Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology and Immunology > Week 12 > Flashcards

Week 12 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus - causes 4 diseases

A

1) Localized abscess (skin/bone)
2) Sepsis + acute endocarditis
3) hospital-aquirred and post-influenzal pneumonia
4) toxin-associated syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abscess to bone

A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus - shape

A

cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus - gram status

A

gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus - virulence factors (3)

A
  • cell wall
  • protein A (inhibits phagocytosis)
  • membrane damaging exotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Folliculitis - what

A

when hair follicles become inflammed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Folliculitis - cause

A

bacterial or fungal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Folliculitis - symptoms

A
  • small red bumps or white headed pimbles around hair follicles
  • can spread and turn into nonhealing crusty sores
  • tenderness/itchiness at site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Folliculitis - complications

A
  • Furnicle (abscess/deep pustule)
  • Carbuncle (a group of follicles that coalece into one painful infected area)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Folliculitis - common names (3)

A
  • hot tub rash
  • razor bumps
  • barber’s itch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Staphyloccocal Scaled Skin Syndrome - what

A
  • diffuse, scarlet fever-like rash
  • deeper skin infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Staphyloccocal Scaled Skin Syndrome - pathogenesis

A

superficial layers of epidermis are separated and shed in sheds
- caused by hematologic spread of toxins from focal infection (nasopharynx, superficial skin abrasion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Staphyloccocal Scaled Skin Syndrome - at risk population

A

children under 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Staphyloccocal Scaled Skin Syndrome - symptoms (5)

A
  • scarlet fever-like rash
  • malaise
  • fever
  • irritability
  • extreme tenderness over the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bullous Impetigo - pathogenesis

A
  • a thin blister that erupts and appears to be cloudy
  • eventually rupture and crust
  • caused by staphylococcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are Bullous Impetigo found (4)

A
  • trunk
  • axilla
  • extremities
  • diaper area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus - what

A

a bacteria resistant to several antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus - complications

A
  • pneumonia
  • surgical site infections
  • sepsis
  • death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus - risk

A

areas like hospital and nursing home - causes outbreaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus - transmission

A
  • direct contact with an infected wound
  • contaminated hands (of HCP)
  • contact with MRSA carriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus - diagnosis

A

culture of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci - infects what

A
  • skin and soft tissue infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci - types of skin infections

A

1) impetigo
2) celulitis
3) erysipelas
4) necrotizing faciitis, non gas forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

impetigo

A

reddish sores on the face, especially around the nose and mouth and on the hands and feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Celulitis

A

a common bacterial skin infection that causes redness, swelling, and pain in the infected area of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

erysipelas

A

a skin infection involving the dermis layer of the skin, but it may also extend to the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It is characterized by an area of erythema that is well demarcated, raised, and often affects the lower extremities, with the face being the second most commonly affected site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Necrotizing facitis

A
  • flesh eating disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci - gram status

A

gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci - oxygen status

A

aerotolerant (no oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci - virulence factors (3)

A
  • capsule containing hyaluronic acid
  • fimbriae
  • exotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

impetigo - common group

A

infants and young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

impetigo - common season

A

warm summer months, warm moist climates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

impetigo - contributing factors (2)

A
  • overcrowded housing
  • poor hygeine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

impetigo - presentation

A

small vesicle or pustule or bulla on the face (can occur elsewhere)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

impetigo - pathogenesis (3)

A
  • small vesicle or pustule or bulla on the face (can occur elsewhere)
  • primary lesion ruptures and leaves area that discharges honoey coloured liquid that hardens and crusts
  • new vessicles erupt in hours, and pruitis causes scratching to multiply infection sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Erysipelas - what

A
  • infection of upper layers of the skin
  • group a streptococcus
  • fiery red rask with raised edges
  • warm to touch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Erysipelas - pathogenesis

A
  • minor traua (bruise, burn, wound, incision)
  • rash then appears on trunk, arm, legs at localized lesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Erysipelas - symptoms

A
  • firery rash
  • high fever
  • chills
  • headache
  • nausea
  • malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cellulitis - what

A
  • deper infection affecting dermis and subcutaneous tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cellulitis - common sites

A

legs
hands
pinnae of ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cellulitis - rash

A

lesion consisting of expanding red, swollen, tender plaque with indefinite border, covering a small to wide area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cellulitis - accompaning symptoms

A
  • lesion
  • fever
  • erythema
  • heat
  • edema
  • papin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cellulitis - complications

