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Blood Module > week 4 extra Q's > Flashcards

week 4 extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What occurs to hematiopoiesis when the liver and spleen go through regression?

a. decreased production
b. increased production
c. unchanged production

A

b. increased production

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2
Q

How do you diffrentiate between a blood smear and a BM aspirate smear?

a. blood smear is larger
b. blood smear has megakaryocytes
c. BM aspirate smear has BM particles

A

b. BM aspirate smear has BM particles

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3
Q

Which of the following is the first morphologically recognizable cell in the granulopoiesis linage?

a. HSC
b. blast cell
c. progenitor cell
d. myelocyte
e. metamyelocyte

A

b. blast cell

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4
Q

Which of the following describes when the stem cells of the BM go the circulation?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

c. mobilization

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5
Q

How much time do cells exist in the mitotic pool?

a. 6-10 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

c. 7.5 days

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6
Q

Which of the following cells most likely have ligands?

a. mature cells
b. immature cells

A

b. immature cells

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7
Q

Which of the following describes the change of location of hematopoiesis?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

a. trafficking

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8
Q

Which of the following do we induce for the sake of bone marrow transplantation?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

c. mobilization

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9
Q

Which theory focuses on the quantity of cells produced?

a. stochastic theory
b. determinism theory of granulopoiesis

A

a. stochastic theory

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10
Q

Which of the following are mainly produced by stromal cells?

a. interlukins
b. CSF

A

b. CSF

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11
Q

How long do neutrophils stay in tissues?

a. 1 day
b. 4 days
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

a. 1 day

1-2 days

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12
Q

How long do neutrophils stay in the blood pool?

a. 6-10 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

a. 6-10 hours

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13
Q

What type of regulatory factor is interlukin?

a. inhibitory
b. stimulatory
c. both

A

c. both

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14
Q

What type of regulatory factor is CSF?

a. inhibitory
b. stimulatory
c. both

A

b. stimulatory

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15
Q

Which of theses dyes does an eosinophils stain with?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. both

A

a. acidic

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16
Q

Which of theses dyes does a neutrophil stain with?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. both

A

c. both

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17
Q

Which of the following is non-phagocytic?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. neutrophils

A

a. basophils

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18
Q

Which of the following can perform phagocytosis and release granules?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells

A

b. eosinophils

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19
Q

Whats the primary mechanism of action of eosinophils?

a. phagocytosis
b. releasing granules

A

b. releasing granules

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20
Q

Which of the following is only found in tissues?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

c. mast cells

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21
Q

Which of the following is the first to migrate to the site of action?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

d. neutrophils

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary granule?

a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Lysozyme
d. Defensins

A

b. Lactoferrin

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a secondary granule?

a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Lysozyme
d. Defensins

A

a. Myeloperoxidase

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24
Q

Which of the following kills microbes via respiratory burst?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

