week 1 extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

the rate-limiting step of heme synthesis requires which of the following?

a. vitamin B3
b. vitamin B4
c. vitamin B5
d. vitamin B6

A

d. vitamin B6

AKA pyridoxal phosphate

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2
Q

Which porphyrins is normally important for humans?

a. type I porphyrins
b. type II porphyrins
c. type III porphyrins
d. c. type IV porphyrins

A

c. type III porphyrins

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3
Q

Which of the following induces ALAS1 gene?

a. cytochrome P450 metabolized drugs
b. hemin
c. availability of intracellular iron

A

a. cytochrome P450 metabolized drugs

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4
Q

Which of the following controls ALAS2?

a. cytochrome P450 metabolized drugs
b. vitamin C
c. availability of intracellular iron

A

c. availability of intracellular iron

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5
Q

A mutation in which of the following causes X-linked sideroblastic anemia?

a. ALAS1
b. ALAS2
c. ALAD

A

b. ALAS2

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6
Q

Iron is added to ____ via ferrochelatase

a. uroporphyrinogen III
b. uroporphyrinogen IV
c. protoporphyrin IV
d. protoporphyrin IX

A

d. protoporphyrin IX

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7
Q

Which of the following causes the photosensitivity in porphyrias?

a. tetrapyrrole intermediates
b. elevated ALA
c. increase ALA synthase activity

A

a. tetrapyrrole intermediates

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8
Q

Which of the following enzymes is most active in moving phosphatidylserine?

a. floppase
b. flippase
c. scramblase

A

b. flippase

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9
Q

Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by calcium and toxins?

a. flippase
b. floppase
c. scramblase

A

a. flippase

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10
Q

T/F: lipid rafts have a higher amount of cholesterol than the rest of the plasma membrane

A

true

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11
Q

What occurs when the receptor and effector are organized in rafts?

a. the signal is promoted
b. the signal is slowed down
c. the signal is prevented

A

a. the signal is promoted

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12
Q

Which of the following is taken up by nucleoside transporter (hENT1)

a. valine
b. adenine
c. adenosine
d. thymidine

A

c. adenosine

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13
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the lateral (horizontal) composition of the cytoskeleton?

a. alpha spectrin
b. band 3 protein
c. AE-1
d. glycophorin D

A

a. alpha spectrin

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14
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the vertical composition of the cytoskeleton?

a. alpha spectrin
b. beta spectrin
c. glycophorin C

A

c. glycophorin C

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15
Q

Genetic testing revealed that the ankyrin of a patient is mutated, which the most likely diagnosis?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis

A

a. hereditary spherocytosis

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16
Q

Genetic testing revealed that the alpha spectrin of a patient is mutated, which the most likely diagnosis?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis

A

b. hereditary elliptocytosis

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17
Q

Which the following is caused by weakened horizontal linkages?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis

A

b. hereditary elliptocytosis

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18
Q

Genetic testing revealed that the AE-1 of a patient is mutated, which the most likely diagnosis?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis

A

a. hereditary spherocytosis

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19
Q

Which TWO of the following chains are found in adult hemoglobin?

a. α chains
b. β chains
c. γ chains
d. δ chains

A

a. α chains
&
b. β chains

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20
Q

Which TWO of the following chains are found in fetal hemoglobin?

a. α chains
b. β chains
c. γ chains
d. δ chains

A

a. α chains
&
c. γ chains

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21
Q

Why is carbon monoxide (CO) poisonous?

a. its hydrophobic, and thus gets stuck in the pocket of the globin
b. it binds more tightly than oxygen and carbondioxide

A

b. it binds more tightly than oxygen and carbondioxide

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22
Q

Which of the following contains the oxidized form of iron (Fe3)?

a. Oxyhemoglobin
b. Deoxyhemoglobin
c. Carboxyhemoglobin
d. Methemoglobin

A

d. Methemoglobin

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23
Q

Which of the following states is more stable when bounded with oxygen?

