Week 12- Patient Management Flashcards

1
Q

What type of approach is essential during diagnostic x-ray procedures?

A

Holistic approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does holistic care begin with the patient?

A

Effective communication between radiographers and patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the benefits of effective communication?

A
  • Alleviate the patient’s uneasiness
  • Increases the likelihood of cooperation and successful completion of the imaging procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How must radiographers limit patient’s exposure to ionizing radiation?

A
  • employ appropriate radiation reduction techniques
  • use protective devices that minimize exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 9 ways patient exposure can be substantially reduced by?

A
  1. Effective communication
  2. Use of proper body or part immobilization
  3. Use of motion reduction techniques
  4. Use of appropriate beam limitation techniques
  5. Adequate filtration of the c-ray beam
  6. Use of specific area shielding
  7. Select suitable exposure factors in conjunction with computer-generated digital images
  8. Use of appropriate digital image processing
  9. Elimination of repeat radiographs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is communication between radiographers and patient effective?

A

When verbal and nonverbal messages are understood as intended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does effective communication encourage in patients?

A

Encourages a reduction in anxiety and emotional stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does effective communication enhance?

A

The professional image of the radiographer as a person who cares about patient well being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does effective communication increase the chances of?

A

Successful completion of the the x-ray exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What must the radiographer do if a procedure will case pain, discomfort or strange sensations?

A

Inform the patient of all before the procedure begins without overemphasizing them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a result of poor communication with a patient?

A

The need to do a repeat radiograph because of inadequate or misinterpreted instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should patient protection begin with during a diagnostic x-ray?

A

Begins with clear, concise instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is there a need for immobilization in imaging?

A

To prevent the patient from moving during the image which will create blur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the consequences of blurred image?

A
  • exams need to be repeated
  • results in additional radiation exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can patient motion be eliminated or minimized?

A
  • proper body or part immobilization
  • use of motion reduction techniques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two types of patient motion?

A

Voluntary and involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of motion does adequate immobilization during exams help reduce?

A

Voluntary motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is shielding needed?

A

To prevent radiation exposure to radio sensitive body organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which areas of the body should be shielded whenever possible?

A
  • lens of eye
  • breasts
  • reproductive organs
  • thyroid glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first step in gonadal shielding?

A

Collimating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What types of shields are used for the eyes?

A

Contact type shields that are positioned directly on the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much more exposure do female reproductive organs involving the pelvis receive than males?

A

3 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How much exposure is reduced in females by a 1mm lead flat contact shield?

A

50% reduction

24
Q

How much is exposure reduced in males with a 1mm lead contact shield?

A

90-95%

25
Q

Where must gonadal shielding be placed to provide protection?

A

Directly over the patient’s reproductive organs

26
Q

What should be used to guide placement of testicular or ovarian shields?

A

External landmarks

27
Q

In male patients in supine position what can be used to guide shield placement over the testes?

A

The pubic symphysis

28
Q

In female patients what should be used to guide shield placement of the ovaries?

A

Shield should be placed approximately 2.5medial to each ASIS

29
Q

What are the types of gonadal shields?

A
  • Flat contact shields
  • shadow shields
  • shaped contact shields
  • clear lead shields
30
Q

What are flat contact shields?

A

An uncontoured, flat lead shield that is placed over the patients gonads

31
Q

What is a shadow shield?

A

A suspended shield that is placed above the beam defining system that casts a shadow on the patient directly over their gonads

32
Q

What is a lead filter?

A

A type of shadow shield that has breast and gonadal shielding plates and casts a shadow on the patient

33
Q

What are shaped contact shields?

A

Cuplike shields that may be held in place with a suitable carrier

34
Q

What are the benefits of specific area shielding?

A
  • minimize the number of potential deleterious c-ray induced mutations expressed in future generations
  • reduces exposure to specific areas that are shielded
35
Q

Why is the selection of appropriate technical factors essential in diagnostic imaging?

A

It ensures patients only receive a minimal dose of

36
Q

What should high quality images have?

A
  • sufficient brightness to display anatomic structures
  • appropriate levels of subject contrast to differentiate anatomic structures
  • maximum spatial resolution
  • minimal distortion
37
Q

What are the 7 considerations for technical exposure factor?

A
  1. Mass per unit volume of tissue of the area of interest
  2. Effective atomic number and electron density of tissues involved
  3. Type of image receptors
  4. SID
  5. Type and quantity of filtration
  6. Type of X-ray generator used
  7. Balance of radiographic density or brightness and contrast required
38
Q

When AEC is not used what should be used to ensure uniform selection of technical exposure factors?

A

Technique charts

39
Q

What is a radiographer responsible for checking before imaging?

A

The technique chart and taking the patients condition into account

40
Q

What combination of kVp and mas reduces patient dose?

A

Use of higher kVp and lower mAs

41
Q

What does the use of high kVp and low mas result in?

A

A high energy, penetrating beam and a small,, patient dose

42
Q

What does the use of low kVp and high MAs result in?

A

A low energy x-ray beam in which the majority will be absorbed by the patient

43
Q

What is correct image post processing essential to in imaging?

A

Essential to produce a high quality image in which artifacts produced by the IR, software or patient are controlled

44
Q

What does a quality control program include?

A

Regular monitoring and maintenance of processing and imaging display equipment

45
Q

What does a quality control program mandate?

A

Full acceptance of new equipment, regular calibration and performance evaluations of existing machines and proactive and consistent image review

46
Q

What is the air gap technique?

A

An alternate to using a grid to reduce scatter in that the patients is placed using an OID of 4-6 inches and an SID of 10-12 feet

47
Q

At what kVp levels are air gap techniques more useful?

A

When less than 90 kVp is used

48
Q

At what kVp are air gap techniques successful in chest X-rays?

A

120-140 kvp

49
Q

How does the air gap technique work?

A

Many of the scattered X-rays are so low in energy that they are absorbed by the air before they reach the IR

50
Q

Why does the SID need to be increased so much in the air gap technique?

A

To counteract the magnification that is caused by the increased OID

51
Q

How does patient dose using air gap compare to tabletop and grid?

A

It’s higher in air gap compared to tabletop but lower than grid

52
Q

What are the consequences of repeat images?

A

Additionally exposure to the patient, specifically a double dose

53
Q

What type of repeat images should be eliminated?

A

Repeats resulting from the carelessness or poor judgment of the radiographer

54
Q

When is the only time an additional image is permissible?

A

When it’s recommended by the radiologist for the purpose of obtaining additional diagnostic info

55
Q

At what rate have repeat images increased?

A

Approximately 5% but can be as high as 17%

56
Q

What are the main reasons for repeat images?

A

Positioning errors and ease of repeating

57
Q

What are the benefits of a repeat analysis program?

A

Helps identify the number of repeats and reasons for producing unacceptable images with the hopes of improving