A
  • septicemia
  • nephritis
  • death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Measles: which virus

A

morbillivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Scarlet fever: which bacteria

A

streptococcus pyogenes

46
Q

Rubella: which virus

A

togavirus

47
Q

Erethema infectiosum: which virus

A

Panovirus B19

48
Q

Roseola infantum - which virus

A

HHV-6 HHV-7

49
Q

Measles (Rubeola) - genetic material

A

RNA

50
Q

Measles (Rubeola) - rash

A
  • macular and blotchy
  • begins on face and spreads to apendages
51
Q

Measles (Rubeola) - transmission

A
  • direct contact with discharge from nose and throat
  • air-borne droplets from infected person
52
Q

Measles (Rubeola) - symptoms

A
  • rash
  • fever
  • Cough
  • Coryza
  • Conjuncivitis
  • Koplik spots in mouth
53
Q

Coryza

A

inflammation of mucus membrane in the nose

54
Q

Koplik spots

A
  • tiny, bluish white spots on erethematous base
  • cluster adjacent to molars on buccal mucosa
55
Q

Measles (Rubeola) - prevention

A

proper immunization with vaccine

56
Q

Rubella - rash characteristics

A
  • diffuse, pinkish macular rash
  • begins on trunk and spreads to arms and legs
57
Q

Rubella - symptoms (4)

A
  • mild fever
  • rash
  • postauricular, suboccipital and cervical lymphadenopathy is common
  • cold-like symptoms
58
Q

Rubella - transmission (2)

A
  • pregnant mother to unborn child
  • contact with secretions from another infected person
59
Q

Rubella - prevention

A

proper immunization with vaccine

60
Q

Rubella - long-lasting consequences

A
  • none for adults and children
61
Q

Rubella - pregnant woman early in gestation - complication

A
  • congenital rubella syndrome
  • miscarriage
62
Q

congenital rubella syndrome - symptoms (12)

A
  • cataracts
  • microcephaly
  • mental retardation
  • deafness
  • Cardiac defects
    • patent ductus arteriosus
    • tetralogy of fallot (VSD with RV outflow obstruction)
    • pulmonic stenosis
  • glaucoma
  • bone defects
  • tetralogy of fallot (VSD with RV outflow obstruction)
  • pulmonic stenosis
  • overriding aorta
63
Q

Roseola Infantum - virus

A

Human Herpesvirus Type 6 (HHV-6)

64
Q

Roseola Infantum - age

A
  • 95% below age 3
  • peak age = 9 months
65
Q

Roseola Infantum - why the target age?

A
  • transplacental antibodies protect infants until 6 months of age
  • develop own immune system after age 3
66
Q

Roseola Infantum - type of rash

A
  • maculopapular rash
  • cover trunk, spread to appendges
67
Q

Roseola Infantum - symptoms

A
  • rash
  • abrupt onset of high fever (40)
  • irritability
68
Q

Roseola Infantum - complication

A

febrile seizures

69
Q

Erythema Infectiosum - which virus

A

Human Parovirus B19

70
Q

Erythema Infectiosum - transmission

A
  • direct contact with nasal/throat discharge
  • also through blood
  • vertical transmission (mother and fetus)
71
Q

Erythema Infectiosum - symptoms (3)

A
  • rash
  • pruitis (itchy)
  • rarely has a high fever
72
Q

Erythema Infectiosum - pathogenesis

A
  • bright erethematous rash at first on cheeks and forhead, circumoral pallor
  • may reappear as child is exposed to sunlight, extremes in temp, or trauma for the skin
  • symetric “lacey” maculopapular rash on trunk happens next
73
Q

Erythema Infectiosum - pregnancy complication

A
  • fetal hydrops
  • death of fetus
74
Q

fetal hydrops

A

large amounts of fluid build up in a baby’s tissues and organs, causing extensive swelling (edema

75
Q

Chicken pox - virus

A

varicella-zoster virus (form of herpes virus)

76
Q

Varicella - stagers of skin

A

1) Papular stage
2) vesicle stage
3) ulcer/scabbing stage

77
Q

Varicella - Papular stage (2)

A
  • stage 1
  • development of papules over the trunk, spreading to limbs, buccal mucosa, scalp, axillae, URT, conjunctiva
78
Q

Varicella - Vesicle stage (2)

A
  • stage 2
  • Papules formed in stage 1 turn into vesicles (fluid)
79
Q

Varicella - ulcer stage (2)

