Week 4 Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What antibiotic binds bacterial RNA polymerase at the active center, blocking the elongation of mRNA?

Spectrum: Myobacterium tuberculosis, extended

What are two methods of bacteria resistance to this?

What are the adverse effects?

A

Rifampin

Intrinsic resistance- some strains, the drug is unable to bind the beta subunit of RNA polymerase

Acquired resistance- the strain acquires a mutation in the rpoB gene (codes for beta subunit)

turns body fluid ORANGE-RED, GI side effects

induction of cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP3A4 can induce the metabolism of other medication leading to organ rejection and loss of seizure control

impairment of liver function leads to higher blood serum levels

excreted in feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What bactericidal abx inhibits RNA polymerase?

Spectrum: NARROW, sparing many gut flora, Gram + anaerobes (C diff)

How are bacteria resistant?

A

Fidaxomicin

resistance has occured via point mutation in RNA pol in vitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What group of abx is bactericidal by inhibiting DNA replication by binding bacterial DNA topoisomerase II (gyrase) and IV?

name three drugs in this group:

Spectrum: broad spectrum Gram +, Gram -, and atypical organisms like Mycoplasma (no cell wall), HAP, UTIs

How is resistance formed?

A

Flouroquinolones

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

Resistance is formed by overprescribing for UTI, respiratory, and acute GI infections:

 - active efflux
 - mutations in topoisomerases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between topoisomerase II (gyrase) and IV?

Which is associated with flouroquinolones mechanism of action in Gram + and Gram -.

A

topoisomerase II (gyrase)- when inhibited it can’t relax the positively supercoiled DNA required for normal transcription and replication

GRAM -

topoisomerase IV interferes with separation of replicated chromosomal DNA (decatenation) into the respective daughter cells during division

GRAM +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drugs can cause double-stranded DNA breaks and cell death along with their main action on topoisomerases?

A

flouroquinilones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What generally happens with upregulation of transporter capable of effluxing?

A

multidrug resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the adverse effects of flouroquinolones?

A

GI probs

confusion and photosensitivity

C diff colitis

Candida vaginitis

Contraindicated in pregnant and breastfeeding women and children due to arthropathy

Formation of Chelate cations if taken with Ca, Fe, Al, Zn (avoid dairy products and Ca-fortified juice)

Adjust for renal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name two Folate antagonists that indirectly inhibit DNA synthesis:

Are these drugs bateriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug is a para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) analog and acts as a competitive inhibitor to PABA?

What organisms is it effective against?

Why?

A

Sulfamethoxazole

Bacteria and fungi that synthesize their own folate.

Because PABA is a substrate that comes before dihydrofolic acid in tetrahydrofolic acid synthesis. This is also why bacteria that uptake dihydrofolic acid are resistant to sulfonamides if there is enough present in their environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can bacteria that need to synthesize dihydrofolte resist sulfamethoxazole? (3 ways)

A
  1. change in dihydropteroate synthetase
  2. increased efflux
  3. increased production of PABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the adverse effects of Sulfonamides?

A

Hypersensitivity-rash, Steven-Johnson syndrome

cross reaction to drugs containing sulfonamide moieties

crystalluria–>acute renal failure

Hemolysis if glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase is deficient

Kernicterus- neurologic condition occuring is severely jaundiced newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drugs compete for binding to albumin leading to free bilirubin?

Why is this bad?

A

Sulfonamides

free bilirubin causes complications with other drugs like warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drug inhibits DHFR in bacteria that uptake folate from their environment but has low affinity for that enzyme in humans?

How are bacteria resistant?

What are the adverse effects?

A

Trimethoprim

Altered DHFR, increased amounts of DHFR, alternative metabolic pathways

GI probs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name and describe the bactericidal “sequential blockade” of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.

Spectrum: broad treatment of UTIs, Pneumocystis

A

Bactrin

Mechanism: sequential blockade of the folate synthesis pathway but if sulfa-allergy can use trimethaprim alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the two drugs that, when reduced, create an “electron sink” generating free radical leading to DNA strand breaks and cell death (bactericidal)

Spectrum: Anaerobic bacteria including C diff, protozoa

Resistance: rare

What are it’s adverse effects?