a. T state
b. R state

A

b. R state

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24
Q

Which of the following increase the supply of oxygen to the tissues?

a. positive effectors of O2 binding
b. negative effectors of O2 binding

A

b. negative effectors of O2 binding

they negatively effect affinity

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25
Which of the following is a positive effector of O2 binding? a. CO2 b. O2 c. H+ d. 2,3-BPG
b. O2
26
Which of the following processes provides energy for methemoglobin reductase? a. pentose phosphate pathway b. 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate pathway c. glycolysis
c. glycolysis | it provides NADH for the enzyme, not the RBC
27
A mutation in which of the following usually presents at 3 months of age? a. α globin b. β globin c. γ globin
b. β globin
28
Which of the following is given to treat methemoglobinemia? a. methylene blue b. leukomethylene blue c. cytochrome b5
a. methylene blue
29
Which of the following does monocarboxylate transporter (MCT1) export out of RBC's? a. pyruvate b. H2O2 c. lactate
c. lactate
30
Which of the following controls hemoglobin affinity for oxygen? a. 1,3-BPG b. 2,3-BPG c. 1,5-BPG d. 2,5-BPG
b. 2,3-BPG
31
Which of the following processes provides NADPH in RBC's? a. pentose phosphate pathway b. 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate pathway c. glycolysis
a. pentose phosphate pathway
32
Which is used to maintain glutathione in its reduced state (GSH)? a. NAD+ b. NADH c. NADPH d. ATP
c. NADPH
33
Why is anemia common in people w/G6PD? a. not enough NADPH in RBC b. RBC's plasma membrane is defective c. low Heinz body production
a. not enough NADPH in RBC | NADPH helps deal with oxidative stress
34
Which of the following does eating too many fava beans result in? a. more point mutations b. lower GSH c. lower H2O2
b. lower GSH
35
T/F: according to the dualistic theory of hemopoiesis, erythrocytes share a stem cell origin with nongranular leukocytes
false, they share a stem cell origin with granular leukocytes
36
Which of the following is the major blood-forming organ in the second trimester? a. liver b. yolk sac c. bone marrow
a. liver
37
Which of the following is the major blood-forming organ in the third week of gestation? a. liver b. yolk sac c. bone marrow
b. yolk sac
38
T/F: during the hepatic phase of hemopoiesis, only erythroid cells are produced
false, some leukopoiesis also occurs
39
hematopoietic stem cells are a type of a. totipotent stem cells b. multipotent stem cells
b. multipotent stem cells | also called pluripotent stem cells
40
Which of the following isn't derived from myeloid stem cells? a. monocyte b. basophil c. red blood cells d. plasma cells
d. plasma cells
41
Which of the following is most basophilic? a. hemocytoblast b. reticulocyte c. early erythroblast d. late erythroblast
c. early erythroblast | because of the ribosome synthesis
42
Which of the following still contains the nucleus? a. normoblast b. reticulocyte
a. normoblast
43
Which of the following causes higher blood viscosity? a. excess of amino acids b. low levels of vitamin B c. high levels of erythropoietin
c. high levels of erythropoietin
44
eosinophils are derived from a. lymphoid stem cells b. myeloblasts c. monoblasts
b. myeloblasts
45
Which TWO blood cells are the most important source of cytokines? a. T cells b. B cells c. macrophages d. eosinophils
a. T cells & c. macrophages
46
Which of the following stimulates megakaryopoiesis? a. Erythropoietin b. Thrombopoietin c. GM-CSF d. M-CSF
b. Thrombopoietin
47
Which happens to iron during infection? a. increased levels b. decreased levels c. synthesis decreases
b. decreased levels
48
In which state does iron exist intracellularly? a. ferrous iron b. ferric iron
a. ferrous iron (Fe2)
49
Which of the following acts as an iron sensor? a. ferritin b. ferroportin c. transferrin d. hepcidin
c. transferrin
50
Which of the following exports iron from cells to plasma? a. ferritin b. ferroportin c. transferrin d. hepcidin
b. ferroportin
51
What occurs when hepcidin is high? a. high ferroportin b. high iron levels c. anemia d. less iron stored
c. anemia
52
Which of the following is a negative regulator of hepcidin synthesis? a. erythropoietic signals b. iron signals c. inflammation
a. erythropoietic signals
53
How does inflammation control hepcidin transcription? a. SMAD b. neogenin c. serum HJV d. JAK-STAT3
d. JAK-STAT3
54
Which of the following down-regulates hepcidin expression? a. SMAD b. serum HJV c. JAK-STAT3
b. serum HJV
55
Which of the following delivers vitamin B12 to body tissues? a. transcobalamin I b. transcobalamin II c. cubilin d. amnioless
b. transcobalamin II
56
Which of the following protects vitamin B12 from stomach acid? a. transcobalamin I b. transcobalamin II c. cubilin d. amnioless
a. transcobalamin I
57
Where is vitamin B12 stored? a. myelin sheath b. fat cells c. kidney d. pancreas
c. kidney | and liver!
58
Which of the following is resistant against pancreatic proteases? a. haptocorrin b. intrinsic factor
b. intrinsic factor
59
A deficiency in which of the following enzymes causes homocysteinemia? a. methylmalonyl-COA mutase b. methionine synthase c. hydroxymethyl- transferase
b. methionine synthase | homocysteinemia= elevation of the homocysteine
60
Which of the following methods is most useful in absorbing high concentrations of monoglutamate folate in the upper small intestine? a. passive diffusion b. folate transporters & receptors
a. passive diffusion
61
Which of the following methods is most useful in cellular absorption of Monoglutamate folate? a. passive diffusion b. folate transporters & receptors
b. folate transporters & receptors | low concentrations
62
describe the relationship between hypoxia-induced factor (HIP) and erythropoietin a. directly proportional b. indirectly proportional
a. directly proportional
63
Which of the following healthy individuals most likely has a lower hemoglobin level? a. a women b. a man c. a pregnant women d. a teenage boy
c. a pregnant women | lower because the volume increased; dilution
64
In which of the following can the body not make heme? a. sideroblastic anemia b. pernicious anemia c. megaloblastic anemia
a. sideroblastic anemia
65
In which of the following is the globin chain defective? a. sideroblastic anemia b. anemia of inflammation c. thalassemia d. megaloblastic anemia
c. thalassemia
66
Which of the following is most easily absorbed? a. heme iron b. non-heme iron
a. heme iron
67
How are hepcidin and iron stores related? a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional
a. directly proportional
68
Which of the following impares iron absorption? a. grapefruit b. yogurt c. ascorbic acid
b. yogurt
69
Which of the following stores poorly available iron? a. serum ferritin b. hemosiderin c. iron stored in the BM
b. hemosiderin
70
Which of the following is the best test for determining iron deficiency? a. serum iron b. transferrin c. total iron-binding capacity d. serum ferritin
d. serum ferritin
71
Which of the following tests varies significantly (worst test)? a. serum iron b. transferrin c. total iron-binding capacity d. serum ferritin e. bone marrow aspirate
a. serum iron
72
Which of the following tests is the gold standard for determining iron stores? a. serum iron b. transferrin c. total iron-binding capacity d. serum ferritin e. bone marrow aspirate
e. bone marrow aspirate
73
Which of the following diseases can you find increased iron stores and decreased total iron-binding capacity? a. iron deficiency anemia b. anemia of chronic disease c. thalassemia
b. anemia of chronic disease | iron available as ferritin but cannot be utilized
74
Which of the following is has abnormal cholesterol metabolism? a. megaloblastic anemia b. non-megaloblastic anemia
b. non-megaloblastic anemia
75
Which of the following is causes hypersegmented neutrophil synthesis? a. megaloblastic anemia b. non-megaloblastic anemia
a. megaloblastic anemia
76
Which of the following is caused by DNA synthesis failure? a. megaloblastic anemia b. non-megaloblastic anemia
a. megaloblastic anemia
77
A deficiency of which of the following causes neural symptoms? a. cobalamin b. folate c. both
a. cobalamin | vitamin B12
78
Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer? a. megaloblastic anemia b. non-megaloblastic anemia c. pernicious anemia
c. pernicious anemia
79
Which of the following folate forms participates in purine synthesis? a. non-polyglutamated dihydrofolate b. non-polyglutamated tetrahydrofolate c. polyglutamated diydrofolate d. polyglutamated tetrahydrofolate
d. polyglutamated tetrahydrofolate
80
Which of the following is associated with atrophic glossitis? a. megaloblastic anemia b. non-megaloblastic anemia c. pernicious anemia
c. pernicious anemia
81
Where do you find most cobalamin? a. bound to transcobalamin 1 b. bound to transcobalamin 2
a. bound to transcobalamin 1 (aka haptocorrin)
82
Which of the following is associated vitiligo? a. megaloblastic anemia b. non-megaloblastic anemia c. pernicious anemia
c. pernicious anemia
83
A deficiency of which of the following causes increased serum methylmalonic acid? a. cobalamin b. folate c. both
a. cobalamin
84
A deficiency of which of the following causes increased homocysteine levels? a. cobalamin b. folate c. both
c. both
85
While performing the Schilling test, you find that the patient has a normal B12 level when given B12 and intrinsic factor. Which of the following is most likely? a. celiac disease b. ileal disease c. bacterial overgrowth d. gastrectomy
d. gastrectomy | pernicious anemia also likey because it causes decreased intrinsic factor
86
While performing the Schilling test, you find that the patient has a normal B12 level when given B12 and antibiotics. Which of the following is most likely? a. celiac disease b. ileal disease c. bacterial overgrowth d. gastrectomy
c. bacterial overgrowth
87
A deficiency in which of the following enzymes leads to Acute Intermittent Porphyria? a. Uroporphyrinogen cosynthase b. Uroporphyrinogen Decarboxylase c. Porphobilinogen Deaminase d. Porphobilinogen Synthase
c. Porphobilinogen Deaminase
88
A deficiency in which of the following enzymes leads to Porphyria Cutanea Tarda? a. Uroporphyrinogen cosynthase b. Uroporphyrinogen Decarboxylase c. Porphobilinogen Deaminase d. Porphobilinogen Synthase
b. Uroporphyrinogen Decarboxylase
89
A deficiency in which of the following enzymes leads to congenital erythropoietic porphyria? a. Uroporphyrinogen cosynthase b. Uroporphyrinogen Decarboxylase c. Porphobilinogen Deaminase d. Porphobilinogen Synthase
a. Uroporphyrinogen cosynthase
90
Which of the following is toxic to the brain? a. ALA b. ALAD c. porphyrin
a. ALA
91
how many porphobilinogens do you need to make Uroporphyrinogen III? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
d. 4
92
Which TWO enzymes are inhibited by pb? a. Porphobilinogen Synthase b. Porphobilinogen Deaminase c. ALAS1 d. Ferrochelatase
a. Porphobilinogen Synthase (ALAD) & d. Ferrochelatase
93
Which of the following is more likely to present with symptoms? a. acquired porphyria cutanea tarda b. inherited porphyria cutanea tarda
a. acquired porphyria cutanea tarda | most people who inherit it never develop symptoms
94
Which of the following inhibits hepcidin secretion in response to anemia? a. erythropoietin b. erythroferrone
b. erythroferrone
95
Which of the following is made by RBC's? a. erythropoietin b. erythroferrone
b. erythroferrone
96
Which of the following is true a. increased erythropoietin causes increased erythroferrone synthesis b. increased erythroferron causes increased erythropoietin synthesis
a. increased erythropoietine causes increased erythroferrone synthesis