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Random Bits > Week 2 bb Q revision > Flashcards

Week 2 bb Q revision Flashcards

1
Q

organism

  • faeco-oral route
  • epidemics
  • shelffish from seawater containing sewage
A

Hepatitis A

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2
Q

organism

  • distal colon
  • acute mucosal inflammation and erosion
  • person-to-person contact
  • fever, pain, diarrhoea and dysentry
A

Shigella

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3
Q

organism

  • ileum, appendix and colon
  • invades peyer patches
  • mesenteric lymph node enlargement with necrotising granulomas
  • complications = peritonitis, pharyngitis, pericarditis
A

Yersinia

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4
Q

organism

  • cysts/trophozoites founds in faeces
  • complications of amoebic coltis, liver abscess, pleuropulmonary/cerebral amoebiasis
A

Entamoeba histiolytica

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5
Q

This type of vaccine is generally effective with one dose, can cause severe reactions in immunocompromised and are prone to destruction by heat or light.

A

Live attenuated vaccines

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6
Q

Which vaccine is known to revert back to its original disease-causing form?

A

Live oral polio

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7
Q

This type of vaccine can’t cause disease even in an immunodeficient person, they require boosters and it is mostly humoral immunity stimulated.

A

Inactivated vaccines

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8
Q

Mnemonic for live attenuated vaccines

A

BOMb YO IV

BCG
Oral polio
MMR

Yellow fever
Oral typhoid

Influenza
Varicella

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9
Q

An antigen assembled in a multimeric form and saponin that provokes a strong serum antibody response.

A

Immunostimulatory complexes (ISCOMS)

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10
Q

Conjugate vaccines given for …

A

Hib, pneumococcal and meningococcal disease

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11
Q

Live attenuated vaccine that is no longer given as standard in the UK since the rates of reverse mutation are higher than those of active disease.

A

Polio (Sabin)

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12
Q

Sterility in adult males may occur if a particular vaccine is not administered. Which one is it?

A

Mumps

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13
Q

Mnemonic for inactivated vaccines?

A

CARP Fish

Cholera
hep A
Rubella
Polio

Flu

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14
Q

A recombinant subunit vaccine

A

Hep B

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15
Q

A water-in-oil emulsion containing mycobacterial cell wall components that could be used to increase the immune response of a vaccine.

A

Freund’s adjuvant

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16
Q

This form of immunity is induced by vaccination.

A

Active immunity

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17
Q

This form of immunity is induced by transfer of ready-made antibodies.

A

Passive immunity

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18
Q

Left sided colicky pain
Relieved by defecation
Constipated stools passed

A

Diverticular disease

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19
Q

Left sided abdominal pain
Relieved by defecation
Tender abdomen and left iliac fossa
Pyrexial with raised WCC and ESR.

A

Diverticulitis

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20
Q 
Young patient
Right iliac fossa pain
diarrhoea
weight loss
oedematous reddened ileum with transmural inflammation and granulomas
A

Crohn’s

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21
Q

large volumes of mucous

cauliflower-like mass covered by dysplastic columnar epithelium in rectum

A

villous adenoma

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22
Q

Transmural and non-caseating granulomas

A

Crohn’s

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23
Q

Woman with lower abdominal pain and fever. Using an IUD for 3 years.

A

Endometritis

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24
Q

A triad of

  • nail dystrophy
  • leukoplakia
  • cutaneous manifestations (such as tan-to-grey hyperpigmented patches)
A

Dyskeratosis Congenita

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25
Q
  • glucocerebrosidase deficiency
  • hypersplenism
  • Ashkenazi Jews
A

Gaucher’s disease

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26
Q

Dapsone use causes haemolysis in what group of patients?

A

G6PD deficiency

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27
Q

What condition is Donath-Landsteiner positive?

