration?

A

Aggressive pulmonary hygiene.

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68
Q

What is recommended for postoperative recovery?

A

Early mobilization.

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69
Q

What may be required postoperatively as needed?

A

Supplemental oxygen or ventilatory support.

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70
Q

What complications should be monitored for postoperatively?

A

Respiratory failure or atelectasis.

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71
Q

Why does altered airway anatomy matter in anesthesia?

A

It impacts airway management and is crucial for CRNAs.

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72
Q

What percentage of patients were impossible to intubate in the study?

A

28%.

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73
Q

What was the difficult intubation rate in the study?

A

4 out of 181 patients could not be intubated at all.

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74
Q

What are the two categories of altered airway anatomy?

A
  • Congenital
  • Acquired
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75
Q

Name three congenital anomalies related to altered airway anatomy.

A
  • Pierre Robin syndrome
  • Treacher Collins syndrome
  • Down syndrome
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76
Q

List some acquired anomalies that can affect airway anatomy.

A
  • Tumors
  • Burns
  • Neck trauma
  • Obesity
  • OSA
  • Previous radiation
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77
Q

What is a key impact of facial anomalies on airway management?

A

Poor mask seal.

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78
Q

What anatomical distortions can complicate laryngoscopy?

A
  • Neck masses
  • Tumors
  • Airway trauma
  • Edema
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79
Q

What can restrict cervical spine mobility and complicate airway management?

A

Trauma or degenerative diseases.

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80
Q

What is the first step in managing difficult airways?

A

Anticipate difficulty by reviewing previous intubation challenges.

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81
Q

What should be included in a preoperative assessment for difficult airways?

A
  • Mallampati score
  • Thyromental distance
  • Neck mobility
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82
Q

What are the components of Plan A in difficult airway management?

A

Video or direct laryngoscopy with optimal positioning.

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83
Q

What is the purpose of awake intubation in high-risk cases?

A

To maintain spontaneous breathing until the airway is secured.

84
Q

What should be activated when managing a difficult airway?

A

Difficult airway protocol with clear role assignments.

85
Q

What does the ASA Difficult Airway Algorithm suggest if you can ventilate but can’t intubate?

A

Try alternative approaches.

86
Q

How many attempts are recommended for each Plan in difficult airway management?

A

Maximum 3 attempts.

87
Q

What are some medications used for sedation in anesthesia?

A
  • Midazolam
  • Dexmedetomidine
  • Fentanyl
  • Remifentanil
88
Q

What is the role of antisialogogue in anesthesia management?

A

To reduce saliva for better local anesthetic penetration.

89
Q

What is a key complication during awake intubation?

A

Laryngospasm.

90
Q

What should be prepared in advance when planning an awake intubation?

A

Emergency surgical airway capability.

91
Q

What is a potential risk of administering succinylcholine during intubation?

A

Worsening obstruction due to muscle relaxation.

92
Q

What is essential for patient safety when managing a difficult airway?

A

A systematic approach to airway assessment and preparation.

93
Q

What was the outcome of the case study involving a 58-year-old male with a history of laryngeal cancer?

A

Procedure completed without complications.

94
Q

Fill in the blank: Diabetes is the most common ______ disorder among surgical patients.

A

endocrinological

95
Q

Approximately what percentage of the US population is affected by diabetes?

A

Over 10.5%.

96
Q

What disruption does diabetes manifest as?

A

Disruption in the metabolism of glucose.

97
Q

What percentage of diabetic patients will require surgery at some point in their lifespan?

A

Approximately 25-50%.

98
Q

What percentage of the US population is affected by diabetes?

A

Approximately 25-50% of diabetic patients will require surgery at some point in their lifespan

The source mentions 25-50% of patients may require surgical intervention.

99
Q

What are the subtypes of diabetes?

A
  • Type I
  • Type 2
  • Gestational
100
Q

What characterizes Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency

Diagnosis often occurs early in life, associated with increased end-organ complications.

101
Q

What is the primary treatment for Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Reliant upon exogenous insulin to control hyperglycemia.

102
Q

What happens in the absence of insulin in Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Glucagon rises causing serum glucose to elevate, leading to osmotic diuresis and hypovolemia.

103
Q

What is the predominant form of diabetes?

A

Type 2 Diabetes, with close to 90% of patients exhibiting this form.

104
Q

What characterizes Type 2 Diabetes?

A

Insulin resistance, progressive loss or decrease in insulin secretion, and eventual elevated hepatic glucose production.

105
Q

What lifestyle factors contribute to Type 2 Diabetes?

