Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

3 phases in a PCR reaction

A

-denaturation, annealing, and elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Denaturation

A

heats it up to break apart bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Annealing

A

adds primers (cool down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Elongation

A

activating DNA polymerases so it copies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

amount of cycles used to amplify DNA

A

There are 20-45 cycles; on average: 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

function of PCR

A

Used for medical diagnostics (bacterial and viral confirmation, determination of diseases/genetic mutations i.e. cystic fibrosis through CFTR gene sequencing, forensics, and prenatal diagnoses).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

thermocycler

A

laboratory apparatus most commonly used to amplify segments of DNA via the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

bones that make up cranial fossa

A

6: frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, parietal, occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

anterior cranial fossa:

three groves

A
  • superior sagital sinus (dural venous sinus)
  • anterior meningeal (branch of the ophthalmic artery)
  • nasociliary (branch of the ophthalmic nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

anterior cranial fossa: one fossa

A

-olfactory (olfactory bulb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

anterior cranial fossa: three foramen

A
  • caecum (contains dural diverticulum
  • anterior ethmoid (anterior ethmoid artery, nerve, and vein)
  • posterior ethmoid (posterior ethmoid artery, nerve, and vein)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

anterior cranial fossa: one cristae

A

-gallo (attachment to the falx cerebri)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

middle cranial fossa: two grooves

A
  • chiasmatic-optic canal (optic nerve and opthalmic artery)

- carotid (interior carotid artery and cavernous sinus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

middle cranial fossa: one fissure

A

III, IV, V1, VI, (opthalmic) cranial nerves, superior and inferior opthalmic veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

middle cranial fossa: four foramen

A
  • rotundum (maxillary cranial nerve, emissary veins
  • ovale (mandibular cranial nerve, acessory meningeal artery)
  • spinosum (middle meningeal artery and vein)
  • lacerum (great petrosal nerve)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

middle cranial fossa: three sellae

A
  • tuberculum (anterior wall)
  • turcica (hypophyseal fossa)
  • dorsum (posterior wall)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

middle cranial fossa: three processes

A
  • anterior clinoid
  • middle clinoid
  • posterior clinoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

posterior cranial fossa: 1 meatus

A

-internal auditory(VII, VIII, cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

posterior cranial fossa: 3 foramen

A
  • Magnum (spinal cord to brain stem)
  • Jugular (IX cranial nerve and inferior petrosal sinus; jugular bulb, X/XI cranial nerves)
  • Condyloid (emissary veins and meningeal br of occipital artery)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

posterior cranial fossa: 1 groove

A

-for superior petrosal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

posterior cranial fossa: 1 canal

A

-hypoglossal (XII cranial nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

posterior cranial fossa: 1 aqueduct

A

-vestibular (endolymphatic sinus and duct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

posterior cranial fossa: 1 clivus

A

medulla and pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Olfactory

A

Smell from nasal mucosa of roof of each nasal cavity and superior sides of nasal septum and superior concha
-special sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Optic

A

Vision from retina

-special sensory

26
Q

Oculomotor

A
  • Somatic motor: Motor to superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique, and levator palpebrae superioris muscles; raises superior eyelid; rotates eyeball superiorly, inferiorly, and medially
  • Visceral motor: Parasympathetic innervation to sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscle; constricts pupil and accommodate lens of eye
  • motor
27
Q

Trochlear

A
  • Motor to superior oblique to assist in turning eye inferolaterally (or inferiorly when adducted)
  • motor
28
Q

Trigeminal

A
  • Ophthalmic division (CN V1): Sensation from cornea, skin of forehead, scalp, eyelids, nose, and mucosa of nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses
  • Maxillary division (CN V2): Sensation from skin of face over maxilla including upper lip, maxillary teeth, mucosa of nose, maxillary sinuses, and palate
  • Mandibular division (CN V3): Sensation from the skin over mandible, including lower lip, side of head, mandibular teeth, temporomandibular joint, mucosa of mouth, and anterior two thirds of tongue; Motor to muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani
  • mixed motor and sensory
29
Q

Abducent

A
  • Motor to lateral rectus to turn eye laterally

- motor

30
Q

Facial

A
  • Motor to muscles of facial expression and scalp; also supplies stapedius of middle ear, stylohyoid, and posterior belly of digastric
  • Taste from anterior two thirds of tongue and palate
  • General sensation from skin of both aspects of auricle
  • Parasympathetic innervation to submandibular and sublingual salivary glands, lacrimal gland, and glands of nose and palate
  • mixed motor and sensory
31
Q

Vesitbulocochlear

A
  • Vestibular: Vestibular sensation from semicircular ducts, utricle, and saccule related to position and movement of head
  • Cochlear: Hearing from spiral organ
  • special sensory
32
Q

Glossopharyngeal

A
  • Motor to stylopharyngeus to assist with swallowing
  • Visceral motor: Parasympathetic innervation to parotid gland
  • Special sensory: Taste from posterior third of tongue and pharynx
  • Somatic (general) sensory: Posterior auricle, tragus, posterior 1/3 of tongue, soft palate and pharynx
  • Somatic (general sensory): Tympanic cavity and membrane, pharyngo-tympanic tube, mastoid cells
  • Visceral sensory: Carotid body (chemoreceptors) and sinus (baroreceptor)
  • mixed
33
Q

Vagus

A
  • Somatic motor: Motor to constrictor muscles of pharynx, intrinsic muscles of larynx, muscles of palate (except tensor veli palatini), and striated muscle in superior two thirds of esophagus
  • Visceral motor: Parasympathetic innervation to smooth muscle of trachea, bronchi, digestive tract, and cardiac muscle
  • Visceral sensory: Visceral sensation from base of tongue, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, heart, esophagus, stomach, and intestine
  • Special sensory: Taste from epiglottis and palate
  • Somatic (general) sensory: Sensation from auricle, external acoustic meatus, and dura mater of posterior cranial fossa
  • mixed
34
Q

Spinal accessory

A

Motor to sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

-motor

35
Q

Hypoglossal

A

Motor to intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue (except palatoglossus)
-motor

36
Q

Which of cranial nerve contain parasympathetic nerve fibers

A

III, VII, IX, X

37
Q

pre-ganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies: III

A

Pre: midbrain; post: ciliary ganglion

38
Q

pre-ganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies:
VII

A

pre: pons; post: pterygopalatine ganglion and submandibular ganglion

39
Q

pre-ganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies:
IX

A

pre: medulla; post: optic ganglion

40
Q

pre-ganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies:
X

A

Presynaptic in medulla and postsynaptic in intrinsic ganglia in, on, or near viscera

41
Q

when testing cranial nerve, patients tongue deviates towards the right when she is asked to stick it out; which cranial nerve is affected?

A

XII: Hypoglossal nerve

42
Q

What are the muscles of mastication?

What are they innervated by?

A
  • temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoid, and masseter muscles
  • trigeminal nerve
43
Q

which cranial nerves carry only sensory information?

A

I, II, VIII

44
Q

which cranial nerve extends beyond the head and neck region?

A

trigeminal

45
Q

How molecules separate in standard page

A

smaller bands=lighter

  • Lightest and more negative charge will travel the furthest (to anode)
  • Heaviest will remain closer to the origin
46
Q

Cathode vs anode

A

cathode is negatively charged (cations, which are positively charged, will move toward cathode).
Oppositely, the anode is positively charged (anions, which are negatively charged, will move toward anode).

47
Q

Western blot

A

allows detection of single protein within a sample of many proteins;

48
Q

Northern blot

A

RNA detection

49
Q

Southern blot

A

DNA detection

50
Q

Protein electrophoresis

A
  • test that measures specific proteins in the blood. The test separates proteins in the blood based on their electrical charge.
  • used to find abnormal substances called M proteins. The presence of M proteins can be a sign of a type of cancer called myeloma, or multiple myeloma
51
Q

Step to detect specific protein

A
  • To detect a specific protein, an antibody to that protein must be available.
  • The nitrocellulose membrane blocked with a nonspecific protein solution
  • primary antibody is then added to the membrane where it only binds the protein of interest.
  • The antibody protein complex is finally detected using a secondary antibody that has a detection system attached.
52
Q

Antibody

A
  • immunoglobulin,
  • large, Y-shaped protein produced by plasma cells that is used by the immune system to neutralize pathogens
  • antibody recognizes pathogen with an antigen, via the Fab’s variable region
53
Q

Antigen

A
  • substances specifically bound by antibodies or T lymphocyte antigen receptors.
  • stimulate production of antibodies
54
Q

antigen-binding fragment (Fab)

A
  • region on an antibody that binds to antigens

- composed of one constant and one variable domain of each of the heavy and the light chain.

55
Q

Fc

A

part of antibody that undergoes class switching

56
Q

Polyclonal

A
  • animal gets Ag, and the animal produces antibodies for different parts of the antigen
  • less specific (can identify multiple antigens that are very similar); can get a false positive
57
Q

Monoclonal

A

-more specific, more expensive; can select what to target; can get false negatives

58
Q

Immunohistochemistry

A

-technique for identifying cellular or tissue components using antigen-antibody interactions

59
Q

Direct method of IHC

A
  • Antibody and antigen directly on tissue

- Involves: Labeled antibody; Antigen;Tissue section

60
Q

Indirect method of IHC

A
  • Uses an intermediary step

- Involves: Unlabeled primary antibody; Labeled secondary antibody; Antigen; Tissue section

61
Q

In Situ Hybridization

A

-molecular procedure that enables the direct visualization of nucleic acid targets in cytologic, histologic or karyotypic specimens

62
Q

process of flourescent In Situ Hybridization

A

1) Fluorescence staining
2) Denaturation of chromosome
3) Denaturation of probe; add it to slide
4) Hybridization
Examine slides