A

Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria

28
Q

Mononuclear spot test

A

EBV

29
Q

Paul-Bunnell test

A

EBV

OR! a false positive could be parvovirus B19. (remember Paul-Bunnell = “PB” = Parvovirus B19

30
Q

Anaphylaxis post-transfusion

A

IgA deficiency

31
Q

Donor plasma contains white cell antibodies incompatible with recipient’s white cells.

Chills, fever, dry cough and SOB with cardiac failure.

A

TRALI

32
Q 
Post-transfusion
Fever
erythematous macular papular rash
Cough 
Abdo pain
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
A

TA-GvHD

33
Q

Post-transfusion
mild symptoms of fever and rigors
within 24 hours

A

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)

34
Q

Post-transfusion

Severe symptoms of fever, rigors, tachycardia

A

Bacterial contamination

35
Q

Post-transfusion

diffuse erythematous rash which responds well to chlorpheniramine/acrivastine.

A

Allergic reaction to transfusion

36
Q

One week post-transfusion
severe bruising
low platelets

A

Post-transfusion purpura

37
Q

Acid Phosphatase

A

Prostatic cancer

38
Q

lacunar histiocytes

A

nodular sclerosis Hodgkin’s lymphoma

39
Q

popcorn cells

A

nodular lymphocyte predominant HL

40
Q

small cell with hyperlobulated nucleus and small necleoli

A

aka popcorn cells

a/w nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma

41
Q

Reed-sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

42
Q

A cell whose cytoplasm retracts when fixed in formalin so there appears to be cells lying with empty spaces between them

A 
aka lacunar (the spaces) histiocytes
a/w nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's lymphoma
43
Q 
Poisoning leading to inhibition of acetylcholinesterase along with symptoms:
salivation
lacrimation
urination
defecation
gi upset
emesis
A

Organophosphate

44
Q

Anti-smooth muscle antibody

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

45
Q

Mycophosphorylase deficiency

A

Glycogen storage disease type V - McArdle’s syndrome

46
Q

Alpha galactosidase A deficiency

A

Fabry’s disease

47
Q

Young child.
Very thin.
Distended abdomen.
Nutrient deficiency?

A

Protein

48
Q

Alcoholic
Neurological signs
Nutrient deficiency?

A

Thiamine (B1)

49
Q

Diarrhoea
Dermatitis
Dementia
What nutrient deficiency?

A

Niacin (B3)

condition is called Pellagra, characterised by the three D’s

50
Q

Psychological symptoms
Neurological burning/tingling in peripheries
What nutrient deficiency?

A

B12

51
Q

Looks like a malabsorptive condition
They’re also bleeding
What nutrient deficiency?

A

Vitamin K

52
Q 
Seborrhoeic dermatitis eruption
Atrophic glossitis
Angular chelitis
Sideroblastic anaemia
What nutrient deficiency?
A

B6

53
Q

Radioiodine scan high uptake locally

A

Toxic nodules - multi or single

54
Q

Radioiodine scan high uptake diffuse

A

Graves

55
Q

Raised calcitonin

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

56
Q

Hurthle cell

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

57
Q

Askanazy cell

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

58
Q

Giant cell thyroiditis aka …

A

De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis

59
Q

Therapy for attack of acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Haem arginate

60
Q

Anti-inflammatory drug that is contra-indicated in patients with porphyria

A

Diclofenac

61
Q

Haem arginate

A

Used to treat attack of acute intermittent porphyrias

62
Q

Drug that can result in chronic porphyria

A

Alcohol

63
Q

Drug that is contra-indicated in porphyria (not an NSAID)

A

Co-trimoxazole

64
Q

Porphobilinogen deaminase deficiency

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

65
Q

Neurotoxic product of heme breakdown –> neurovisceral damage

A

5-aminolevulinic acid

66
Q

Enzyme catalyses rate-limiting step of heme breakdown

A

ALA synthase

67
Q

Products of heme breakdown –> photosensitivity damage in certain porphyrias

A

Activated porphyrins and oxygen free radicals

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