week 3 content Flashcards

1
Q

types of surgery
- __________– comes in, has surgery, goes home on same day
- ____________– comes in for surgery, post op admission
- _________– admitted to hospital, has surgery, stays post op

same day admit , inpatient , ambulatory

A

types of surgery
- ambulatory – comes in, has surgery, goes home on same day
- same day admit – comes in for surgery, post op admission
- inpatient – admitted to hospital, has surgery, stays post op

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2
Q

SATA

Purpose of surgery
- diagnosis
- cure
- palliation
- prevention
- exploration
- cosmetic improvement

A

all

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3
Q

timing of surgery - elective surgery, semi elective surgery, urgent surgery, emergency surgery

o physical or psychological improvements to quality of life
o no urgent need for something to be done quickly, flexibility in scheduling
o ex – cataract removal, breast reduction
o general risks – bleeding, infection, anesthetic exposure
o low mortality/morbidity ris

A

elective surgery

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4
Q

timing of surgery - elective surgery, semi elective surgery, urgent surgery, emergency surgery

o more time sensitive that elective – priority compared to elective, not so urgent that it must be within 24 hours
o ex – cholecystectomy for gallstone removal, uterine artery ablation for postmenopausal bleeding from fibroids
o low mortality/morbidity risk

A
  • semi-elective surgery
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5
Q

timing of surgery - elective surgery, semi elective surgery, urgent surgery, emergency surgery

o surgery required within 24 hours of diagnosis – to prevent unnecessary complications that can occur with waiting
o ex – hip fracture repair, appendectomy

A
  • urgent surgery
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6
Q

timing of surgery - elective surgery, semi elective surgery, urgent surgery, emergency surgery

o cant be delayed and must occur within 24 hours, but ideally within 2 hours
o any delay may promote critical injury or systemic deterioration, required as a result of an urgent medical condition
o ex – GI bleed, subdural hematoma

A
  • emergency surgery
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7
Q

subjective assessment of patient: patient interview/history
- check documented information
- occurs in advance or on day of surgery
- purpose:

  1. obtain health info
     previous surgeries
     previous anesthetics reactions to ___ and ___
     family health history
     current medication use – ___, ___, ___
     allergies and intolerances – ___
     illicit drug use and tobacco use – encourage quit smoking ___ weeks prior to surgery
     current pregnancy and date of LMS
  2. determine expectations
  3. provide and clarify information on procedure
     explore pts understanding of the need for surgery to be performed
  4. assess emotional state and readiness
     is there anything else you would like to share with me or think I should know
A

 previous surgeries
 previous anesthetics reactions to self and family
 family health history
 current medication use – prescription, OTC, herbal
 allergies and intolerances – latex
 illicit drug use and tobacco use – encourage quit smoking 6 weeks prior to surgery
 current pregnancy and date of LMS

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8
Q

SATA
latex allergy risk factors

  • history of anaphylactic reaction during procedure
  • first surgical procedure
  • food allergies – kiwi
  • food allergies – banana
  • food allergies – avocado
  • food allergies – peanuts
  • allergy to poinsettia plant
  • daily exposure to latex
  • history of reaction to latex – balloons, condoms
  • family history of latex
A
  • history of anaphylactic reaction during procedure
    X - multiple surgical procedures
    X - food allergies – kiwi, banana, avocado, chestnuts
  • allergy to poinsettia plant
  • daily exposure to latex
  • history of reaction to latex – balloons, condoms
    X - family history of latex (NOT A FACTOR)

it is for anasthesia!

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9
Q

subjective assessment of patient pre-op care includes

_________________
Inventory of body systems obtained through asking questions to identify s/s that confirm presence or absences of any disease

A

ROS - Review of systems

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10
Q

objective assessment of patient pre op includes

  • physical exam (along with _________, required by joint commission)
  • diagnostic study – results must be in __________
A
  • physical exam (along with history, required by joint commission)
  • diagnostic study – results in chart
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11
Q

teaching SATA
1. sensory information
o noise, lights, temp, etc.
2. procedural information
o getting ready for surgery
3. process information
o general flow of surgery
o preop area
o caregiver rules and waiting area
4. informed consent RN responsibility

A
  1. sensory information
    o noise, lights, temp, etc.
  2. procedural information
    o getting ready for surgery
  3. process information
    o general flow of surgery
    o preop area
    o caregiver rules and waiting area
    X 4. informed consent RN responsibility - surgeons obligation/responsibility
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12
Q

who explains
 diagnosis
 purpose of surgery
 risks of surgery – common, uncommon, serious, unserious
 alternative treatment and risk
 risks of not treating
 who will conduct surgery
 short term costs – pain, length of stay, recovery time
 long term costs – loss of function, restriction of activity, scarring

to the patient pre op?