A
  • stage 3
  • vesicles from stage 2 break open and scab over
80
Q

Varicella - symptoms

A
  • various stages of lesions
  • mild to extreme pruitis (leading to scratching and complicated bacterial infections)
  • mild fever
81
Q

Varicella - transmission

A
  • direct contact
  • airborne droplet particles
82
Q

Varicella - complications (7)

A
  • secondary bacterial infections
  • pneumonia
  • encephalitis (brain inflammation)
  • cerebellar ataxia (decreased muscle coordination)
  • transverse myelitis (inflammation of spinal cord)
  • Reye syndrome (serious multi-system condition)
  • Death
83
Q

Varicella - susceptible populations (5)

A
  • infants
  • adults
  • pregnant women
  • unborn babies if mother had not had chicken pox
  • immunocompromised people
84
Q

Herpes Zoster - common name

A

shingles

85
Q

Shingles: virus

A

varicella-zoster

86
Q

Shingles - pathogenesis

A
  • result of reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus infection
  • infection that has been dormant in sensory dorsal root ganglia since primary infection
87
Q

Shingles - contagious? (2)

A
  • YES. contagious.
  • passes on Chickenpox NOT shingles to non-immune individual
88
Q

At-risk population for shingles (4)

A
  • people aged 50+ (due to impaired t-cell mediated immunity)
  • Immunocompomized (HIV infected, chemo)
  • certain malignancies
  • chronic corticosteroid users
89
Q

Progression of Shingles (2)

A

1) prodrome (burning, tingling, neuropathic pain, extreme sensitivity of the skin to touch, pruitis)
2) lesions appear as eruption of vesicles with erethamous base

90
Q

Shingles complications

A
  • Eye involvement (blindness,)
  • postherepetic neuraligia (pain 1-3 months after rash)
91
Q

Shingles prevention

A
  • live attenuated vaccine for herpes zoster for people 50+
92
Q

Hand Foot and Mouth disease - what (2)

A
  • ulcers inside a child’s mouth,
  • AND a rash/blister on hands, feet, legs, buttocks
93
Q

Hand Foot and Mouth disease - which virus

A

coxsackievirus A5

94
Q

Hand Foot and Mouth disease - severity

A

painful, but isnt serious

95
Q

Hand Foot and Mouth disease - common age

A

children under 5

96
Q

Hand Foot and Mouth disease - transmission (4)

A
  • droplets
  • contact with infectious material
  • fecal-oral transmission
97
Q

Fungal skin infections - classifications (2)

A

deep or superficial

98
Q

Superficial fungal infections - pathogenesis

A
  • invade only superficial keratinized tissue of skin, hair, nails
  • emit an enzyme that can digest keratin
99
Q

Superficial fungal infections - examples

A
  • tinea/ringworm
100
Q

Superficial fungal infections - symptoms (3)

A
  • superficial sk in scalding
  • nail disintegration
  • hair breakage
    d/t breakdown of keratin
101
Q

Deep fungal infections - pathogenesis

A
  • invade epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue
102
Q

Diagnosis of superficial fungal infections (4)

A
  • skin scrapings
  • potassium hydroxide (KOH) disintegrates human tissue
  • KOH leaves behind hyphae
  • examine under microscope
103
Q

Dermatophyte infections - what

A
  • superficial fungal infection
  • confined to keratin layer of epidermis
104
Q

Dermatophyte infections - 3 genera

A
  • microsporum
  • epidermophyton
  • tychophyton
105
Q

Dermatophyte infections - types (7)

A
  • tinea coporus = ringworm, body
  • tinea faciale = face
  • tiniea capitis = scalp
  • tinea manus = hands
  • tinea pedis = feet
  • tinea unquium = nails
  • tinea cruris = genitalia
106
Q

Candida Albicans - what

A

fungal infection - yeast

107
Q

Candida Albicans - pathogenesis

A

Candida Albicans refleases irritating toxins on skin surface

108
Q

Candida Albicans - risk populations (5)

A
  • antibiotic therapy
  • pregnancy
  • oral contraceptive use
  • poor nutrition
  • immunosuppressive diseases
109
Q

Candida Albicans - location on body

A
  • warm, moist areas of the body
110
Q

Candida Albicans - rash characteristics (2)

A

red with well-defined border

111
Q

Candida Albicans - symptoms (3)

A
  • red rash
  • mild to severe itching/burning
  • satellite lesions (macopapular and found outside border of infection)

Microbiology and Immunology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions