Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Blood Module > learning topic extra Q's > Flashcards

learning topic extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following causes sideroblastic anemia?

a. high lead levels
b. hematopoietic cell destruction on the bone marrow
c. heme biosynthesis defect

A

c. heme biosynthesis defect (in erythroid precursors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is the treatment for acquired sideroblastic anemia?

a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. chelation therapy
d. transfusion

A

b. growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Schwachman-Diamond syndrome may cause which of the following?

a. aplastic anemia
b. sideroblastic anemia
c. lead poisoning
d. pernicious anemia

A

a. aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is the treatment for X-linked Sideroblastic anemia?

a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. immunosuppression
d. chelation therapy

A

a. vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is the treatment for aplastic anemia?

a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. immunosuppression
d. chelation therapy

A

c. immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following doesn’t depend on plasma volume?

a. Hb
b. HCT
c. MCV
d. RBC count

A

c. MCV

plasma volume effects red cell mass-RCM; RBC count, Hb, & HCT depend on RCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

X-ray of patient shows black-blue lines on epiphyses of long bone, which of the following is most likely?

a. aplastic anemia
b. lead poisoning
c. MDS
d. sideoblastic anemia

A

b. lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a subtype of Myelodysplastic syndrome?

a. sideroblastic anemia
b. aplastic anemia
c. iron-deficiency anemia
d. pernicious anemia

A

a. sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following cells does cytomegalovirus replicate in?

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMNL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is true about parvovirus B19?

a. double-stranded DNA
b. enters cells via K blood antigen receptor
c. they attack rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors

A

c. they attack rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following cause fifth disease?

a. epstein-Barr virus
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. parvovirus B19

A

d. parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Other than Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following viruses causes mononucleosis?

a. parainfluenza virus
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. only Epstein-Barr virus causes mono

A

c. cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following has NO association with malignancies?

a. HTLV-1
b. HTLV-2
c. EBV

A

b. HTLV-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following cells does Epstein-Barr virus replicate in?

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

d. T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following cells does Parvovirus B19 replicate in?

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

b. erythrocyte precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Patient comes in with IM and has a negative heterophile antibody result. Which virus is the cause of his illness?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19

A

b. CMV

negative heterophile= CMV
positive heterophile= EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the viruses enter the cells via P blood antigen receptor?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19

A

e. Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Patient comes in with IM and sore throat. Which virus is the cause of his illness?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19

A

a. EBV

sore throat=EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following indivisuals are assumed to be infectious?

a. ALT positive
b. TSP positive
c. HTLV antibody positive
d. T cell hairy leukemia positive

A

c. HTLV antibody positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Indivisuals with which of the following viruses shouldn’t consume salted fish?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2

21
Q

Indivisuals with which of the following viruses have immuno-complexes in their circulation?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HAV
d. HBV

22
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive test for intravascular anemia?

a. hemoglobinuria
b. hemosiderinuria
c. methemalbuminemia
d. direct coombs tests
e. indirect coombs tests

A

b. hemosiderinuria

23
Q

Which of the following has leg ulcers as one of the symptoms?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease

A

e. sickle cell disease

24
Q

Which of the following diseases has mostly asymptomatic cases?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease

A

b. hereditary elliptocytosis

25
Which TWO of the following can be treated with splenecomy in severe cases? a. hereditary spherocytosis b. hereditary elliptocytosis c. G6PD deficiency d. sickle cell disease
a. hereditary spherocytosis & b. hereditary elliptocytosis
26
Which of the folllowing can be treated with folic acid? a. hereditary spherocytosis b. hereditary elliptocytosis c. G6PD deficiency d. thalassemia e. sickle cell disease
c. G6PD deficiency
27
Patient comes in with thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and organ damage. Which is the most likely diagnosis? a. hemolytic disease of new born b. hereditary spherocytosis c. autoimmune hemolytic anemia d. thrombotic microangiopathy
d. thrombotic microangiopathy | organ damage due to microscopic blood clots in capillaries
28
Which of the following causes intravascular hemolysis? a. liver disease b. infections c. snake bites d. membrane defects
c. snake bites
29
Which of the following causes jaundice? a. conjugated bilirubin b. unconjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
30
T/F: coagulation inhibitors are suppressed in DIC
false, they're consumed
31
Which of the following has lower levels in DIC? a. platelets b. fibrin degradation products c. schistocytes d. D-dimers
a. platelets
32
Which of the following causes shock in DIC? a. activation of fibrogen via thrombin b. activation of complement and kinin systems c. entrapment and consumption of platelets
b. activation of complement and kinin systems
33
Which coagulation factor is the mediator of DIC? a. CF 3 b. CF 8 c. CF 12 d. CF 13
a. CF 3 (tissue factor)
34
Which of the following is given to patients with DIC? a. cryoprecipitate b. FFP c. PRBC
b. FFP
35
Which of the following describes a left shift? a. premature release of lymphocytes b. premature release of eosinophils c. premature release of t cells d. premature release of neutrophils
d. premature release of neutrophils
36
Which of the following may cause neutropenia? a. felty's syndrome b. loeffler's syndrome c. hypereosinophilic syndrome
a. felty's syndrome
37
Which is most abundant in a 3-year-old healthy child? a. basophils b. eosinophils c. lymphocytes d. neutrophils
c. lymphocytes
38
Which of the following is the mediator of histamine? a. basophils b. eosinophils c. lymphocytes d. neutrophils
a. basophils
39
Which of the following usually accompanies whooping cough? a. basophilia b. monocytosis c. lymphocytosis d. neutrophilia
c. lymphocytosis
40
Which of the following may cause eosinophilia? a. felty's syndrome b. loeffler's syndrome
b. loeffler's syndrome
41
Which of the following phagocytosis antigen-antibody complexes? a. basophils b. eosinophils c. lymphocytes d. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
42
``` In which type of cancer is the Philadelphia chromosome most frequent? A. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL) B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) ```
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
43
Which of the following is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor? a. prednisone b. asparaginase c. hydroxyurea d. imatinib e. doxorubicin
d. imatinib
44
What's the gold standard diagnostic method used to diagnose malignant lymphoid neoplasms? a. Morphological assessment b. Immunophenotyping c. Cytogenetic studies d. Molecular genetic analysis
a. Morphological assessment
45
Which TWO of the following are found on NK cells? a. CD55 b. CD56 c. CD57 d. CD19 e. CD20
b. CD56 & c. CD57
46
What's the tests is used to find the neoplastic cells are lymphoid and myeloid? a. Morphological assessment b. Immunophenotyping c. Cytogenetic studies d. Molecular genetic analysis
b. Immunophenotyping
47
Which of the following is a result of a t(14;18) mutation? a. hodgkins lymphoma b. MGUS c. follicular lymphoma d. burkitts lymphoma
c. follicular lymphoma
48
Which of the following is a result of a t(4;18) mutation? a. hodgkins lymphoma b. MGUS c. follicular lymphoma d. burkitts lymphoma
d. burkitts lymphoma

Blood Module (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions