Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Term 1 > Week 114: Pregnancy > Flashcards

Week 114: Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

What is cardiotocography (CTG)?

A

Continuous electronic monitoring of the fetal heart and uterine activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is fetal heart rate monitored?

A

Using Doppler ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the transducer placed when monitoring the fetal heart?

A

Over the anterior shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a foetus’ heart rate controlled by

A
  • Sympathetic system increases heart rate
  • Parasympathetic decreases heart rate
  • Maturity increases heart rate
  • Also controlled by chemoreceptors and baroreceptors in the aortic arch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-150bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the normal beat to beat variability in fetal heart rate?

A

5-15bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What checks occur post delivery?

A
  • Apgar score
  • Birthweight
  • Body temperature
  • Head circumference
  • Pass of urine/meconium within 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the full neonatal exam consist of?

A
  • Colour, breathing, behaviour, activity, posture, tone
  • Head circumference
  • Check fontanelles, palate, nose, ears, symmetry of head and facial features, assess eyes (red reflex)
  • Limbs: proportions, symmetry, no. digits, congenital dislocation of hip
  • CVS: HR, murmurs, arrhythmias
  • Chest: auscultation, symmetry, signs of respiratory distress, respiratory rate
  • Abdomen: assess or organomegaly, check umbilical cord insertion site
  • Genitalia: exclude undescended testes in males
  • Anus: exclude imperforate anus
  • Spine: exclude spina bifida
  • Note any birthmarks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is labour?

A

Regular painful contractions in the presence of cervical change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the initial assessment of a woman in labour?

A
  • Check temperature, pulse, BP, urinalysis
  • Enquire regarding SROM (spontaneous rupture of membranes)
  • Monitor contractions, check fetal heart rate
  • Abdomen: presentation, lie, engagement
  • Offer vaginal exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a partogram?

A

Graphical record of the maternal and fetal observations over time

  • Maternal vital signs
  • Uterine activity
  • Analgesia
  • Medications
  • Fluid balance
  • Fetal heart rate
  • Cervical dilatation
  • Fetal presentation and position
  • Station of presenting part
  • Presence of liquor and colour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the attitude of the foetus?

A

The degree of flexion or extension of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter?

A

9.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is optimal attitude?

A

So the suboccipitobregmatic diameter is presenting at the pelvic inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the lie?

A

The long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the uterus

  • Longitudinal
  • Transverse
  • Oblique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is presentation?

A
  • Cephalic: longitudinal, occiput first

- Breech: feet first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the position?

A
  • Left occiput-anterior -> Most common
  • Left occiput-transverse
  • Left occiput-posterior
  • Right occiput-anterior
  • Right occiput-transverse
  • Right occiput-posterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the station?

A

The leading bony edge of the presenting part relative to the ischial spines of the maternal pelvis

  • If equal then 0
  • Lower = +1/2/3…
  • Above spines = -1/2/3…

Engaged at 0 and lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is the foetus engaged?

A

At 0 and lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many stages of labour are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the first stage of labour?

A
  • The onset of labour to full cervical dilatation

- Divided into latent and active phase

22
Q

What is the latent phase?

A
  • The period between the onset of labour and a point at which a change in the slope rate of the cervical dilatation is noted
  • Should be <20 hours
23
Q

What is the active phase?

A
  • Greater rate of cervical dilatation
  • Begins around 3-4cm dilatation
  • Cervix should dilate a minims of 1.2cm/hour
24
Q

What is the second stage of labour?

A
  • Commences when the cervix has reached full dilatation of 10cm
  • Ends with delivery of the foetus
  • Prolonged second stage is >3 hours
25
Q

What is the third stage of labour?

A
  • Delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes

- Usually <10 minutes

26
Q

What are the cardinal movements of labour?

A
  • Engagement
  • Flexion
  • Descent
  • Internal rotation
  • Extension
  • External rotation
  • Delivery of anterior shoulder (expulsion)
  • Delivery of posterior shoulder (expulsion)
27
Q

What are maternal indications for induction of labour at term?

A
  • Preeclampsia/eclampsia
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Chronic renal disease
  • Chronic pulmonary disease
28
Q

What are maternal contraindications for induction of labour at term?