A

Metronidazole and Tinidazole

Adverse effects: nausea, diarrhea, headache, metallic taste

avoid during pregnancy

Disulfiram-like reaction with EtOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This drug is only metabolized to its active form in anaerobes:

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the disulfiram-ethanol reaction caused by mixing booze and Metronidazole:

A

Metronidazole blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase, inhibiting oxidation of acetaldehyde and therefore increasing its concentration ofter EtOH consumption

HANGOVER sx: headache, nausea, vomitting, sweating, hypotension, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drug is reduced by bacterial flavoproteins to REACTIVE INTERMEDIATES?

What does that cause?

Spectrum: broad, rapidly excreted in the urine in active form, used for UTIs

No resistance, YAY

But what are the adverse effects?

A

Nitrofurantoin

Inactivates or alters bacterial ribosomal proteins to inhibit the synthesis of DNA, RNA, cell wall, and protein.

Adverse effects: vomiting, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the drug to chose for Mycobacteria tuberculosis (along with 3 other drugs due to high rate of resistance)?

A

Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an expensive new drug for Gram + anaerobes like C diff that has a narrow spectrum and saves many of the gut flora?

A

Fidaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What class of drugs would you chose for broad spectrum coverage of Gram + and - and atypical organisms like Mycoplasma, HAP, and UTIs?

A

Fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What combo of drugs could be used for broad spectrum treatment of UTIs and pneumocystis?

A

TMP-SMX (Bactrin)

23
Q

Two drugs you could use for anaerobic bacteria including C diff, and protozoa…but don’t add EtOH:

A

Metronidazole and tinidazole

24
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for oxazolidinones?

Name drugs in this class:

A

bacteriostatic- binds to the 23s rRNA on 50s subunit and prevents formation of initiation subunit

resistance: modifications in the 23s rRNA
* **unique binding site prevents cross resistance with other drug classes

linezolid

25
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for aminoglycosides?

Name drugs in this class:

A

bactericidal- prevents formation of initiation complex causing misreading and inducing early termination

Intrinsic resistance: failure of drug to enter cell (anaerobic)–> cotreat with cell wall inhibitor
Acquired resistance: acquisition of enzyme which inactivates the drug through acetylation, phosphorylation, or adenylation

Gentimicin, Amikacin, Tobramycin, Neomycin, Streptomycin

26
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for tetracyclines?

Name drugs in this class:

A

bacteriostatic- binds 30s subunit of ribosome preventing attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA

Intrinsic resistance: decreased uptake

Acquired resistance:

 - increased efflux
 - alteration of ribosomal target
 - rarely enzymatic inactivation of drug (acetyl)

Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Minocycline

27
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for chloramphenicol?

A

bacteriostatic- binds 50s ribosomal subunit preventing peptide bond formation; peptidyltransferase can’t associate with amino acid substrate

Resistance: acetyltransferase modifies drug to prevent binding to ribosome

28
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for macrolides?

Name drugs in this class:

A

bacteriostatic- inhibits translocation by binding to 23s of 50s subunit

Resistance: methylation of 23s binding site (also asoociated with clindamycin and quinupristin/dalfopristin resistance)

  • increased efflux
  • hydrolysis of macrolide by esterases

Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin

29
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for lincosamides?

Name a drug in this class:

A

bacteriostatic- blocks translocation at 50s subunit

Resistance: mutation of ribosome

  • methylation of rRNA (D test)
  • cross resistance with macrolides and streptogramins
  • inactivation of drugs by adenylation

Clindamycin

30
Q

What is the mechanism of action, what is the binding site, and what are the resistances for streptogramins?

Name drugs in this class:

A

combined action bactericidal for some organisms, binds to 50s to inhibit translocation

Resistance: ribosomal methylase prevents binding of drugs to its target

  • enzymes inactivate drugs
  • efflux proteins pump drugs out of cell
  • cross resistance with macrolides and clindamycin

Quinupristin, Dalfopristin

31
Q

Four drug classes susceptible to decreased uptake resistance:

A

Tetracyclines

Sulfonamides

Aminoglycosides

Chloramphenicol

32
Q

Seven drug classes susceptible to increased efflux:

A

cephalosporins

aztreonam

tetracyclines ***MOST IMPORTANT, with the exception of minocycline

macrolides

quinupristin/dalfopristin

fluoroquinolones

sulfonamides

33
Q

Ten drug classes inhibited by target alteration:

Describe each:

A

beta lactams- altered penicillin binding protein (MRSA)

vancomycin- altered target

rifampin- ddRNA polymerase

fluoroquinolones- DNA topoisomerases II or IV

sulfonamides- dihydropteroate synthetase

trimethoprim- DHFR

linezolid- altered ribisome (50s)

aminoglycosides- altered ribosome (30s), uncommon

erythromycin, clindamycin, quinupristin/dalfopristin
-methyltransferase modified ribosome (50s)

tetracylines- production of proteins that interfere with ribosomal binding

34
Q

Drug class inhibited by upregulation of substrate:

What is the substrate?

A

sulfonamides

PABA

35
Q

Nine drug classes inactivated by enzymes:

What are the enzymes or mechanisms of inactivation?

A

penicillins- beta lactamases

cephalosporins- beta lactamases

aminoglycosides- acetyl group, Amikacin most resistant

chloramphenicol- acetyltransferase action

tetracyclines- minor acetylation

macrolides- bacterial esterases

clindamycin- adenylation

quinupristin/dalfopristin

metronidazole- decreased drug activation

36
Q

Bactericidal inhibitors of protein synthesis that act on 303 ribosome (5 of them):

A

Aminoglycosides

  1. streptomycin
  2. neomycin
  3. amikacin
  4. gentamicin
  5. tobramycin
37
Q

Bacteriostatic inhibitors of protein synthesis that act on 30s ribosome (4 of them):

A

Tetracyclines

  1. Doxycycline
  2. minocycline
  3. demecocycline
  4. tetracycline
38
Q

Bacteriostatic inhibitors of protein synthesis that act on 50s ribosome (7 of them):

A

Macrolides:

  1. erythromycin
  2. azithromycin
  3. clarithromycin
  4. clindamycin
  5. chloramphenicol
  6. linezolid
  7. quinupristin/dalfopristin
39
Q

Two drugs not safe for use in newborns:

Why?

A

Chloramphenicol, sulfonamides

they can’t glucuronidate

40
Q

Two drug classes not safe for use in children:

A

fluoroquinolones, tetracyclines

41
Q

Six drugs/classes not safe for use during pregnancy:

A
  1. tetracyclines
  2. aminoglycosides
  3. clarithromycin
  4. fluoroquinolones
  5. chloramphenicol
  6. sulfonamides
42
Q

Three drug classes need adjusting for reduced renal function (usually in the elderly; increased half life):

A

beta lactams

aminoglycosides

fluoroquinolones

43
Q

Toxicity associated with seizures:

A

beta lactams, particularly carbapenams

44
Q

Toxicity associated with hepatotoxicity:

45
Q

Toxicity associated with neprotoxicity:

A

sulfonamides

aminoglycosides

vancomycin

46
Q

Toxicity associated with ototoxicity:

A

aminoglycosides, vancomycin

47
Q

Toxicity associated with QTc interval prolongation:

A

macrolides, fluoroquinolones

48
Q

Toxicity associated with anemia:

A

chloramphenicol, trimethoprim

49
Q

Toxicity associated with arthralgia:

A

quinupristin/dalfopristin, fluoroquinolones

50
Q

Toxicity associated with disulfiram reaction when taken with EtOH:

A

metronidazole

2nd gen cephalosporins with methylthiotetrazole groups

51
Q

Toxicity associated with superinfection:

A

clindamycin

fluoroquinolones

3rd gen cephalosporins

ampicillin

52
Q

Which drug induces cytochrome p450 drug metabolizing enzymes creating the possibility of drug-drug interactions?

53
Q

Two drugs that inhibit hepatic metabolism:

A

clarithromycin and erythromycin (2 macrolides)