A
  • informed consent = surgeons obligation/responsibility
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13
Q

informed consent SATA
- patient must agree that they have significant comprehension by providing signature on form
- voluntary process
- surgeon preforming surgery will explain/discuss this with patient
- if pt is minor, unconscious, or mentally incompetent – written permission may be given by a legally appointed rep or responsible family member
- emancipated minor – younger than legal age of consent but is not recognized as having legal capacity to provide consent
- a true medical emergency may override the need to obtain consent

A

X - patient must demonstrate significant comprehension
- voluntary process
- surgeon preforming surgery will explain/discuss this with patient
- if pt is minor, unconscious, or mentally incompetent – written permission may be given by a legally appointed rep or responsible family member
X - emancipated minor – younger than legal age of consent but is recognized as having legal capacity to provide consent
- a true medical emergency may override the need to obtain consent

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14
Q

preop informed consent
nurse’s role SATA
- witness patients’ signature
- be patient advocate
- answer appropriate questions
- give opinion about procedure when asked

if pt expresses concerns about procedure - SATA
 find out concerns
 convince patient to go through with procedure based on risk of not treating information
 answer what nurse can
 let provider/surgeon know that pt has concerns and/or 2nd thoughts

A

preop informed consent
nurse’s role SATA
- witness patients’ signature
- be patient advocate
- answer appropriate questions
X- give opinion about procedure when asked

if pt expresses concerns about procedure - SATA
 find out concerns
X convince patient to go through with procedure based on risk of not treating information
 answer what nurse can
 let provider/surgeon know that pt has concerns and/or 2nd thoughts

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15
Q

intra op

Phase begins when the patient is wheeled into the ______ and ends when transferred to the _______

A

Phase begins when the patient is wheeled into the OR and ends when transferred to the immediate postoperative recovery area (PACU)

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16
Q

intra op nurse roles

  • RNFA –
  • CRNA –
  • _________
    o Remains in sterile field (follows sterile scrubs, gown, glove procedure)
  • ___________
    o Remains in unsterile field (not scrubbed, gowned, gloved) – records all nursing care
A

Nurse roles
- RNFA – RN first assistant
- CRNA – certified RN anesthetist
- Scrub nurse
o Remains in sterile field (follows sterile scrubs, gown, glove procedure)
- Circulating nurse
o Remains in unsterile field (not scrubbed, gowned, gloved) – records all nursing care

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17
Q

intra op safety - SATA

  • Time out – for safety, the entire surgical team will verify before incision is made
    o Correct patient
    o Correct surgical site
    o Correct level, laterality, or structure, etc.
    o Correct date
    o Correct procedure
    o Correct patient position
    o Availability of correct implants and any special equipment or requirements
A

o Correct patient
o Correct surgical site
o Correct level, laterality, or structure, etc.
Xo Correct date
o Correct procedure
o Correct patient position
o Availability of correct implants and any special equipment or requirements

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18
Q

intra op safety

  • At least ___ pt identifiers
  • Site identification
    o Surgeries involving extremities, laterality (right vs left), multiple structures (fingers, toes) or levels (spine) of the body must have surgical site markings (surgeon initials) by the surgeon, on __________, and must be visible after the pt has been________
A
  • At least 2 identifiers
  • Site identification
    o Surgeries involving extremities, laterality (right vs left), multiple structures (fingers, toes) or levels (spine) of the body must have surgical site markings (surgeon initials) by the surgeon, on incision site, and must be visible after the pt has been draped
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19
Q
  • Improper pt positioning during intraop could cause SATA
    o n/v
    o Muscle strain
    o Joint damage
    o Pressure ulcers
    o Nerve damage
A

Xo n/v
o Muscle strain
o Joint damage
o Pressure ulcers
o Nerve damage

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20
Q

Types of anesthesia - Regional, General, Monitored anesthesia care (conscious sedation), Local

___________ anesthesia
- Inhalation or injection (or both) of anesthetic drug, resulting in loss of all sensation and consciousness with amnesia

__________ anesthesia
- Medication is instilled into or around nerves to block transmission of nerve impulses in a particular region
- Loss of sensation without loss of consciousness
- Ex – nerve block, bier block, spinal, epidural

_______ anesthesia
- Temporary loss of feeling as result of inhibition of nerve endings in part of body
- Loss of sensation without loss of consciousness

____________ anesthesia
- Similar to general anesthesia, but does not involve inhaled agents
- loss of all sensation without loss of consciousness, amnesia, but pt stays responsive

A

General anesthesia
- Inhalation or injection (or both) of anesthetic drug, resulting in loss of all sensation and consciousness with amnesia

Regional anesthesia
- Medication is instilled into or around nerves to block transmission of nerve impulses in a particular region
- Loss of sensation without loss of consciousness
- Ex – nerve block, bier block, spinal, epidural

Local anesthesia
- Temporary loss of feeling as result of inhibition of nerve endings in part of body
- Loss of sensation without loss of consciousness

Monitored anesthesia care (conscious sedation)
- Similar to general anesthesia, but does not involve inhaled agents
- loss of all sensation without loss of consciousness, amnesia, but pt stays responsive

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21
Q

___________________
inherited muscle disorder triggered by certain types of anesthesia that may cause fast acting life-threatening crisis

SATA
- triggering agents result in unregulated calcium accumulation
- 90% have no family history
- 50% have had uneventful anesthesia history
- No way to predict it = be aware it can happen and act quickly!!

A

malignant hyperthermia
inherited muscle disorder triggered by certain types of anesthesia that may cause fast acting life-threatening crisis
- triggering agents result in unregulated calcium accumulation
- 90% have no family history
- 50% have had uneventful anesthesia history
- No way to predict it = be aware it can happen and act quickly!!

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22
Q

post op patient is
showing signs of malignant hyperthermia SATA

  • hypercarbia
  • sinus bradycardia
  • general muscle rigidity
  • hyperthermia (is the presenting sign)
  • sustained muscle contraction
  • muscle breakdown – rhabdomyolysis
  • anaerobic metabolism
  • metabolic acidosis

antidote = dantrolene IV or calcium carbonate IV?

A

early presentation
- hypercarbia
X- sinus tachycardia
- general muscle rigidity
X- hyperthermia is not the presenting sign

  • sustained muscle contraction
  • muscle breakdown – rhabdomyolysis
  • anaerobic metabolism
  • metabolic acidosis

antidote = dantrolene IV

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23
Q

Perioperative nursing: postoperative care

starts in ________ and goes beyond (ongoing care in ICU, step-down or med-surg units)

PACU nursing care focus: SATA
- Recovery from general anesthesia
- Airways management
- Pain management
- Close observation of physiologic indicators
- monitoring for GI return

T/F - All preop orders are continued in postop in addition to some new orders from surgeon

A

starts in PACU and goes beyond (ongoing care in ICU, step-down or med-surg units)

PACU nursing care focus:
- Recovery from general anesthesia
- Airways management
- Pain management
- Close observation of physiologic indicators
X- monitoring for GI return

F - All preop orders are d/c and surgeon gives new orders postop

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24
Q

post op Respiratory problems SATA

  1. Hypoxia due to
    o Shallow breaths
    o Anesthesia
    o anorexia
    o Obstruction of airway
    o Respiratory depression
    o Laryngospasm
  2. Atelectasis
  3. PNA
A
  1. Hypoxia due to
    o Shallow breaths
    o Anesthesia
    X o obesity
    o Obstruction of airway
    o Respiratory depression
    o Laryngospasm
  2. Atelectasis
  3. PNA
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25
Q

Prevention
post op Respiratory problems SATA
- Raise HOB
- VS
- oxygen
- suction
- Effective coughing – splint PRN
- ISO
- Turn Q2
- Early ambulation
- Pain management when pt reports pain higher than 4/10

A
  • Raise HOB
  • VS, O2, oxygen, suction
  • Effective coughing – splint PRN
  • ISO
  • Turn Q2
  • Early ambulation
    X- Pain management – ATC dosing
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26
Q

post op Cardiovascular problems
1. Decreased CO
o Indirect measures = ______, ________, ______, _____
2. DVT
o Esp ____, _____, ______
3. Pulmonary embolus

A

o Indirect measures = BP, HR, pulses, skin temp/color

o Esp OA, obese, immobilized

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27
Q

post op Cardiovascular problems Prevention
- Monitor VS – compare trends to baseline
- Leg and ankle exercises – mimic walking to promote venous return and reduce risk of clot
- SCDs
- Ambulation
- Phlebitis assessment
- Monitor/protect wound
- raise HOB

A
  • Monitor VS – compare trends to baseline
  • Leg and ankle exercises – mimic walking to promote venous return and reduce risk of clot
  • SCDs
  • Ambulation
  • Phlebitis assessment
  • Monitor/protect wound
    X - raise HOB- respiratory
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28
Q

post op Cardiovascular problems Prevention

should nurse Notify HCP if -

  1. SBP <90 or >160 and symptomatic (Rapid or weak pulse and Cold clammy skin)
  2. SBP <90 or >160 and normal pulse and warm/pink skin
  3. Pulse pressure narrows
  4. BP trends increase over several readings
  5. BP trends decrease over several readings
  6. Change in heart rhythm
  7. Pulse <60 or >120 and first dose of pain meds was given 5 minutes ago
  8. Pulse <60 or >120 with no obvious reason for cause of BP
A
  1. SBP <90 or >160 and symptomatic (Rapid or weak pulse and Cold clammy skin) = needs immediate intervention, could be impending hypovolemic shock

X 2. SBP <90 or >160 and normal pulse and warm/pink skin = keep monitoring, usually vasodilation from anesthesia

  1. Pulse pressure narrows = difference between SBP and DBP
  2. BP trends increase over several readings
  3. BP trends decrease over several readings
  4. Change in heart rhythm

X 7. Pulse <60 or >120 and first dose of pain meds was given 5 minutes ago = obvious reason, monitor

  1. Pulse <60 or >120 with no obvious reason for cause of BP
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29
Q

Neurological and psychological problems post op - SATA

restlessness
disorientation
thrashing
shouting
depression
delirium

A

all

***restlessness = think hypoxia!!
But it can be caused by other things like anesthesia, pain, ET tubes, etc.

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30
Q

Pain problems post op - SATA
- Post op pain = intermittent
- ATC dosing required
- Watch for s/e like respiratory depression esp if opioid naïve
- Pain increases as anesthesia wears off
- Pharmacologic pain interventions = supplemental
- Nonpharmacologic pain interventions = focus

A

Pain problems
X - Post op pain = continuous, ongoing pain
- ATC dosing
- Watch for s/e (respiratory depression, esp if opioid naïve)
- Pain increases as anesthesia wears off
X - Pharmacologic pain interventions = focus
X - Nonpharmacologic pain interventions = supplemental

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31
Q

Body temp problems post op

hypothermic
- During surgery pt may become hypothermic bc of ___________ during procedure

Hyperthermic
- First 48 hours = suspect infection of no?

o First 48 hours Mild fever (<100.4) =
- inflammatory response to surgical stress = expected finding, monitor it
- lung congestion, dehydration = pulmonary toilet, increase fluids
- infection – wound, urinary, respiratory = look where infection could be, WBC with diff

o First 48 hours Moderate fever (>100.4)
- inflammatory response to surgical stress = expected finding, monitor it
- lung congestion, dehydration = pulmonary toilet, increase fluids
- infection – wound, urinary, respiratory = look where infection could be, WBC with diff

  • After 48 hours Elevation of fever (>100)
  • inflammatory response to surgical stress = expected finding, monitor it
  • lung congestion, dehydration = pulmonary toilet, increase fluids
  • infection – wound, urinary, respiratory = look where infection could be, WBC with diff
A

Body temp problems
hypothermic
- During surgery pt may become hypothermic bc of body heat loss during procedure
Hyperthermic
- First 48 hours (too soon to have a fever from infection)
o Mild fever (<100.4) = inflammatory response to surgical stress = expected finding, monitor it
o Moderate fever (>100.4) = lung congestion, dehydration = pulmonary toilet, increase fluids
- After 48 hours
o Elevation of fever (>100) = infection – wound, urinary, respiratory = look where infection could be, WBC with diff

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32
Q

24 hours post op
temp 99.9

suspicion =
action =

A
  • First 48 hours (too soon to have a fever from infection)
    o Mild fever (<100.4) = inflammatory response to surgical stress = expected finding, monitor it
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33
Q

36 hours post op
temp 101.4

suspicion =
action =

A
  • First 48 hours (too soon to have a fever from infection)
    o Moderate fever (>100.4) = lung congestion, dehydration = pulmonary toilet, increase fluids
34
Q

24 hours post op
temp 99.9

48 hours post op
temp 101.4

72 hours post op
temp 101.8

suspicion =
action =

A

infection – wound, urinary, respiratory = look where infection could be, WBC with diff

35
Q

GI problems post op
Monitor for SATA
- return of bowel sounds
- distended abd
- absent bowel sounds
- low/deep bowel sounds
- pain