A

Rising levels of obesity are contributing to an increased and earlier diagnosis.

106
Q

What are the treatment options for Type 2 Diabetes?

A
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Oral glucose-lowering agents
  • Exogenous insulin supplementation
107
Q

What are the risks associated with Gestational Diabetes?

A
  • Macrosomia
  • Intrauterine fetal demise
  • Neonatal hypoglycemia
  • Predisposition to Type 2 diabetes post-pregnancy
108
Q

What is the critical glycemic control level to decrease risks in Gestational Diabetes?

A

Maintain glucose levels within 60-120 mg/dL.

109
Q

What is the predominant method for diagnosing diabetes?

A

Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) for diagnosis with levels > 6.5%.

110
Q

What are the preoperative goals for diabetic patients?

A
  • Determine if necessary for preoperative intervention
  • Schedule case early in the day
  • Maintain glucose within 140-180 mg/dL
111
Q

What is the recommended management for insulin prior to surgery?

A
  • Decrease long-acting by 20% the night prior
  • Discontinue short-acting insulin the morning of surgery
  • Discontinue oral antihyperglycemic agent the night prior
112
Q

What are common end-organ complications of diabetes?

A
  • Cardiovascular complications
  • Autonomic neuropathy
  • Diabetic nephropathy
  • GI neuropathies
113
Q

What is a notable impact of diabetes on cardiovascular health?

A

Increased risk of intraoperative hypotension, hypothermia, and sympathetic response to intubation.

114
Q

What is the preferred method of glucose management perioperatively?

A

Continuous IV infusion.

115
Q

What should be monitored postoperatively in diabetic patients?

A
  • Blood glucose checks
  • Insulin administration
  • Awareness of potential cardiovascular changes
116
Q

What does precise glucose monitoring prevent during the surgical process?

A

Prevents adverse events from occurring.

117
Q

What should be considered for the anesthetic plan in diabetic patients?

A

It should be highly individualized for the present condition and extent of the procedure.

118
Q

What percentage of adults in the U.S. are classified as obese?

A

75%

This classification refers to individuals with a BMI greater than or equal to 30 kg/m².

119
Q

By what percentage has obesity in individuals 20 years and older increased since 1994?

A

19%

This statistic highlights the rising trend of obesity over the years.

120
Q

What is the increased risk of death for individuals with obesity in the U.S.?

A

10-50% higher risk of death from all causes

This includes risks associated with surgery.

121
Q

What does BMI stand for and how is it calculated?

A

Body Mass Index; calculated as weight (in kg)/height (in meters squared)

BMI is a measure used to categorize individuals based on body fat.

122
Q

What is the BMI range for overweight individuals?

A

25-29 kg/m²

This classification is part of the BMI categorization.

123
Q

What is the BMI threshold for severe obesity?

A

> 40 kg/m²

This indicates a significantly higher risk for health complications.

124
Q

What is the purpose of calculating Ideal Body Weight (IBW)?

A

To correlate with the lowest morbidity/mortality for a given population

Useful for certain drug calculations to prevent toxicity.

125
Q

List four cardiac history considerations for physical assessment.

A
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Prior myocardial infarction (MI)
  • Hypertension (HTN)
  • Angina

These factors can affect anesthesia management.

126
Q

What respiratory history considerations should be assessed?

A
  • Orthopnea
  • Wheezing
  • Sputum production
  • Obstructive sleep apnea

Important for understanding the patient’s respiratory status.

127
Q

What gastrointestinal conditions should be assessed in obese patients?

A
  • GERD
  • Hiatal hernia
  • Gallstones
  • Pancreatitis
  • Dyspepsia
  • NAFLD

These conditions can impact surgical procedures.

128
Q

What endocrine symptoms may indicate dysfunction in obese patients?

A
  • Oligomenorrhea
  • Menorrhagia
  • Hirsutism

These symptoms can suggest issues with thyroid, adrenal cortex, or pituitary gland.

129
Q

Fill in the blank: Obesity creates a higher risk for ________ and gastric reflux.

A

hiatal hernia

This can subsequently increase the risk for aspiration.

130
Q

What is the recommended awake intubation criteria for patients?

A

BMI >50 or other risk factors such as OSA

Awake intubation is advised to mitigate aspiration risks.

131
Q

What equipment should be ensured for preoperative considerations?

A
  • Correct size equipment
  • Difficult airway equipment
  • Monitoring equipment

These considerations are crucial for managing obese patients effectively.

132
Q

What should be avoided in airway placement for obese patients?

A

Sniffing positioning

Ramp shoulders and head instead to promote adequate ventilation.

133
Q

What are the recommended intraoperative ventilator settings for obese patients?

A
  • FiO2 <0.8
  • PEEP 10-12 cmH2O
  • Tidal volume 6-10 mL/kg ideal body weight

These settings help prevent complications such as atelectasis.

134
Q

What pharmacokinetic changes are associated with obesity?

A
  • Increased adipose
  • Cardiac output
  • Blood volume
  • Lean body weight
  • Renal clearance

These changes affect medication dosing and efficacy.

135
Q

What is the treatment protocol for rhabdomyolysis in bariatric surgeries?

A
  • Fluids
  • Bicarb
  • Mannitol

Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent renal failure.

136
Q

What are the four main risk factors for thromboembolism after bariatric surgery?

A
  • BMI of 60
  • Truncal obesity
  • Obesity hypoventilation syndrome/sleep apnea

These factors significantly increase the likelihood of postoperative complications.

137
Q

What is the STOP-BANG questionnaire used for?

A

To assess the risk of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

It includes questions about snoring, tiredness, observed apnea, and other risk factors.

138
Q

What chronic conditions are linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

A
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Hypertension
  • Stroke
  • Diabetes
  • Heart failure

These associations underline the importance of diagnosing and treating OSA.

139
Q

What chronic conditions can result from chronic hypoxemia and hypercapnia associated with OSA?

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea has been linked to:
* Atherosclerosis
* Hypertension/Pulmonary HTN
* Stroke
* Diabetes
* Insulin resistance
* Dyslipidemia
* Heart failure
* Ischemic heart disease

Chronic conditions associated with OSA can significantly impact overall health.

140
Q

How is obstructive sleep apnea diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed by polysomnography

Polysomnography is an extensive sleep study that monitors various body functions during sleep.

141
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for obstructive sleep apnea?

A

CPAP

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is the most common and effective treatment for OSA.

142
Q

What are the classifications of the number of abnormal respiratory events per hour of sleep?

A

Mild = 5-15
Moderate = 15-30
Severe = >30

These classifications help determine the severity of obstructive sleep apnea.

143
Q

What are some alternative treatments for obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Alternatives include:
* Hypoglossal nerve stimulator
* Surgery to remove excess tissue
* Adjunctive analeptic drugs

These alternatives may be considered based on individual patient needs and circumstances.

144
Q

What is a critical pre-anesthesia consideration for patients with OSA?

A

Go in with a plan

Planning is essential to manage the unique challenges posed by OSA during anesthesia.

145
Q

What can small doses of anesthetic agents cause?

A

May cause severe reactions

Patients with OSA may be more sensitive to anesthetic agents, necessitating careful dosing.

146
Q

What strategies are recommended for difficult airway management in patients with OSA?

A

Strategies include:
* Fiberoptic awake intubation
* Video laryngoscope and other adjuncts

These strategies are critical for ensuring safe intubation in patients at risk of airway complications.

147
Q

What are some anesthesia complications associated with OSA?

A

Complications include:
* Difficult Airway
* Difficult intubation
* Difficult ventilation
* Increased airway complications from opioids
* Risk of hypoxia from Propofol
* Increased risk of postoperative failure from neuromuscular blockade

Awareness of these complications is crucial for anesthesiologists treating patients with OSA.

148
Q

What should be ensured during extubation in patients with sedative agents still effective?

A

Extubation with sedative agents still in effect can lead to airway obstruction

Proper timing for extubation is essential to prevent complications.

149
Q

What monitoring is crucial post-anesthesia for patients with OSA?

A

Ensure:
* Close monitoring
* EtCO2
* Pulse oximetry
* Patient brings home CPAP
* Prolonged PACU time if severe

Close monitoring can help prevent serious complications post-surgery.

150
Q

True or False: Life-threatening complications from obstructive sleep apnea can arise during procedures requiring anesthesia.

A

True

Identifying and managing the risk of sleep apnea is vital for patient safety during anesthesia.

151
Q

Fill in the blank: It is important to ________ the patient’s respiratory status post-surgery.

A

Closely monitor

Continuous assessment is key to ensuring patient safety.

152
Q

What should be avoided as much as possible when formulating a plan for anesthesia induction in patients with OSA?

A

CNS depressing agents

Avoiding these agents can help reduce the risk of complications.

153
Q

What is the relevance of CHF to anesthesia?

A

CHF affects cardiac output, fluid balance, and oxygenation, making anesthesia challenging.

This reduces the heart’s ability to handle perioperative stress.

154
Q

What are the mortality estimates for patients with CHF undergoing surgery?

A

10% for elective surgery to as high as 30% for abdominal surgery.

Heart failure is a major independent predictor of adverse perioperative outcomes in noncardiac surgery.

155
Q

What causes heart failure?

A

An insult that alters perfusion and leads to a state of neurohumoral imbalance.

The myocardium is unable to pump enough blood to satisfy the body’s metabolic demands.

156
Q

What compensatory mechanisms are activated in heart failure?

A

Activation of the SNS, RAAS system, and ventricular remodeling (hypertrophy).

Neurohormonal activation worsens fluid retention and increases risks of tachycardia and arrhythmias.

157
Q

What does the NYHA Functional Classification categorize?

A

Functional status and prognosis of heart failure patients.

It includes four classes: I (Mild), II (Slight), III (Moderate), IV (Severe).

158
Q

What does Stage A of the ACC/AHA Staging represent?

A

High risk for heart failure with no structural disease.

Example: Patient with hypertension or diabetes mellitus.

159
Q

What is the goal of preoperative evaluation in CHF patients?

A

Stabilize the patient before surgery to prevent cardiac decompensation.

This includes addressing underlying diseases and optimizing medications.

160
Q

What is the normal range for ejection fraction (EF)?

A

> 50-60%.

Mild dysfunction is 41-49%, moderate dysfunction is 26-40%, and severe dysfunction is < 25%.

161
Q

What are standard monitors used during anesthesia?

A

ECG, NIBP, SpO₂, ETCO₂.

Advanced hemodynamic monitoring may include arterial lines and TEE.

162
Q

What does the Frank-Starling Law describe?

A

The relationship between myofibril stretching during diastole and the ejected stroke volume.

Increased preload can lead to a greater force of contraction, but this may not correlate well in CHF patients.

163
Q

What is the main goal of drug therapy for arrhythmias during anesthesia?

A

Correct electrolyte imbalances, treat hemodynamic abnormalities, and prevent progression of the arrhythmia.

Common arrhythmia in CHF include Atrial Fibrillation (AFib).

164
Q

What are the benefits of regional anesthesia in CHF patients?

A

Less anesthetic drug requirements, possibly less hypotension or cardiac depression.

Risks include potential bradycardia and hypotension.

165
Q

What is a significant postoperative consideration for patients with an EF of less than 35%?

A

Higher incidence of postoperative heart failure and death.

Multimodal analgesia should be used with caution, especially with NSAIDs.

166
Q

What should be done for fluid management in CHF patients?

A

Diuresis if needed due to fluid shifts and maintain adequate oxygenation.

Early mobilization is also important.

167
Q

What is the impact of psychiatric disorders on anesthesia response?

A

Psychiatric disorders can potentiate the effects of anesthesia drugs and may cause crises perioperatively when medications are stopped abruptly.

168
Q

List some psychiatric disorders that can affect anesthesia.

A
  • Bipolar disorder
  • Depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • PTSD
  • Anxiety
  • Substance abuse disorder
  • Delirium
169
Q

What are the common characteristics of depression?

A
  • Imbalance of GABAergic and glutamatergic activity
  • Deficiency of neurotransmitters like dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin
  • High risk of suicidal ideation
170
Q

What are some treatment options for depression?

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
  • SSRIs
  • SNRIs
  • MAO inhibitors
  • ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy)
171
Q

True or False: Anxiety is linked to GABA dysfunction.

172
Q

What is the relationship between PTSD and anesthesia?

A

PTSD can be linked to GABA dysfunction and may cause increased anxiety and cortisol levels, delaying recovery.

173
Q

What are the symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • Poor grooming
  • Disorganized behavior
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Emotional detachment
174
Q

What is the recommended treatment for substance abuse disorders?

A
  • Monitor for withdrawal symptoms
  • Administer opioids or benzodiazepines as needed
  • Postpone elective surgeries if necessary
175
Q

What characterizes bipolar disorder?

A

It is characterized by manic episodes alternating with depressive episodes.

176
Q

What is the narrow therapeutic range for lithium therapy?

A

0.8–1.0 mEq/L

177
Q

What are the early signs of lithium toxicity?

A
  • Confusion
  • Sedation
  • Muscle weakness
  • Tremor
  • Slurred speech
178
Q

What is the role of anesthesia providers in Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A

Anesthesia providers administer general anesthesia to ensure amnesia and prevent injuries during the procedure.

179
Q

Fill in the blank: Preoperative assessment of __________ is vital to obtain any psychiatric history.