A
  • Active genital herpes

- Serious chronic medical conditions

29
Q

What are fetal indications for induction of labour at term?

A
  • Chorioamnionitis
  • Abnormal antepartum testing
  • Intrauterine growth restriction
  • Post-term pregnancy (>42 weeks)
  • Isoimmunisation
30
Q

What are fetal contraindications for induction of labour at term?

A
  • Malpresentation

- Fetal distress

31
Q

What are uteroplacental indications for induction of labour?

A

Placental abruption

32
Q

What are uteroplacental contraindications for induction of labour?

A
  • Cord prolapse
  • Placenta previa
  • Vaso previa
  • Prior ‘classical’ cesarean
33
Q

What are hormonal techniques to ripen the cervix?

A

⇒ Prostaglandins:
- Dinoprostone (PGE2)
- Misoprostol (PGE1)
⇒ Oxytocin

34
Q

What are hormonal techniques to initiate or augment uterine contractility?

A

⇒ Oxytocin
⇒ Prostaglandins:
- Dinprostone (PGE2)
- Misoprostol (PGE1)

35
Q

What methods other than hormones can be used to ripen the cervix?

A 
⇒	Amniotomy
⇒	Membrane stripping
⇒	Mechanical dilators
- Hygroscopic dilators
- Balloon catheter
36
Q

What methods other than hormones can be used to initiate or augment uterine contractility?

A

Amniotomy

37
Q

What types of pain relief are mainly used?

A
  • Entonox (gas and air)
  • Epidural
  • Pudendal nerve block
38
Q

What is the APGAR scoring system?

A 
Airway
Perfusion
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effort

For neonates

  • Score of 2 for each section if normal
  • Score of 0 for each section if absent
39
Q

What are the two surgical delivery procedures?

A
  • Forceps

- Vacuum

40
Q

What are indications for surgical delivery?

A
  • Maternal exhaustion
  • Need to avoid maternal expulsive efforts
  • Fetal stress
  • Prolonged second stage of labour
41
Q

What are indications for cesarean delivery?

A 
⇒	Maternal
- Failed induction of labour
- Failure to progress (labour dystocia)
- Cephalopelvic disproportion
⇒	Uteroplacental
- Previous uterine surgery
- Prior uterine rupture
- Outlet obstruction (fibroids)
- Placenta previa, large placental abruption
⇒	Fetal
- Fetal distress
- Cord prolapse
- Fetal malpresentation (transverse lie)
42
Q

What is the initial management of postpartum haemorrhage?

A
  • Early recognition, monitor vital signs, O2
  • Establish intravenous access, place urinary catheter
  • Baseline laboratory values, alert anaesthesia, blood bank
  • Correct hypovolaemia with crystalloid
  • Central haemodynamic monitoring
  • Correct anaemia/coagulation disorders
43
Q

What are the pharmacological therapies for postpartum haemorrhage?

A
  • Rapid oxytocin infusion (10-40 units/l)
  • Methylergonovine (maximum 3 doses) [avoid in hypertension]
  • 15-methyl-prostaglandin (Hemabate) (8 doses every 15-20 minutes) [avoid in asthma]
  • Dinoprostone
44
Q

What non-pharmacological management would be used in postpartum haemorrhage?

A
  • Uterine packing
  • Angiography and embolisation
  • Explorative laparotomy with surgical options
45
Q

What is the pharmacological management of preterm labour?

A 
⇒	Calcium channel blockers 
- Nifedipine
⇒	β-adrenergic agonists
- Terbutaline sulfate
- Ritodrine hydrochloride
⇒	Oxytocin antagonists
- Atosiban
⇒	Prostaglandin inhibitors
- Indomethacin
⇒	Magnesium sulfate
⇒	Others
- Nitroglycerine
46
Q

When does the quadruple test panel occur?

A

15-20 weeks

47
Q

What are the four markers the quadruple test panel uses?

A
  • AFP
  • β-hCG
  • Inhibin A
  • Estriol
48
Q

When is an amniocentesis performed?

A

When a positive quadruple test panel comes back at 16-18 weeks

49
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

A placenta wholly or partly inserting into the lower segment

50
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

Proeinuric hypertension in pregnancy, developing after 20/40 weeks

Term 1 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions