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Random Bits > Week 3 bb revision > Flashcards

Week 3 bb revision Flashcards

1
Q

Monoclonal
Immunoglobulin light chain
urine or serum

A

Bence-Jones protein

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2
Q

Bence-Jones found in what conditions

A

Multiple Myeloma
Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia
Amyloidosis

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3
Q

Blood serum paraprotein GREATER than 30

A

Multiple Myeloma

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4
Q

Amyloid in myeloma-associated amyloidosis

A

AL amyloid

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5
Q

Initial multiple myeloma chemo pre-autologous stem cell transplant

A

Lenalidomide + dexamethasone

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6
Q

proteasome inhibitor used for multiple myeloma

A

Bortezomib

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7
Q

Old patient with multiple myeloma not eligible for transplant. What treatment do they get?

A

melphalan and prednisolone

with either thalidomide or bortezomib

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8
Q

Which immunoglobulin is raised in macroglobulinaemia?

A

IgM

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9
Q

The most common paraprotein in multiple myeloma

A

IgG

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10
Q

Raised beta2-microglobulin

A

Poor prognosis in multiple myeloma

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11
Q

Weight loss and IgM paraprotein on electrophoresis

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia

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12
Q

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

A

Hairy-cell leukaemia

Gaucher’s disease

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13
Q

Haemolytic anaemia refractory to corticosteroids, next line treatment?

A

Splenectomy and rituximab

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14
Q

Chemo options for CLL?

A

FCR = Fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, Rituximab

CHOP = Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vincristine and Prednisolone

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15
Q

Antiproliferative used in polycythaemia vera

A

Hydroxyurea

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16
Q

Anagrelide

A

Reduces platelets in thrombocythaemia

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17
Q

Lecuovorin

A

Methotrexate rescue drug

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18
Q

Solid organ transplant, MS, NHL

Reduces B lymphocytes more than T

A

Rituximab

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19
Q

Treatment of hodgkins

A

ABVD (Doxorubicin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Decarbazine) +/- radiotherapy

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20
Q

Raised ESR

History of temporal arteritis

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

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21
Q

Schistocytes

anaemia

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

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22
Q

Gram-negative monocytosis, urease positive

A

Brucella

Urease negative = salmonella

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23
Q

C1 inhibitor deficiency aka…

A

hereditary angioedema

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24
Q

Bubonic plague

A

Yersinia pestis

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25
Q

Dodgy water source

Profuse, non-bloody diarrhoea

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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26
Q

Rat bite fever

sodoku

A

Spirillium minus

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27
Q

Cat-scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae or Bartonella quintana

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28
Q

Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

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29
Q

Hunter who has been skinning animals

A

Tularemia

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30
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans

A

Lyme disease

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31
Q

A form of brucella …
Mediterranean
Goats
Easy culture

A

Brucella melitensis

‘m’ for mediterranean

Brucella abortus is more common in cows

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32
Q

Ulceration
Black and necrotic
Gram positive rods
Respond to penicillin

A

Bacillus anthracis

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33
Q

Trichophyton rubrum

A

Tinea pedis

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34
Q

Epidermophyton floccosum

A

Tinea pedis

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35
Q

Tichophyton interdigitale

A

Tinea pedis

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36
Q

Fungus associated with hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Aspergilllus flavus

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37
Q

Malassezia furfur

A

Pityriasis versicolor

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38
Q

Malassezia restricta

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

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39
Q

Malassezia globosa

A

Sebrrhoeic dermatitis

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40
Q

Woods lamp exam - yellow or orange

A

Pityriasis versicolor

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41
Q

Woods lamp exam - red pink fluorescence

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

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42
Q

India ink with halo around the cell

A

Cryptoccus neoformans

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43
Q

Swollen and painful limb near a boil

A

Staphylococcal osteomyelitis

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44
Q

Female
Macular rash
Pain in wrists and hands
No respiratory symptoms

A

Rubella

This is common for women, more than men

45
Q

Clutton’s joints

A

symmetrical joint swelling with congenital syphillis

46
Q 
Radiography:
Oval, elliptical or serpentine 
sclerosis
granulation
nidus
A

Brodie’s abscess - subacute osteomyelitis

47
Q

RANK ligand is involved with the differentiation of which bone product?

A

osteoclast differentiation and activation

48
Q

This type of bone is 80-90% calcified and has mostly mechanical and protective functions

A

Cortical

49
Q

bone which is haphazard in its organisation of collagen fibers and is mechanically weak

A

Woven/fibrous bone

50
Q

Bone which has a regular parallel allignment of collagen into sheets and is mechanically strong

A

lamellar bone

51
Q

These star shaped cells are important in the regulation of bone formation and are the most commonly found tissue in the bone marrow.

A

osteocytes

52
Q

This part of bones has fibrous and cambium layers which are involved in fibroblast and osteoblast formation.

A

Periosteum

53
Q

This type of bone is found towards the ends of long bones near the joints and has trabeculae aligned towards the mechanical load distribution.

A

Cancellous aka trabecular aka spongy bone

54
Q

onion-skin on radiograph

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

55
Q

CD99 immunostain

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

56
Q

Bone-in-bone radiological appearance

A

Osteopetrosis

57
Q

marble bone

A

osteopetrosis

58
Q

Bone conditions with Codman’s triangle

A

Osteosarcoma

Ewing’s sarcoma

59
Q

Sun burst, moth-eaten, fir-tree appearance on radiograph

A

Osteosarcoma

60
Q

Hypercalcaemia with hypocalciuria in an otherwise well patient

A

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

61
Q

Condition caused by hyperparathyroidism, may see Brown’s tumours on xray

A

Osteitis Fibrosa cystica

62
Q

Young men
Dull pain in long bone which gets worse at night
Relieved with NSAIDs

A

Osteoid osteoma

63
Q

Anastomosing bony trabeculae

Osteoblastic rimming

A

Osteoid osteoma

64
Q

Hard immobile painless palpable mass that is slowly growing

Teenager

A

osteochondroma

65
Q

Cavity in bone filled with yellow fluid which grow next to epiphyseal plate until it fills the entire diaphysis.
Can lead to fractures

A

Simple bone cyst

66
Q

Glycogen on staining cells from a bone biopsy

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

67
Q

Rings and arcs calcification

A

Enchondroma

68
Q

Cartilage cyst in bone

A

Enchondroma

69
Q

Bone tumour that exhibits osteoblastic differentiation and produces malignant osteoid

A

Osteosarcoma

70
Q

This lung cancer is often found alongside LEMS

A

Small-cell

71
Q

anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

72
Q

Initial hyperthyroidism with neck pain

Returns to normal within a few weeks

A

De Quervain’s

73
Q

This teratoma is often malignant and found in men

A

Immature

74
Q

This teratoma is often benign and found in women

A

mature

75
Q

This tumour can present as an ovarian mass. It is multi-lobular with a smooth lining of epithelium. Most often are benign.

A

Mucinous tumour

76
Q

A neoplasm that produces oestrogen typically

Spindle cells with moderate pale cytoplasm containing lipid droplets and central nuclei

A

Thecoma

77
Q

Ovarian neoplasm

cells surrounded by serous fluid and psammomma bodies

A

Seroud cystadenocarcinoma

78
Q

mucin-secreting signet-ring cells in the tissue of the ovary

A

Krukenburg tumour

79
Q

A malignancy in the ovary that has metastasized from a primary site - can show mucin-secreting signet-ring cells in the tissue of the ovary.

A

Krukenburg tumour

80
Q

Ovarian tumour which has uniform germ cells mixed with lymphocytes

A

Dysgerminoma

81
Q

Rises in placental alkaline phosphatase, hCG, LDH but not classically alpha fetoprotein

A

Seminoma

82
Q

Schiller-Duval bodies

A

Endodermal sinus tumour

83
Q

Neoplasm composed of cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblase cells

A

Choriocarcinoma

84
Q

Arise from the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules

A

Seminona

85
Q

This tumour can produce masculinisation in women with raised serum testosterone.

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour

86
Q

Metaplasia that occurs in the transformation zone which involves which cell-types?

A

Glandular to squamous epithelium

87
Q

Breast investigation that gives histology

A

Core biopsy

88
Q

Breast investigation that gives cytology

A

FNA

89
Q

Common drug used for cardiovascular conditions which affects kidney’s ability to excrete uric acid

A

Aspirin

90
Q

Which drug competes with uric acid for the organic acid transporter in the kidney thereby increasing serum urate

A

Thiazide diuretics

91
Q

Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s indicate what biochemical state …

A

hypocalcaemia

92
Q

What is PTH-rP?

A

PTH related peptide - undetectable by usual PTH test . Common cause for malignant hypercalcaemia

93
Q 
Short metacarpals
Rounded facies
Low serum calcium
High phosphate
High PTH
A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism aka Albright’s hereditary osteodystrophy

94
Q

Bowing of long bones in adults

A

Paget’s

95
Q

IgM spike

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia

96
Q

young COPD patient with worsening LFTs

A

?Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency which can lead to liver cirrhosis

97
Q

Micrognathia
posterior displacement of tongue
upper airway obstruction
clef palate

A

Pierre-Robin sequence

98
Q

T and B cell lymphocyte infiltration of the islets of Langerhans leading to inflammation and destruction of the beta cells

A

Insulitis

99
Q

The three hormones used in the combined pituitary function test

A

Insulin
GnRH
TRH

100
Q 
Overweight with central obesity
Hypertension
Raised triglycerides
PCOS
erectile dysfunction
A

Metabolic syndrome

101
Q

Massive accumulation of chylomicrons in the plasma and severe hypertriglyceridaemia.
The plasma has a creamy appearance.

A

Lipoprotein lipase deficiency

102
Q

This molecule is formed by the gut post-meal and carries dieatary triglycerides

A

Chylomicrons

103
Q

The smallest lipoprotein particle which transports cholesterol to the liver

A

HDL

104
Q

Persistent jaundice from day 1 of life which has been worsening

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

105
Q

Haemoglobinuria … intra or extra vascular haemolysis?

A

Intravascular haemolysis

106
Q

Niacin deficiency

A

Pellagra

107
Q

Delayed motor development
Self-mutilation, e.g. biting
Sand-like crystals in nappies

A

Lysch-nyhan syndrome

108
Q

The virus that can only propagate in the presence of HBV.

A

Hepatitis D virus

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