A

mental status

180
Q

What should be done for patients with chronic schizophrenia preoperatively?

A

Continue antipsychotics to prevent delirium and agitation postoperatively.

181
Q

What are the risks associated with SSRIs and SNRIs during surgery?

A

They can increase bleeding risk due to inhibiting serotonin reuptake by platelets.

182
Q

What are some signs of anxiety in children aged 2 to 10?

A

Exhibit separation anxiety.

183
Q

True or False: Patients with dementia are candidates for regional anesthesia.

184
Q

What are the side effects associated with lithium therapy?

A
  • Mild leukocytosis
  • T-wave changes (reversible)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Diabetes insipidus-like syndrome
185
Q

What is a common treatment for patients with anxiety disorders?

A
  • SSRIs
  • SNRIs
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol)
186
Q

What is a major concern when treating patients with substance abuse issues perioperatively?

A

Patients may go into withdrawal, causing seizures if not given the required substances.

187
Q

What medications should be continued preoperatively in patients with depression, anxiety, PTSD, and alcohol dependence?

A

SSRIs, SNRIs, and benzodiazepines

These medications help prevent withdrawal symptoms.

188
Q

What is a potential intraoperative risk associated with SSRIs and SNRIs?

A

Increased bleeding risk due to inhibition of serotonin reuptake by platelets

This is based on the findings of Elisha et al. (2023).

189
Q

How do SSRIs and SNRIs metabolize?

A

They are metabolized by the CYP450 system in the liver

Many drugs used in the operative room also utilize the CYP450 system.

190
Q

What syndrome can be caused by MAOIs, SSRIs, and TCAs?

A

Serotonin syndrome

Symptoms include anxiety, tachycardia, delirium, seizures, hypertension, and muscle rigidity.

191
Q

What effect do TCAs have on the MAC of inhalation agents?

A

TCAs increase the MAC of inhalation agents

This finding is documented by Elisha et al. (2023).

192
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Lithium?

A

0.8 to 1.0 mEq/L

Lithium can cause prolonged neuromuscular blockade and cardiac effects.

193
Q

What is the effect of Lithium on MAC?

A

It decreases MAC due to blocking norepinephrine and epinephrine

This means a lower dose is needed to induce and maintain anesthesia.

194
Q

What is a common postoperative complication in elderly patients?

A

Postoperative delirium

This is especially prevalent in patients with preoperative cognitive impairment.

195
Q

What condition is emergence delirium commonly associated with?

A

Pediatrics

Elisha et al. (2023) note this as a frequent occurrence.

196
Q

Which patient populations are more likely to experience complications from emergence delirium?

A

Elderly, schizophrenia, and bipolar patients

These populations face higher risks for cognitive dysfunction.

197
Q

What do anticholinergic agents like atropine and scopolamine increase the risk of?

A

Postoperative sedation, confusion, and delirium

This risk is heightened in patients on psychiatric medication.

198
Q

What is the effect of TCAs such as Amitriptyline on anticholinergic symptoms?

A

They potentiate anticholinergic symptoms

This effect is supported by Butterworth et al. (2022).

199
Q

What can decrease the risk of emergence delirium?

A

Administration of dexmedetomidine

It should be given 15 to 20 minutes before the end of the procedure.

200
Q

What is a consequence of preexisting psychiatric disorders in patients using sedative medication?

A

Delayed awakening

This effect is noted by Elisha et al. (2023).

201
Q

What psychiatric conditions alter patients’ physiological and psychological responses to anesthesia?

A

Depression, anxiety, PTSD, bipolar disorder, and substance abuse

These conditions significantly impact anesthetic requirements.

202
Q

What neurotransmitters are key in psychiatric conditions affecting anesthesia?

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, GABA, and glutamate

Imbalances in these neurotransmitters play a crucial role.

203
Q

What should be done to prevent adverse drug interactions and complications?

A

Thorough psychiatric history and medication review

This is essential for safe anesthesia management.

204
Q

When should elective surgery be postponed?

A

In actively intoxicated or withdrawing substance-abuse patients

This is to ensure patient safety.

205
Q

What monitoring is required for patients on Lithium?

A

Monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic range

Lithium can prolong neuromuscular blockade and decrease MAC.

206
Q

What must be individualized in anesthesia planning?

A

Intraoperative anesthesia plan

This is necessary due to medication interactions and hemodynamic instability.

207
Q

What should postoperative care address?

A

Withdrawal, pain, and mental health stability

This is crucial for holistic patient recovery.