d. neutrophils

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25
Which of the following drills holes in parasites? a. Hypochlorous acid b. Cationic protein c. Major basic protein d. Peroxidase
b. Cationic protein
26
Which of the following cause neutrophils to have a sunglass apperance? a. MDS b. AML
a. MDS
27
In which of the following do the BM cells not mature? a. MDS b. AML
b. AML
28
Which of the following is most likely in a patient with down syndorome? a. MDS b. AML
b. AML
29
Which of the following can be identifiied due to ring sideroblasts? a. MDS b. AML
a. MDS
30
Which of the following blocks diffrentiation? a. gain of function of transcription factors b. loss of function of transcription factors c. gain of function of tyrosin kinase d. loss of function of tyrosin kinase
b. loss of function of transcription factors
31
Auer rods are a characteristic of which of the following? a. MDS b. AML
b. AML
32
Which of these antigens does flow cytomettry detect? a. surface antigens b. intracellular antigens c. both
c. both
33
Which antigen is found in megakaryoblastic cells? a. CD33 b. Gylcophorin A c. CD13 d. CD61
d. CD61
34
Which antigen is found in erythroid cells? a. CD33 b. Gylcophorin A c. CD13 d. CD61
b. Gylcophorin A
35
Which antigen is found in myeloid cells? a. CD33 b. Gylcophorin A c. CD41 d. CD61
a. CD33
36
Which of the following is most common in a 16 year old? a. AML c. ALL
a. AML
37
Which of the following is most common in a 12 year old? a. AML c. ALL
c. ALL
38
Which of the following chromosome rearrangement points towards AML? a. (9;22) b. (4;18) c. (8;21) d. (9;22)
c. (8;21)
39
Which of the following chromosome rearrangement points towards CML? a. (9;22) b. (4;18) c. (8;21) d. (7;13)
a. (9;22)
40
A patient comes in with burning sensation in fingertips, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) b. Primary Myelofibrosis (PMF) c. Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) d. Polycythemia Vera (PV)
c. Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)
41
Which of the following is characterized by increased hematocrit? a. CML b. PMF c. ET d. PV
d. PV
42
Which of the following is characterized by tear drop shaped RBC's? a. CML b. PMF c. ET d. PV
b. PMF
43
Which of the following is mostly caused by JAK2 mutation? a. CML b. PMF c. ET d. PV
d. PV
44
Which of the following is characterized by myelocytes in peripheral blood? a. CML b. PMF c. ET d. PV
b. PMF
45
Which of the following is characterized by increased basophils? a. CML b. PMF c. ET d. PV
a. CML
46
Which TWO of the following is characterized by increased megakarocytes? a. CML b. PMF c. ET d. PV
b. PMF & c. ET
47
Which is FALSE about alkylating agenst? a. they work against proliferating and nonproliferating cells b. they pair G-A c. they cause DNA mispairing d. they can lead to another cancer
b. they pair G-A | they pair G-T
48
Which two of the following are pro drugs? a. mechloroathamine b. cyclophosphamide c. busulfan d. procarbazine e. methotrexate
b. cyclophosphamide & d. procarbazine
49
``` Which inhibits the topiomerase 2 enzyme? a. 6-mercaptopurine b. leucovorin c vincristine d. doxorubicin ```
d. doxorubicin
50
Which of the following is structurally related to folic acid? a. methotrexate b. 5-fluorouracil c. 6-mercaptopurine d. cyclophosphamide
a. methotrexate
51
Which of the following drugs has lower hypersensitivity reactions when combined with 6-mercaptopurine? a. leucovorin b. vincristine c. doxorubicin d. asparaginase
d. asparaginase
52
Which can be given orally? a. busulfan b. procarbazine c. leucovorin d. vincristine
c. busulfan
53
What type of drugs have toxicities that can be prevented when given leucovorin? a. prodrugs b. antimetabolites c. alkylating agents
b. antimetabolites
54
Which of the following can cause haemorragic cystits? a. cyclophosphamide b. busulfan c. leucovorin d. vincristine e. doxorubicin
a. cyclophosphamide
55
Which of the following can cause interstitual pulmonary fibrosis? a. cyclophosphamide b. doxorubicin c. leucovorin d. vincristine e. busulfan
e. busulfan | interstitial pulmonary fibrosis AKA busulfan lung
56
Which of the following does 6-mercaptopurine incorporate into? a. DNA b. RNA c. both
c. both
57
Uromitexan (Mesna) is used to treat the side effects of which a. busulfan b. leucovorin c. cyclophosphamide d. doxorubicin
c. cyclophosphamide
58
Which of the following inhibits ribonucleotide reductase? a. leucovorin b. hydroxyurea c. doxorubicin d. asparaginase e. vincristine
b. hydroxyurea
59
Which of the following shouldn't be taken by a patient who has gout disease? a. 5-fluorouracil b. 6-mercaptopurine c. leucovorin d. vincristine e. doxorubicin
b. 6-mercaptopurine | gout treatment is allopurinol, that inhibits xanthine oxidase (XO) which metabolizes the drug
60
Which of the following is preferred for the treatment of CML? a. doxorubicin b. hydroxyurea c. asparaginase d. imatinib
d. imatinib | preferred over hydroxyurea
61
What is given to reat CML? a. 5-fluorouracil b. 6-mercaptopurine c. busulfan d. leucovorin
c. busulfan
62
Which cell phase do antimetabolites inhibit? a. G1 phase b. G2 phase c. S phase d. metaphase
c. S phase
63
Which of the following is tetrogenic? a. leucovorin b. vincristine c. doxorubicin d. methotrexate e. cyclophosphamide
d. methotrexate
64
Which has a side effect of foot drop? a. leucovorin b. vincristine c. doxorubicin d. 6-mercaptopurine e. cyclophosphamide
b. vincristine
65
Which of the following is given to MM patients above the age of 65? a. lenalidomide b. dexamethasone c. prednisone
c. prednisone
66
Which has an adverse effect of paresthesia and phlebitis? a. leucovorin b. doxorubicin c. cyclophosphamide d. vincristine e. 6-mercaptopurine
d. vincristine
67
Which of the following drugs targets the philadelphia chromosome? a. doxorubicin b. hydroxyurea c. asparaginase d. imatinib e. cyclophosphamide
d. imatinib
68
Which of the following drugs has a side effect of cardiotoxicity thats exaspertated by trastuzumab? a. leucovorin b. vincristine c. cyclophosphamide d. doxorubicin
d. doxorubicin
69
Which has short half life? a. mechloroathamine b. cyclophosphamide c. busulfan d. procarbazine
a. mechloroathamine
70
Which drug combination is used to treat non-hodgkins lymphoma? a. MOPP b. R-CHOP c. CVAD d. ABVD
b. R-CHOP
71
Which of the following has a side effect of fluid retetion? a. prednisone b. asparaginase c. hydroxyurea d. imatinib e. doxorubicin
a. prednisone

Blood Module (6 decks)

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