A
  • return of bowel sounds
  • distended abd
  • absent
    X - high-pitched bowel sounds
  • pain
36
Q

GI problems post op
prevention SATA
- assess and treat nausea
- gradually advance diet as tolerated
- monitor dietary intake
- ambulation
- hydration
- monitor bowel sounds and compare each shift
- privacy to use bathroom
- make sure they have anti-diarrheals ordered

A
  • assess and treat nausea
  • gradually advance diet
  • monitor dietary intake
  • ambulation
  • hydration
  • monitor bowel sounds and compare each shift
  • privacy to use bathroom
    X - make sure they have stool softeners ordered
37
Q

post op
GI problems SATA
- Gas/distention
- Nausea
- Constipation
- Paralytic ileus
- diarrhea

GU problems
- urinary retention
- UTI
- polyuria

A

post op
GI problems SATA
- Gas/distention
- Nausea
- Constipation
- Paralytic ileus
X- diarrhea

GU problems
- urinary retention
- UTI
X- polyuria

38
Q

Prevention GU problems post op SATA

  • I&O – monitor urine output, should be >10 ml/hr
    o UO indicates renal perfusion
    o Low BP and low CO = low UO (kidney not being perfused well by heart)
  • Assess urge to void
  • Palpate bladder – can use bladder scanner
  • Encourage voiding in a normal position
  • Obtain order for cath only if no voiding within 4 hours after surgery
  • Examine quantity and quality of urine
  • confusion in elderly could be a sign of UTI
  • remove cath as soon as possible
A

X - I&O – monitor urine output, should be >30 ml/hr
o UO indicates renal perfusion
o Low BP and low CO = low UO (kidney not being perfused well by heart)
- Assess urge to void
- Palpate bladder – can use bladder scanner
- Encourage voiding in a normal position
X - Obtain order for cath only if no voiding within 6-8 hours after surgery
- Examine quantity and quality of urine
- confusion in elderly could be a sign of UTI
- remove cath as soon as possible

39
Q

Integument problems post op
- Infection - Assess wound pain, drainage (amount, color, odor, consistency)
- __________ - separation of the layers of a surgical wound
- ____________ - more severe complication that occurs when the internal organs protrude through a dehisced wound

A
  • Dehiscence - separation of the layers of a surgical wound
  • Evisceration - more severe complication that occurs when the internal organs protrude through a dehisced wound
40
Q

Prevention Integument problems post op SATA
- Monitor wound each shift
- Protect with dressing, keep clean, dry, aseptic technique
- Nutrition – increased CHO, proteins, calories, vitamins, hydration
- Infection control

who is at risk? SATA
obese
old
coughing
getting up

A

all

all

41
Q

output sources SATA
- Indwelling catheters
- Suprapubic catheters
- Ostomies
- med admin with fluid
- eating food
- G-tube to foley bag to drain until bowels wake up
- Tenckhoff catheter
- Rectal tubes/fecal management systems
- NG tube suction
- drinking fluid
- Wound vac
- Wound drain (penrose)
- Closed suction drain (hemovac, Jackson pratt)
- IV fluid
- T tube
- Chest tubes

A

output sources SATA
- Indwelling catheters
- Suprapubic catheters
- Ostomies
X- med admin with fluid
X- eating food
- G-tube to foley bag to drain until bowels wake up
- Tenckhoff catheter
- Rectal tubes/fecal management systems
- NG tube suction
X- drinking fluid
- Wound vac
- Wound drain (penrose)
- Closed suction drain (hemovac, Jackson pratt)
X- IV fluid
- T tube
- Chest tubes

42
Q

diffusion or osmosis?

  • Definition: The net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
  • Applies to: Any type of molecule, including gases, liquids, and solids.
  • Example: The diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli into the bloodstream.
A

diffusion

43
Q

who is the only one the pushes the PCA button?

if he is too sleepy/sedated to push it, this prevents him from getting “too” sedated

a precursor to _____ ______

A

pt

respiratory depression

44
Q

T/F

PCAs are IV

PCAS are epidural

both require monitoring of exit site

every PCA pump will contain an opioid

A

all true

45
Q

PCA pump - basal vs bolus

_______- the amount of medication (ml) the patient gets everytime he pushes the button

________ - continuous rate, pt is getting this medication amount (ml) whether he pushes the button or not

whats lockout time?

A

bolus - the amount of medication (ml) the patient gets every time he pushes the button

basal rate - continuous rate, pt is getting this medication amount (ml) whether he pushes the button or not

lock out time - PCA pumped is “locked” after bolus for a certain amount of time to prevent the pt from overdosing. 6-10 mins.

46
Q

maximum possible dosage/hr = bolus amount + max amount of doses/hr + basal rate

ex
bolus = 1ml
lockout = 6 mins
max amount of doses/hr = 10 doses (60 mins/6 mins)
basal = 1 ml

maximum possible dosage/hr =

A

maximum possible dosage/hr = 11
bolus = 10/hour
basal = 1/hour

47
Q

PCA history

note and document every shift

tells you:

2.

A
  1. how many attempts/hr = how many times he hit the button
  2. actual boluses received that hour
48
Q

PCA pump
with 6 min lockout -

if pt makes 5 attempts in 6 mins, how many bolus of meds will he get?

what does this mean?
1.
2.

A

1

  1. he is not getting enough pain meds - consult HCP after pain assessment
  2. pt education required - he doesn’t understand the lockout interval and/or how to use PCA pump
49
Q

PCA assessment/monitoring - assess for these side effects

SATA

  • respiratory depression
  • constipation
  • altered LOC
  • itching
  • urinary retention
  • nausea

PCA antidote =

A

all

narcan (for opioids)

50
Q

2 origins of pain

______ : Damage to tissues, such as skin, muscles, or joints.

______ : Damage to the nerves themselves.

A

nociceptive - Damage to tissues, such as skin, muscles, or joints.

neuropathic - Damage to the nerves themselves.

51
Q

nociceptive or neuropathic

_______ treatment = adjuvant therapy (anticonvulsants, antidepressants)

_________ treatment = non-opioids, opioids, adjuvant therapy

A

neuropathic ( Damage to the nerves themselves) treatment = adjuvant therapy (anticonvulsants, antidepressants)

nociceptive (Damage to tissues, such as skin, muscles, or joints.) treatment = non-opioids, opioids, adjuvant therapy

52
Q

3 types of pain?

which chronic pain is less “free” with opioid use ?

A

acute
chronic malignant - cancer
chronic nonmalignant

chronic nonmalignant

53
Q

gate control theory

if the “gate” is open =

if the “gate” is closed =

what closes the gate?

A

if the “gate” is open = the pain impulse gets to the brain and the person hurts

if the “gate” is closed = the pain impulse doesn’t get to the brain and the person doesn’t hurt

what closes the gate = A alpha and A beta fiber stimulation (large diameter nerve fibers) = rubbing, pressure, hot, cold

54
Q

rubbing, pressure, hot, cold =

large or small diameter nerve fibers?

A alpha and A beta or
B alpha and B beta?

A

large diameter nerve fibers

A alpha and A beta

55
Q

what decreases pain perception? SATA
- rubbing, pressure, hot, cold
- distraction
- visitors present
- avoiding anxiety
- provide teaching and reassurance so they know what to expect

A

all

  • rubbing, pressure, hot, cold

this works by closing the gate = A alpha and A beta fiber stimulation (large diameter nerve fibers)

  • distraction
  • visitors present

these work by sensory inout at brain stem

  • avoiding anxiety
  • provide teaching and reassurance so they know what to expect

these work by producing stimuli at cerebral cortex

56
Q

pathway for fast pain _____ fibers

pathway for slow pain _______ fibers

C and A-delta

A

pathway for fast pain A-delta fibers

pathway for slow pain C fibers

57
Q

pain tolerance vs pain threshold?

____________ - The least amount of pain a person can recognize. (Does not vary from person to
person)

_____________ - The ability to withstand pain stimuli without demonstrating physical signs of pain.
(Varies widely from person to person, and event to event)

A

Pain threshold:

Pain tolerance:

58
Q

Dependence, addiction, tolerance?

_____________ (psychological) – Overwhelming involvement with obtaining a drug for psychic effects.

______________ (Physiological) – The opioid begins to lose its effectiveness & larger doses are
necessary. This would happen to everyone who was on opioids for an extended period. NOT to be
confused with addiction.

______________ (Physiological) – Withdrawal symptoms would occur if the drug were to be
withdrawn abruptly. This would happen to everyone who was on opioids for an extended period.
NOT to be confused with addition.

A

o Addiction:

o Tolerance:

o Dependence

59
Q

Classifications of Analgesics: ___________

T/F

morphine is the gold standard drug of choice

avoid taking meperidine (Demerol) for more than 2 days (choose a different drug on the MAR)

Percocet is oxycodone PLUS
acetaminophen (be sure to read the labels carefully)

antidote = naloxone (Narcan)

opioids
(except for codeine) have a ceiling effect

A

o Opioids

all true

except

X - opioids
(except for codeine) do NOT have a ceiling effect

60
Q

Classifications of Analgesics: ___________

NSAIDS & Tylenol

T/F

Tylenol does NOT have anti-inflammatory properties, thus it can
can be clumped with the NSAIDS

there IS a ceiling effect with non-opioids

A

o Non-opioids

X - Tylenol does NOT have anti-inflammatory properties, thus it CAN’T be clumped with the NSAIDS

there IS a ceiling effect with non-opioids

61
Q

Classifications of Analgesics: ___________

T/F

example = gabapentin (Neurontin)

although an anticonvulsant by
classification, it works well with neuropathic pain

A

Adjuvant therapy

all true

62
Q

3 Classifications of Analgesics

A

opioids

non-opioids

adjuvant therapy

63
Q

s/e of opioids or non-opioids?

sedation
GI upset
pruritis
increased bleeding time
urinary retention
constipation
renal problems
increased MI/CVA risk
resp depression
liver issues

A
  • sedation - O
  • GI upset - NO (NSAIDS)
  • pruritis - O
  • increased bleeding time - NO (NSAIDS)
  • urinary retention - O
  • constipation - O
    renal problems - NO (NSAIDS)
    increased MI/CVA risk - NO (celecoxib)
    resp depression - O
    liver issues - NO (tylenol)
64
Q

MPORTANT: Take no more than ____ grams of Tylenol in 24
hrs (hepatotoxic)

antidote =

A

4 grams or 4000 mg

antidote = acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).

65
Q

Delegation
What can be delegated to UAP?

  • Obtain daily weights and vital signs
  • interpreting weight and vitals
  • Offer frequent oral care
  • Record accurate I&O
  • Perform skin care
  • Perform frequent position changes
  • Elevate edematous extremities
  • Encourage oral fluids as appropriate
A
  • Obtain daily weights and vital signs
    X- interpreting weight and vitals
  • Offer frequent oral care
  • Record accurate I&O
  • Perform skin care
  • Perform frequent position changes
  • Elevate edematous extremities
  • Encourage oral fluids as appropriate
66
Q
  • Major ECF cation (+)
  • water follows this
  • Activates muscle/nerve cells (action potential)
  • Impacted by fluid volume status
    o High fluid = low sodium
    o Low fluid = high sodium
  • Governs osmolality
    o most osmolality in body is made up of _____
    o Osmolality refers to the concentration of solutes (particles) in a solution
    o A high _______ concentration leads to a high osmolality.
A

sodium

67
Q

135 – 145 normal

3.5 – 5 normal

A

sodium

potassium

68
Q

sodium normal levels

potassium normal levels

A

135-145

3.5 – 5

69
Q

________ = think brain
hypo and hyper = Altered mental status (AMS)!!

_________ = think heart
hypo and hyper = EKG changes!! cardiac dysrhythmias

________ = think muscles and bones
- hyper = think sedative (relaxes)
- Hypo = think tetany (locks up), more sensitive to stimuli, Sustained muscle contraction, Chvosteks sign – face, Trousseaus sign – BP cuff and wrist

_________ = think muscles and nerves
- Hyper = think nerves and muscles slowed down (resembles hyper?)
- Hypo = think nerves and muscles revved up (resembles hypo?)

__________ = think opposite of ?
hyper = Asymptomatic or Symptoms of hypo? (revved up)
hypo = symptoms of hyper? (think sedative/relaxes)

phosphorus, magnesium, sodium, calcium, potassium

A

Na = think brain
hypo and hyper = Altered mental status (AMS)!!

K = think heart
hypo and hyper = EKG changes!! cardiac dysrhythmias

Ca = think muscles and bones
- hyper = think sedative (relaxes)
- Hypo = think tetany (locks up), more sensitive to stimuli, Sustained muscle contraction, Chvosteks sign – face, Trousseaus sign – BP cuff and wrist

mg = think muscles and nerves
- Hyper = think nerves and muscles slowed down (resembles hypercalcemia)
- Hypo = think nerves and muscles revved up (resembles hypocalcemia)

ph = think opposite of calcium
hyperphosphatemia = Asymptomatic or Symptoms of hypocalcemia (revved up)
hypophosphatemia = symptoms of hypercalcemia (think sedative/relaxes)

70
Q

High potassium food
Fruit
- Apricot
- Apples
- Avocado
- Banana
- Cantaloupe
- Dried fruit
- Grapefruit
- Guava
- Honeydew
- Oranges
- Prunes
- Pineapple
- Raisins
- Raspberries

A
  • Apricot
    X- Apples
  • Avocado
  • Banana
  • Cantaloupe
  • Dried fruit
  • Grapefruit
    X- Guava
  • Honeydew
  • Oranges
  • Prunes
    X- Pineapple
  • Raisins
    X- Raspberries
71
Q

High potassium food
Vegetables
- Asparagus
- Black beans
- Butternut squash
- Broccoli
- Brussel sprouts
- Carrots
- Greens
- Kale
- Mushrooms
- Potatoes
- Spinach
- Tomatoes
- Veggie juice

A

X- Asparagus
- Black beans
- Butternut squash
- Broccoli
X- Brussel sprouts
- Carrots
- Greens
X- Kale
- Mushrooms
- Potatoes
- Spinach
- Tomatoes
- Veggie juice

72
Q

High potassium food
Other foods
- Bran
- Chocolate
- Granola
- Milk
- Nutritional supplement
- Nuts and seeds
- Peanut butter
- Red meat
- Salt substitute
- Salt free broth
- Salmon
- Yogurt

A
  • Bran
  • Chocolate
  • Granola
  • Milk
  • Nutritional supplement
  • Nuts and seeds
  • Peanut butter
    X - Red meat
  • Salt substitute
  • Salt free broth
    X - Salmon
  • Yogurt
73
Q

Chvosteks sign – _______

Trousseaus sign – __________

which electrolyte imbalance?

A

Chvosteks sign – face,
Trousseaus sign – BP cuff and wrist

  • Hypocalcemia = think tetany (locks up), more sensitive to stimuli, Sustained muscle contraction,
74
Q

antidote for hypo________ is
- IV calcium gluconate

indicated for symptomatic, asymptomatic, or both?

hypermagnesemia
- If symptomatic = IV calcium gluconate (opposes effects of excess Mg on cardiac muscle = sppeds up)

A

hypocalcemia

symptomatic

75
Q

hypermagnesemia

  • Limit diet intake (green veg, nuts, banana, oranges, peanut butter, choclate)
A
76
Q

ca and mg = work together or inverse?

ca and phosphorus = work together or inverse?

A

together
hypermagnesemia resembles hypercalcemia and hypomagnesemia resembles hypocalcemia

inverse
hyperphosphatemia resembles hypocalcemia (revved up)
hypophosphatemia resembles hypercalcemia (think sedative/relaxes)

77
Q

treatment:

hyperphosphatemia = calcium based phosphate binders (calcium carbonate) - why?

_______________ = Mylanta and magnesium sulfate, IV magnesium sulfate

________________ =
- IV isotonic saline
- Bisphosphonate injection – pamidronate is gold standard if caused by cancer
- Calcitonin injections – causes rapid excretion, short term solution

A

think ca and phos work opposite, introduce ca to lower phos. also binders will help with excretion via stool

hypomagnesemia

hypercalcemia

78
Q

nursing care: _____________

  • IV KCL – safety alert
    o Vesicant
    o Always dilute, never IV push
    o Should not exceed 10 mEq/hr unless in ICU setting and have CVAD
    o Infiltration can cause necrosis
  • Hypokalemia precipitates Digoxin toxicity

digoxin antidote =

A

hypokalemia

Digibind

79
Q

treatment for =

o Loop/thiazide diuretics – only a good option if kidneys work
o Dialysis
o Drugs – patiromer (veltessa) or sodium polystyrene sulfonate (kayexalate) – takes hours or days to work so not for emergency

(temp fix to stabilize pt so we can fix the cause)
o Insulin and dextrose
o If acidotic = sodium bicarb

A

hyperkalemia

80
Q
  • gradually achieve normal sodium over ___ hour period to avoid edema of cerebral cells (life-threatening)
A

24-48

81
Q

nursing care: hypokalemia

T/F

  • IV KCL – safety alert
    o Vesicant
    o never dilute, always IV push
    o Should not exceed 10 mEq/hr unless in ICU setting and have CVAD
    o Infiltration can cause necrosis
  • Hypokalemia precipitates Digoxin toxicity

digoxin antidote = dextrose

A

nursing care: _____________

  • IV KCL – safety alert
    o Vesicant
    Xo Always dilute, never IV push
    o Should not exceed 10 mEq/hr unless in ICU setting and have CVAD
    o Infiltration can cause necrosis
  • Hypokalemia precipitates Digoxin toxicity

X digoxin antidote = digibond